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Year One Comprehensive Material > DPT 630: Medical Physiology > Flashcards

DPT 630: Medical Physiology Flashcards

1
Q

The ______ processes almost all sensory information going to the cerebral cortex and almost all motor information coming from the cerebral cortex to the brain and spinal cord.

a. Spinal cord
b. Thalamus
c. Hypothalamus
d. Pituitary

A

B

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2
Q

The process of conversion of a stimulus (e.g. sound waves, pressure) into electrochemical energy is called sensory _____.

a. Repolarization
b. Depolarization
c. Transduction
d. Hyperpolarization

A

C

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3
Q

In the sensory pathway, the _____ order neuron crosses to the collateral side.

a. Third
b. Second
c. Fourth
d. First

A

B

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4
Q

True or False

Relay nuclei process the information they receive via local interneurons, which may be excitatory or inhibitory

A

True

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5
Q

Olfactory receptor is a ______.

a. Mechanoreceptor
b. Nociceptor
c. Photoreceptor
d. Thermoreceptor
e. Chemoreceptor

A

E

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6
Q

Receptor potentials are ______ electronic potentials, whose amplitude correlates with the size of the stimulus.

a. All or none
b. Nongraded
c. Graded

A

C

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7
Q

True or False

Smaller the receptor field, the more precisely the sensation be localized or identified

A

True

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8
Q

Slowly adapting mechanoreceptors are designed to encode _____ and ______ of stimulus.

a. Onset; offset
b. Duration; intensity

A

B

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9
Q

If the skin temperature rises to damaging levels (above 45⁰C) then _____ get activated.

a. Polymodal nociceptors
b. Mechanoreceptors

A

A

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10
Q

Visual acuity is highest at the central point of the retina called the ______.

a. Sclera
b. Cornea
c. Macula
d. Choroid

A

C

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11
Q

True or False

Rods are sensitive to low-intensity light

A

True

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12
Q

Vitamin A deficiency causes night blindness because vitamin A is required for regeneration of _____.

a. Metarhodopsin II
b. Cyclic GMP
c. 11-cis rhodopsin

A

C

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13
Q

The right optic tract is formed by fibers from the _____ nasal hemiretina and _____ temporal hemiretina.

a. Left; right
b. Right; right
c. Left; left
d. Right; left

A

A

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14
Q

Three ossicles of the middle ear include all of the following except:

a. Malleus
b. Stapes
c. Incus
d. Macula

A

D

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15
Q

Vestibular organs which help maintain equilibrium and balance included all the below except:

a. Utricle
b. Saccule
c. Semicircular canal
d. Organ of Corti

A

D

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16
Q

The _______ predict that disequilibrium is going to occur.

a. Utricle
b. Semicircular canals
c. Saccule

A

B

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17
Q

True or False

The motoneuron pool is the set of motoneurons innervating fibers within the same muscle

A

True

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18
Q

Gamma motoneurons innervate _____ muscle fibers

a. Extrafusal
b. Intrafusal

A

B

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19
Q

The knee jerk reflex is a _____ spinal cord reflex

a. Disynaptic
b. Polysynaptic
c. Monosynaptic

A

C

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20
Q

A _____ hemianopsia is the loss of half of the visual field on the same side in both eyes.

a. Homonymous
b. Heteronymous

A

A

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21
Q

Impedance matching is accomplished which of the following? (choose 2)

a. Inertia of the endolymph
b. Stiffness of the basilar membrane
c. Ratio of the large surface area of the tympanic membrane of the small surface area of the oval window
d. Mechanical advantage offered by the lever system of the ossicles

A

C and D

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22
Q

Bending the sterocilia in the direction of the kinocilium causes membrane _____.

a. Depolarization
b. Hyperpolarization

A

A

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23
Q

Plateau seen during the action potential of the ventricular muscle is due to the balancing act of the inward (ECF to ICF) _____ current to the outward (ICF to ECF) ______ current.

a. Potassium; Sodium
b. Calcium; Sodium
c. Sodium; Calcium
d. Calcium; Potassium

A

D

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24
Q

In case of SA node action potential, the upstroke (phase 0) caused by the inward _____ current.

a. Sodium
b. Chloride
c. Calcium
d. Potassium

A

C

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25
Q

In case of SA node action potential, the spontaneous depolarization (phase 4) caused by the inward _____ current.

a. Chloride
b. Calcium
c. Sodium
d. Potassium

A

C

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26
Q

Latent pacemakers include all of the below except:

a. SA Node
b. Bundle of His
c. Purkinje Fibers
d. AV Node

A

A

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27
Q

Match the following

Inotropic effect --> \_\_\_\_\_\_
Chronotropic effect --> \_\_\_\_\_\_
QRS Complex --> \_\_\_\_\_\_
Preload for the ventricles --> \_\_\_\_\_\_
P wave --> \_\_\_\_\_\_
Afterload for the ventricles --> \_\_\_\_\_\_
T wave --> \_\_\_\_\_\_
• End-diastolic volume
• Effect on contractility
• Effect on HR
• Aortic pressure
• Represents ventricular depolarization
• Represents atrial depolarization
• Represents ventricular repolarization
A
  • Inotropic effect: Effect on contractility
  • Chronotropic effect: Effect on HR
  • QRS Complex: Represents ventricular depolarization
  • Preload for the ventricles: End-diastolic volume
  • P wave: Represents atrial depolarization
  • Afterload for the ventricles: aortic pressure
  • T wave: Represents ventricular repolarization
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28
Q

Cardiac glycoside increases contractility in the heart muscle by blocking Na+ - K+ ATPase and increasing the ______ concentration inside the cell.

a. Chloride
b. Potassium
c. Magnesium
d. Calcium

A

D

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29
Q

In the normal physiologic range, as the length of the muscle fiber increases the tension/pressure developed in the cardiac muscle fiber ____

a. Decreases
b. Stays the same
c. Increases

A

C

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30
Q

Stroke volume = ________ - ________.

a. Heart rate - cardiac output
b. End-diastolic volume - end-systolic volume
c. End-systolic volume - end-diastolic volume

A

B

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31
Q

Cardiac output = ________ x heart rate

a. Stroke volume
b. End-diastolic volume
c. End-systolic volume

A

A

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32
Q

First heart sound is caused by closure of _____ valves.

a. AV valves
b. Aortic/pulmonic valves

A

A

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33
Q

The longest phase of the cardiac cycle is _______.

a. Isovolumetric ventricular relaxation
b. Reduced ventricular filling
c. Rapid ventricular ejection
d. Atrial systole

A

B

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34
Q

Baroreceptors are ______ which are located in the carotid sinus and aortic arch.

a. Thermoreceptors
b. Chemoreceptors
c. Mechanoreceptors

A

C

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35
Q

When the renin-angiontensin II-aldosterone system is stimulated by low mean arterial pressure it causes all of the following except:

a. Decreased sodium reabsorption
b. Vasoconstriction
c. Increased aldosterone secretion
d. Increased thirst

A

A

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36
Q

Arterial pressure is regulated by two major systems, the __________ and ___________.

a. Baroreceptor reflex
b. Breathing reflex
c. Brainbridge reflex
d. Renin-angiotensin II-aldosterone system

A

A and D

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37
Q

_______ control the blood flow to the capillaries.

a. Arteries
b. Venules
c. Arterioles

A

C

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38
Q

When net filtration is out of the capillary into the interstitial fluid, it is called _______.

a. Absorption
b. Filtration

A

B

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39
Q

The lymphatic system is responsible for returning _______ fluid to the vascular compartment.

a. Interstitium
b. Capillary
c. Venous

A

A

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40
Q

Causes of edema include all of the following except:

a. Severe liver failure
b. Arteriolar dilation
c. Decreased plasma protein concentration
d. Venous dilation

A

D

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41
Q

Increase in blood flow during exercise is due to increased metabolic demand and is an example of _______.

a. Active hyperemia
b. Autoregulation
c. Reactive hyperemia

A

A

42
Q

All the mechanisms below are involved in generating heat except:

a. Increase in thyroid hormone
b. Increased sweating
c. Shivering
d. Stimulation of sympathetic nervous system

A

B

43
Q

All of the below are cardiovascular response to moving from supine to a standing position except:

a. Increased peripheral resistance
b. Increase in unstressed volume
c. Increased fluid absorption

A

B

44
Q

Sympathetic nervous system innervates the smooth muscle of the respiratory airways and causes _________ via β2 receptors

a. Bronchiodilation
b. Bronchioconstriction

A

A

45
Q

Surfactant is produced by _______ pneumocytes

a. Type I
b. Type II

A

B

46
Q

The volume of air maximally inspired above the tidal volume is called the ______.

a. Expiratory reserve volume
b. Tidal volume
c. Inspiratory reserve volume
d. Vital capacity

A

C

47
Q

Increases in temperature causes a _____ shift of the O2-hemoglobin dissociation curve.

a. Left
b. Right

A

B

48
Q

The gamma chain in hemoglobin F causes _____ affinity of hemoglobin for O2.

a. Increased
b. Decreased

A

A

49
Q

________ causes left shift of the O2-hemoglobin dissociation curve.

a. Decreases in pH
b. Decreases in 2,3-DPG concentration
c. Increases in PCO2
d. Increased temperature

A

B

50
Q

When less O2 is bound to hemoglobin, the affinity of hemoglobin for CO2 increases, this is called the _______ effect.

a. Haldane
b. Bohr

A

A

51
Q

When partial pressure of O2 in alveolar gas decreases, it causes pulmonary _________.

a. Vasoconstriction
b. Vasodilation

A

A

52
Q

True or False

Left-to-right shunts cause hypoxemia and the hypoxemia cannot be corrected by having the person breathe a high O2 gas.

A

False

53
Q

The normal V/Q ratio is _____.

a. 0.4
b. 0.6
c. 0.8
d. 1.0

A

C

54
Q

The respiratory center receives input from all the following except:

a. Lung stretch receptors
b. Central chemoreceptors
c. Medullary auditory center
d. Peripheral chemoreceptors

A

C

55
Q

True or False

Peripheral chemoreceptors are more sensitive to changes in pH as compared to changes in arterial PO2

A

False

56
Q

Stimulation of irritant receptors by noxious chemicals causes ______.

a. Bronchodilation
b. Bronchodilation

A

A

57
Q

At high altitude, pulmonary vascular resistance _______ due to decrease PO2.

a. Increases
b. Decreases

A

A

58
Q

In case of diffusion defect there is hypoxemia with ______ A-a gradient.

a. Increased
b. Decreased

A

A

59
Q

Decrease in cardiac output causes ________ due to decreases in blood flow

a. Hypoxia
b. Decreased O2 utilization by tissues
c. Hypoxemia

A

A

60
Q

All of the following are hromones secreted by the kidenys except:

a. Renin
b. Aldosterone
c. Erythropoietin

A

B

61
Q

True or False

Juxtamedullary nephrons have longer loops of Henle as compared to superficial cortical nephrons

A

True

62
Q

Volume of plasma completely cleared of a substance by the kidneys per unit time is the _____ of that substance

a. Renal clearance
b. Glomerular volume
c. Renal plasma flow

A

A

63
Q

Clearance ratio is the clearance of any substance compare to the clearance of what?

a. Sodium
b. Inulin
c. PAH
d. Glucose

A

B

64
Q

Kidneys receive about ___ % of the cardiac output

a. 25
b. 10
c. 1

A

A

65
Q

Sympathetic nervous system causes constriction of afferent arterioles and causes _____ in GFR.

a. Decrease
b. Increase
c. No change

A

A

66
Q

Renal blood flow is autoregulated by varying the resistance of the ______.

a. Glomerulus
b. Bowman’s capsule
c. Afferent arteriole

A

C

67
Q

Glomerular capillary barrier has a _______ chaege which affects filtration of substance across it.

a. Negative
b. Positive

A

A

68
Q

Glomerular filtration is dependent of 4 Starling forces but ______ is usually equal to zero and does not have a major impact of the filtration rate.

a. Interstitial hydrostatic pressure
b. Interstitial fluid oncotic pressure
c. Capillary hydrostatic pressure
d. Capillary oncotic pressure

A

B

69
Q

One of the Starling forces which increases along the length of the glomerular capillary is _______.

a. Interstitial hydrostatic pressure
b. Interstitial fluid oncotic pressure
c. Capillary hydrostatic pressure
d. Capillary oncotic pressure

A

D

70
Q

Constriction of the ureter causes _______ in GFR.

a. Increase
b. Decrease

A

B

71
Q

Excretion is the net result or sum of the process of filtration, ______, and _______.

a. Secretion
b. Active transport
c. Passive transport
d. Reabsorption

A

A and D

72
Q

The threshold plasma concentration at which glucose is first excreted in the urine is _______mg/dL.

a. 100
b. 200
c. 400

A

B

73
Q

ADH has all actions on the renal tubule except

a. Increased urea permeability
b. Decreased activity of the Na-K-Cl cotransporter
c. Increased water permeability

A

B

74
Q

In presence of ADH, water permeability increases in the ________ and __________.

a. Late distal tubule
b. Thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle
c. Proximal tubule
d. Collecting tubule

A

A and D

75
Q

In central diabetes insipidous, low ADH causes ________ and ________

a. Dilute urine
b. Low plasma osmolarity
c. Concentrated urine
d. High plasma osmolarity

A

A and D

76
Q

Acid-base balance is achieved by all of the following except

a. Respiratory mechanisms
b. Cardiac mechanisms
c. Buffers in ECF
d. Renal mechanisms

A

B

77
Q

When arterial pH is 7.50 it is called ___________

a. Alkalemia
b. Academia

A

A

78
Q

All of the following are fixed acid except

a. Carbon dioxide
b. Phosphoric acid
c. Formic acid
d. Sulphuric acid

A

A

79
Q

True or False

The most effective physiologic buffers will have a pk within 1.0 of 7.4

A

True

80
Q

True or False

Although the pk of the bicarbonate buffer is less than ideal as compared to phosphate buffer, bicarbonate buffer is still more effective

A

True

81
Q

Major portion of the fixed H+ is excreted by the kidneys in the form of ____________

a. Titratable acid
b. Sulphuric acid
c. NH4+
d. CO2

A

C

82
Q

In metabolic alkalosis HCO3 is increased with respiratory compensation causing __________

a. Hyperventilation
b. Hypoventilation

A

B

83
Q

Anion gap = _________ - (HCO3 + Cl)

a. Na
b. K
c. Ca

A

A

84
Q

All of the following are causes of respiratory alkalosis except:

a. Pulmonary embolism
b. Central sleep apnea
c. Hysterical hyperventilation
d. Sepsis

A

B

85
Q

True or False

Adrenergic neurons cause relaxation of sphincters

A

False

86
Q

GI peptides are secreted by endocrine cells of the GI tract into the interstitial fluid and delivered by diffusion to the target cell are called as ______.

a. Hormones
b. Paracrines
c. Neurocrines

A

B

87
Q

________ contractions are periodic contractions followed by relaxation.

a. Tonic
b. Phasic

A

B

88
Q

Oral phase of swallowing is _________.

a. Voluntary
b. Involuntary

A

A

89
Q

To enter the duodenum, solid food must be reduced to particles of ______.

a. 10 mm3
b. 5 mm3
c. 1 mm3

A

C

90
Q

_________ occur to move contents of the large intestine over long distances, such as from the transverse colon to the sigmoid colon.

a. Segmentation
b. Rectosphincter reflex
c. Mass movements

A

C

91
Q

The components of gstric juice include all of the following except:

a. Intrinsic factor
b. HCl
c. Gastrin
d. Pepsinogen

A

C

92
Q

Cimetidine decreases HCl production by inhibiting

a. H2 receptors
b. H-K ATPase
c. M3 receptors

A

A

93
Q

Following gastrocectomy patients must receive injections of vitamin B12 to bypass the absorption cause by the loss of what?

a. Gastrin
b. HCl
c. Pepsinogen
d. Intrinsic factor

A

D

94
Q

Parasympathetic innervation _________ pancreatic secretion

a. Stimulates
b. Inhibits

A

A

95
Q

When food particles reach the small intestine _______ is secreted which stimulates contraction of the gall bladder.

a. Insulin
b. HCl
c. CCK
d. Gastrin

A

C

96
Q

Only _______ are absorbed by intestinal epithelial cells

a. Disaccharides
b. Monosaccharides
c. Polysaccharides

A

B

97
Q

_______ converts all of the inactive precursors of pancreatic proteases to active form.

a. Trypsin
b. HCl
c. Gastrin
d. Pepsin

A

A

98
Q

The products of lipid digestion are solubilized in the intestinal lumen micelles by what?

a. HCl
b. Bilirubin
c. Lipases
d. Bile salts

A

D

99
Q

Failure to synthesize ______ results in either chylomicrons not forming or being unable to be transported out of the intestinal cells into the lymph.

a. Golgi apparatus
b. Ribosomes
c. Endoplasmic reticulum
d. Nucleus

A

A

100
Q

All the following are examples of steroid hormones except what?

a. Catecholamine
b. Aldosterone
c. Estradiol
d. Cortisol

A

A

Year One Comprehensive Material (16 decks)

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