3.110 Use of Force Policy

Question 1

Officers are legally authorized to use deadly force to effect an arrest when in compliance with Nevada Revised Statutes (NRS) and the legal standards under:

Answer 1

Tennessee v Garner

Question 2

Officers will only use a level of force that is ____________ to bring an incident or persons under control and to safely accomplish a lawful purpose.

Answer 2

Objectively reasonable

Question 3

The standard that courts use to examine whether a use of force is constitutional was first set forth in ____________ and expanded by subsequent court cases.

Answer 3

Graham v Connor

Question 4

Which of the following is included in De-escalation (select all that apply)?

Answer 4

a. Gather information about the incident
b. Assess the risks
c. Assemble resources
d. Slow momentum
e. Communicate and coordinate response

Question 5

Any officer present, regardless of rank, and observing another officer using force that is clearly beyond what is justified or objectively reasonable under the circumstances will, when in a safe position to do so, intercede to prevent the use of unreasonable force. The officer will promptly report these observations and the efforts made to intervene to a supervisor. If the supervisor is using unjustified force, the officer will report it to the next level of supervision. If the observing officer is a supervisor, they will issue a direct order to stop the violation.

Answer 5

Duty to intervene

Question 6

An impending violent act, harm, or resistance that will likely occur if not instantly confronted or addressed:

Answer 6

Imminent threat

Question 7

When reporting unjustified force, reporting officer will document in writing no later than ____ days after the occurrence:

Answer 7

10

Question 8

What will be included in reporting of unjustified force?

Answer 8

a. Date, Time, Location of incident
b. Identity, if known, of participants
c. Description of the actions taken as a result of the observation

Question 9

Which of the following requires medical attention to be summoned:

Answer 9

a. Baton/Impact weapons – strikes
b. Canine – all bites
c. ECD
d. OC Spray
e. Projectile weapons
f. Handgun/Rifle
g. PIT/Ramming

Question 10

The subject is uncooperative, not complying with an officer’s commands, or their physical actions are intended to prevent an officer from placing the subject in custody or under control; the subject’s actions are not directed at harming the officer or others.

Answer 10

Obstructive

Question 11

The placement of a subject’s body in a manner that does not restrict breathing or obstruct the airway, i.e., on their side or upright:

Answer 11

Recovery position

Question 12

Officers may use force in all of following (select all that apply):

Answer 12

a. Protect themselves or others
b. Overcome resistance
c. Effect a lawful detention
d. Lawful arrest
e. Conduct a lawful search

Question 13

Officers are legally authorized to use deadly force to effect an arrest when in compliance with Nevada Revised Statues (NRS) and the legal standards under Tennessee v. Garner (1985) to:

Answer 13

a. Protect themselves or others from what is reasonably believed to be an imminent threat of death or substantial bodily injury

b. Prevent the escape of a fleeing felon who the officer has probable cause to believe has committed a violent felony crime and is an imminent threat to human life if escape should occur.

Question 14

A level of control that balances against a subject who is assaultive and has the potential to cause injury or substantial pain:

Answer 14

Intermediate force

Question 15

Whenever an officer applies use of force option upon a subject that results in either observable signs or complaints of injury or difficulty breathing, the officer will:

Answer 15

a. Continuously monitor the subject
b. Immediately summon medical attention

Question 16

Officers will be mindful that persons who are in a prolonged physical encounter with officers may be at an increased risk of medical distress. Incidents involving these persons should be considered:

Answer 16

Medical emergencies

Question 17

Officers will not restrain subjects who are in custody and under control in a manner that compromises their ability to breathe. Proned handcuffed subjects will be immediately placed in:

Answer 17

Recovery or seated position once safe to do so

Question 18

Officers will monitor for signs of life and update responding medical personnel via Dispatch with any changes in the subject’s conditions.True or False?

Answer 18

True

Question 19

When requesting medical attention, the officer will provide which of the following? (Select all that apply)

Answer 19

a. Nature of injury
b. Subject’s age and gender
c. Other circumstances that could be potential medical risk to the subject

Question 20

Based upon the known facts and circumstances, the officer reasonably believes the subject poses an imminent threat to the life of an officer or others, and the officer must act immediately to prevent death or substantial bodily injury:

Answer 20

Imminent jeopardy

Question 21

Lesser alternatives have been reasonably considered and exhausted before the use of deadly force, to include disengagement:

Answer 21

Preclusion

Question 22

Non-uniformed commissioned personnel the rank of lieutenant and below are required to carry at least _____ intermediate force option (baton, oleoresin capsicum [OC] spray, or electronic control device [ECD]) on their person when on-duty:

Answer 22

One

Question 23

Force situations are dynamic and require an officer to continually assess the subject’s actions to determine, based on policy, training, and experience, which use of force option will de-escalate the situation and bring it under control in a safe manner. True or false ?

Answer 23

True

Question 24

According to this policy, officers will modify their level of control in relation to the:

Answer 24

Amount of resistance offered by a subject

Question 25

What are the levels of resistance?

Answer 25

Compliant Obstructive, Assaultive, Life-Threatening

Question 26

What are the levels of control?

Answer 26

a. Low level b. Intermediate c. Deadly Force

Question 27

A subject’s “intent to harm” falls within what two levels of resistance.

Answer 27

Obstructive/Assaultive

Question 28

The use of a low lethality shotgun of 7 yards or greater, falls within what level of control?

Answer 28

Intermediate

Question 29

The use of a 40mm Specialty Impact Weapon less than 5 yards, falls within what level of resistance?

Answer 29

Life-threatening

Question 30

Ramming” falls within what level of control?

Answer 30

Deadly force

Question 31

The elements of deadly force are:

Answer 31

Ability ,Opportunity, Imminent Jeopardy, Preclusion

Question 32

According to policy, examples of opportunity include

Answer 32

a. Relative distance to the officer or others b. Physical barriers between the subject and the officer

Question 33

According to policy, examples of ability include:

Answer 33

a. Weapons within their immediate control b. Size, age, and strength c. Combative skill

Question 34

If feasible, before the use of any approved weapon, the officer will communicate with other officers in the area and issue a warning to the subject. Officers will give the subject

Answer 34

Reasonable opportunity to comply

Question 35

On a visibly or known pregnant woman, unless the subject displays life-threatening resistance, officers will not use (select all that apply):

Answer 35

a. Baton b. ECD c. Projectile Weapon

Question 36

To solely stop a person from swallowing a substance that is in their mouth or to retrieve evidence from a person’s mouth, the officers will not:

Answer 36

Use physical force

Question 37

When a vicious dog is encountered and the safety of officers or others is compromised, an officer should use:

Answer 37

a. Catchpole b. OC spray c. ECD

Question 38

Officers will refrain from the unnecessary drawing, handling, or exhibiting of a weapon while in public.

Answer 38

True – the purpose of drawing/manipulating tool is to address a potential conflict or tactical situation at hand.

Question 39

To effectively de-escalate situations, officers will use all of the following (select all that apply):

Answer 39

a. Advisements b. Warnings c. Verbal Persuasion

Question 40

When responding to a security office where a subject has been placed in handcuffs prior to the officer’s arrival, the officer will not place LVMPD on the subject until the officer has:

Answer 40

a. Reasonable suspicion b. Probable Cause

Question 41

Which of the following is not included in approved use of handcuffs (select all that apply):

Answer 41

Argumentative persons

Question 42

When a handcuffed subject first complains that handcuffs are too tight, the officer having custody of the subject will check the handcuffs for proper tightness:

Answer 42

As soon as reasonably possible

Question 43

Special restraints will not be used unless approved by

Answer 43

A supervisor

Question 44

Continued pressure applied by an officer’s body weight will not be used on a proned handcuffed subject’s:

Answer 44

a. Back b. Neck c. Head

Question 45

An expandable straight baton is considered deadly force when used to what area (select all that apply):

Answer 45

a. Head b. Neck c. Spine

Question 46

OC spray will not be used on a handcuffed subject unless the subject is displaying:

Answer 46

Assaultive resistance

Question 47

In a protest or demonstration situation, OC spray may only be used when authorized by:

Answer 47

Incident Commander in response to imminent threat of harm

Question 48

A pain-compliance application of the ECD, with or without the use of a cartridge, by making direct contact against the subject’s body.

Answer 48

Touch stun

Question 49

The primary function of the ECD where the cartridge is deployed, firing probes at the subject

Answer 49

Probe mode

Question 50

The intent of Probe Mode is to temporarily immobilize the subject as the ECD is cycled and provide an officer with a ____________ in which to take the subject safely into custody.

Answer 50

Window of opportunity

Question 51

Spark check does not require a Use of Force Report.

Answer 51

True – However, Spark Display does require UoF.

Question 52

The ECD will not be used:

Answer 52

a. On a handcuffed person. b. When the officer knows a subject has come in contact with flammable liquids or substances. c. On a fleeing subject (without other known factors) d. On persons with known heart conditions.

Question 53

Preferred target area for ECD:

Answer 53

Back

Question 54

Officers must conduct an ECD spark check (select all that apply):

Answer 54

a. Outside of public view b. Beginning of shift

Question 55

When deploying an ECD, officers will:

Answer 55

Use a standard five (5) second cycle, and then evaluate the need to apply another five (5) second cycle after providing the subject with an opportunity to comply.

Question 56

The ECD will be deemed ineffective, and another use of force option will be considered, unless exigent circumstances exist, once the subject has been exposed to:

Answer 56

Three (3) cycles

Question 57

The EDC will be handled in the

Answer 57

Same manner as a firearm and will be secured before entering a detention facility (CCDC)

Question 58

The positioning of a police vehicle in the path of an occupied subject vehicle where contact between the vehicles is anticipated to be minimal, and the potential for injuries is low. The intent is to prevent an avenue of escape by the safe placement of a police vehicle.

Answer 58

Blocking

Question 59

“Blocking” is not a use of force.

Answer 59

True

Question 60

Ramming” is not a use of force.

Answer 60

False

Question 61

Disapproved use of PIT consists of officers driving department (select all that apply):

Answer 61

a. Non-patrol SUV-type vehicles b. Department Trucks c. Motorcycles

Question 62

According to policy, the supervisor’s responsibility for PIT is:

Answer 62

a. Immediately acknowledge the officer’s notification over the radio b. Order discontinuation of the PIT when the necessity for apprehension is outweighed by the dangers of the PIT

Question 63

PIT requires a Use of Force Report when:

Answer 63

a. PIT is successful b. PIT is attempted

Question 64

40mm impact weapon is considered intermediate force when used at a distance of:

Answer 64

5 yards or greater

Question 65

Low Lethality Shotgun is considered deadly force when used at a distance:

Answer 65

Less than 7 yards

Question 66

When time permits, how many officers will be present for the deployment of a projectile weapon?

Answer 66

Two (2)

Question 67

When may a single officer deploy and use a projectile weapon?

Answer 67

Exigent circumstances

Question 68

If the following conditions are met: 1) a minimum of two (2) officers are present, one (1) officer acting as a lethal coverage, and 2) Officers have considered the use of available cover/concealment; projectile weapons may be used against persons who are holding a firearm if it can be utilized to de-escalate and intervene with a potential deadly force situation.

Answer 68

True

Question 69

Officers are authorized to fire their weapons (select all that apply):

Answer 69

a. To protect themselves or others from what is reasonably believed to be an imminent threat of death or substantial bodily injury b. To prevent the escape of fleeing felon who the officer has probable cause to believe has committed a violent felony crime and is an imminent threat to human life if escape should occur

Question 70

Projectile weapons will not be used in a civil unrest situation unless authorized by:

Answer 70

Incident Commander or above

Question 71

In a civil unrest situation, each application of a projectile weapon must target a specific individual who presents an ____________, and it must be ______________ that other individuals in the crowd who pose no threat will not be struck by the munitions

Answer 71

Imminent threat; reasonably assured

Question 72

Officers will not discharge their firearm at a moving vehicle unless:

Answer 72

a. A person in the vehicle is an imminent deadly threat to officers or others by means other than the vehicle (such as an occupant firing a handgun at an officer). b. The driver is using the vehicle as a weapon to inflict mass causalities (such as a truck driving through a crowd

Question 73

Officers will not discharge a firearm from their moving (Department) vehicle unless a person is an imminent deadly threat to officers or others (such a discharge must be limited to the most extreme circumstances).

Answer 73

True

Question 74

An officer may deploy a rifle based on which of the following (select all that apply):

Answer 74

a. There is a potential for deadly force or the subject is armed with a deadly weapon b. Distance and the use of cover are considerations due to the suspect’s location c. The suspect is barricaded d. The deployment has been pre-approved (Airport Bureau or officers assigned to a special event)