Flashcards in 3D152 Deck (256):
How many B and D channels does the standard configuration in North American Integrated
Services Digital Network (ISDN) primary rate interface (PRI) application use?
What is the most serious threat to voice network system integrity?
In the event of a power failure, how many hours can the vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS) remain operational?
What is an example of analog-to-digital and digital-to-analog techniques?
Pulse code modulation (PCM) and continuously variable slope delta (CVSD) modulation.
What is the range of the alternate current (AC) presence time delay relay in the AN/GSS-39
system before a power loss is reported?
1.5 to 15 seconds
What converts analog signal information into a digital carrier signal?
Amplitude modulation (AM) requires a bandwidth that is
twice that of the modulating signal.
The information-carrying components that occur on either side of a carrier are called
The upper sideband in a single-sideband suppressed carrier (SSBSC) modulation is eliminated by
We can express the 6-to-1 improvement of the single-sideband suppressed carrier (SSBSC)
modulation over conventional amplitude modulation (AM) as
8 dB of improvement.
A modulated waveform that contains a carrier plus two sidebands for each modulation frequency is a description of
an amplitude modulation (AM).
If 100 percent modulation is exceeded and there is distortion in the modulating signal, additional sidebands are generated. We identify these sidebands as what?
The only basic waveform in nature is a
pure sine wave
The amount of deviation in a frequency modulation (FM) signal is directly proportional to the modulating signal's
The amount of phase shift in a phase modulation (PM) signal is directly proportional to the
amplitude of the modulating signal.
In quadrature-phase shift keying (QPSK) the radio frequency (RF) bandwidth for a quadriphase signal is what of that required by a bi-phase signal, given the same data rate.
What form of modulation is insensitive to signal variations?
Binary-phase shift keying or bi-phase shift keying (BPSK).
What is the main advantage of differential phase shift keying (DPSK)?
It requires a less complex receiver than a basic phase shift keying (PSK) signal.
How many bits per character of a 16-step pulse-code modulation (PCM) system are used to describe the quantized analog sample?
Quantized analog modulation is actually
The form of pulse modulation in which the pulse is varied within a set range of positions is known as
pulse-position modulation (PPM)
The process of coding pulse code modulation (PCM) quantized pulses to make them a constant duration and amplitude is
Which of the following is not considered an analog modulation techniques?
In Time Division Multiplexing (TDM), the transmitting multiplexer will put a bit or a byte from each of the incoming lines into a specifically allocated what?
The method of multiplexing the T1 multiplexer uses is
The two major types of frame structures are
CCITT and low speed.
The most common wave-division multiplexing (WDM) system uses how many wavelengths?
Wave-division multiplexing (WDM) creates the virtual channels for multiplexing them together for transmission by using different
wavelengths or lambdas.
Bit count integrity problems are primarily caused by
system timing faults.
Individual pulses within a digital signal are
What unit is most commonly used in data systems to express signaling speed?
A digital signal that contains synchronizing bits within the signal stream describes
Three categories of synchronization used in digital data circuits are
synchronous, asynchronous, and isochronous.
Which option is a characteristic of synchronous data operation?
All data bits are the same length in time.
In what type of signal does the signal level move to one of the discrete signal levels, but returns to the zero level after a predetermined time?
Digital coding techniques such as binary with eight-zero substitution (B8ZS) are becoming more popular because they are designed to
operate at higher data rates.
The major difference between conditioned di-phase (CDI) and other schemes is the
use of mid-bit transitions for timing.
Which statement best describes a binary with eight-zero substitution (B8ZS) signal?
Bipolar violations are intentionally inserted into a data signal to break up long strings of zeros
Which statement best describes an alternate mark inversion (AMI) signal?
A logic one is transmitted as positive voltage if the previous logic one was negative.
How many bits are in the D4 framing sequence?
How many bits are in the extended superframe format (ESF) framing sequence?
What communications information signal uses a continuous 350- and 440-Hz frequency pair?
What communications supervisory signal uses a continuous application of direct current voltage for signaling?
In common associated signaling (CAS), what is the seventh bit in frames 6 and 12 used to convey signaling information known as?
In what common channel signaling (CCS) mode are the messages relating to signaling between two points conveyed directly interconnecting these signaling points?
While timing makes sure the equipment is sending and receiving bits at the same time intervals, synchronization makes sure that the
receive equipment can find its place in the bit stream.
What term is associated with the delay or lag introduced in the application of voltage from one section to the next?
Jamming a portion of the frequency spectrum is an example of
The definition of electronic attack can be found in which publication?
Air Force Doctrine Document 2-5.1.
Any actions we take to protect our forces, facilities, and equipment for electronic action that can destroy or degrade our capabilities is considered
Varying the pulse repetition frequency on a radar set is an example of
When a multimeter has three input terminal jacks, which jack is always used?
When using a multimeter, which mode should be used if the reading fluctuates and a more accurate reading is desired?
When using an ohmmeter to take a resistance reading, what preliminary precaution should you take?
Disconnect the power from the circuit being tested.
What principle of operation does the time domain reflectometer use to test cables?
Which push-buttons would you select to get 125-ohm (Ω) impedance on the time domain reflectometer?
50Ω and 75Ω
What are the two major sections of a bit error rate test (BERT) set?
When performing a bit error rate test (BERT), what determines the size of a test pattern segment?
The number of bits that can represent the total number of bits in the test pattern.
Which section of a bit error rate test (BERT) set measures the received test pattern?
On a breakout box, how many RS-232 key interface signals can be monitored and accessed individually?
The purpose of the miniature ON/OFF switches on a breakout box is to
allow the interruption of the individual interface conductors.
What communications control signal uses a two-frequency dialing combination?
What communications information signal uses a signal cycled on and off for 0.5 second and contains the generation of a 480- and 620-Hz frequency pair?
When is the voltage applied in loop-start signaling?
What are the two principle weighting characteristics in use with telecommunication circuit noise?
CCITT psophometric and C-message.
Attenuation distortion is caused by
differing attenuation rates for the various frequency components comprising a voice frequency transmission.
Electronic warfare support includes devices such as
radar warning receivers and intelligence systems.
When using a multimeter, which mode should be used if the reading is unreadable due to fluctuations?
What is the power that is reflected back to an optical source in the time domain reflectometer (TDR)?
How many possible symbols can 4 bits represent?
What happens when more bits are added to a digital signal arranged in a sequence understood by the sender and receiver?
A code set is established.
In networking, a byte is identified as a/an
What Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA)/Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA)
standard is used for commercially building telecommunications cabling?
What organization sets important computer networking wiring standards for residential and
commercial network cabling?
Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA).
A collection of standards for local area network (LAN) architectures, protocols, and technologies called Project 802 were developed by the
Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE).
The definition of the Open System Interconnect (OSI) reference model was a major contribution to networking made by the
International Organization for Standardization (ISO).
The "parent" organization, headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland, for all other telecommunications organizations is the
International Telecommunication Union (ITU).
There is a worldwide nonprofit association of technical professionals that promotes the
development of standards called the
Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE).
What organization is responsible for the X-series and V-series standards?
International Telecommunication Union Telecommunications Standardization Sector (ITU-T)
Which of the following is an International Telecommunication Union (ITU) standardized
format used for digital telecommunications services backbone system?
Which series of standards are recommended for data transmission using the telephone network?
What transmission rates does Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA) RS-530 accommodate?
20 Kbps to 2 megabits per second (Mbps).
Which Electronics Industries Alliance (EIA) interface standard has the ability to work in either balanced or unbalanced electrical circuits?
Within how many feet of the data communications equipment (DCE) connection does the
Electronics Industries Alliance (EIA) RS-232-C standard prescribes bipolar-voltage serial data transmission?
At what Open System Interconnect (OSI) layer are common data compression and encryption schemes used?
What Open System Interconnect (OSI) layer is closest to the end user?
What two sublayers did the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) divide the Open System Interconnect (OSI) data link layers into?
Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC).
In the Open System Interconnect (OSI) model, a layer will communicate with three other OSI layers. Which one is not one of those layers?
Which information unit, whose source and destination are network-layer entities, uses connectionless network service?
In binary-synchronous protocol, what character is used to establish and maintain character
synchronization prior to the message block and during transmission?
What data communication protocol is used to govern the flow and format of information between systems?
What data communication protocol ensures that the receiving station can distinguish information from garbage?
High-Level Data Link Control (HDLC)
What data communication protocol is based on bits and the position of the bits?
A group of computers and associated devices that share a common communications line within a small geographic area is a
Local area network (LAN).
The interconnection of several networks in a city into a single larger network is a
Metropolitan area network (MAN).
What type of network connects networks that are typically separated by geographical distances?
Wide area network (WAN).
What type of network enables a group of two or more computer systems to communicate over the public Internet?
Virtual private network (VPN).
Which type network enables users to share resources, files, and printers in a decentralized way?
What Network layer protocol provides information about how and where data should be delivered, including the data's source and destination addresses?
Internet protocol (IP).
Which Network layer protocol matches a known internet protocol (IP) address for a destination device to a Media Access Control (MAC) address?
Address Resolution Protocol (ARP).
Which Network layer protocol provides the internet protocol (IP) address for a device that knows its own Media Access Control (MAC) address?
Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP).
Which Transport layer protocol does not guarantee that packets will be received at all?
User Datagram Protocol (UDP).
Which Application layer protocol is an automated means of assigning a unique internet protocol (IP) address to every device on a network?
Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP).
Which Application layer protocol is a terminal emulation used to log on to remote hosts?
Which Application layer protocol is a utility that can verify that transmission control protocol/internet protocol (TCP/IP) is installed and communicating with the network?
Which Application layer protocol is used to send and receive files by way of transmission control protocol/internet protocol (TCP/IP)?
File Transfer Protocol (FTP).
Which protocol is simpler than File Transfer Protocol (FTP) when transferring files between computers
Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP).
The physical address of any device on the network is a/an
Media Access Control (MAC) address.
What are the two parts to an Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) address?
Network and host.
What is used on a transmission control protocol/internet protocol (TCP/IP) network to
determine which network a computer is on?
How many bits are available for host bits on a Class B network using seven bits?
How many subnet bits are required to support 90 subnets on a Class B network?
What is not a recommendation for planning networks using variable length subnet masking (VLSM)?
Re-address the entire network.
What mechanism allows for easier Internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) address allocations?
Teredo has four tunneling components. Which one is not one of them?
Which Internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) tunneling approach attempts to solve the issue of IPv6 to IP version 4 (IPv4), IP protocol 41 issue?
Which one of the following is not an Internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) transition approach?
The combination transmitter/receiver device, in a single package, is called a
What device provides the physical, electrical, and electronic connections to the network media?
Network interface card (NIC).
What layers of the open system interconnection (OSI) model do network interface cards (NIC) belong?
Physical and Data Link layers.
A repeater with more than one output port is a
What can be used to extend the size of a network?
The time it takes a switch to figure out where to forward a data unit is called
What device subdivides a network into smaller logical pieces, or segments?
A router's strength is its
What is the oldest routing protocol?
Routing Information Protocol (RIP).
Which device has multiport connectivity that directs data between nodes on a network?
Which routing protocol does internet backbones use?
Border Gateway Protocol (BGP).
What type of gateway can restrict the kind of access local area network (LAN) users have to the internet, and vice versa?
What type of gateway might include remote access servers that allow dial-up connectivity to a local area network (LAN)?
Virtual private networks (VPN) allow the AF to extend network resources across a/an
Which of the following is not a function that a virtual private network (VPN) concentrator performs?
A cable scanner wire-map display identifies crossover and straight-through cables by
providing wiring maps at both ends of the cable.
What cable discrepancies can a time-domain reflectometer (TDR) detect?
Kinks, opens, and corroded connectors
What type of cable property changes does a time-domain reflectometer (TDR) detect to identify problems?
When using an optical time-domain reflectometer (OTDR), what action is suggested by
most manufacturers to prevent false readings?
Connect a launch cable between the test set and the cable being tested.
What component of a protocol analyzer processes the frames based on the selected test and the user configuration inputs?
Central processing unit (CPU).
What protocol analyzer feature automatically runs in the background when the protocol analyzer application is activated?
What protocol analyzer utility is used to determine if a network node is connected or responding?
What protocol analyzer utility is used to see the path that packets are traveling and the time it takes the packets to complete the trip?
What test equipment has the capability of diagnosing digital network and developing communications software?
Which component of a protocol analyzer discards frames based on its definition or activates a trigger based on the trigger definition?
A Management Information Base (MIB) can be identified by either its object name or its object what?
Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) has three components: a managed device, an agent and a
Which network management function obtains the utilization and error rates of network devices and provides statistical data about the network?
The community name that is used with the network management systems (NMS) authenticates
simple network management protocol (SNMP) requests.
What defines the format and type of data in a network management system (NMS) report?
The World Wide Web (WWW) proxy provides three benefits: it conceals internal network configuration, provides a means to monitor and eliminate traffic to unofficial WWW sites, and
provides much faster access to the internet.
What defines traffic flow and is a basic protection mechanism on routers?
What process provides the overall process to secure and protect our information networks?
What is one of the primary functions of the Network Control Center (NCC), usually done in real time, and ensures the system is being operated within the parameters established by network security policy?
What security posture permits everything that is not specifically blocked?
What security posture prevents everything that is not specifically authorized?
What is the first line of defense when gaining access to a laptop computer's operating system?
Logon identification and password combination.
Who has unrestricted access to system commands and data?
What method is approved for changing passwords through the use of remote access?
Strongly encrypted virtual private network.
What must be employed to ensure data integrity?
An intrusion detection system (IDS) may miss attacks that bypass the firewall like application-based attacks and
What are the two vulnerability scanner examination techniques?
Passive and active.
What type of firewall can filter messages according to a set of rules for a specific application?
One disadvantage of microwave wavelengths is that the frequencies are susceptible to
The determining factor in calculating the correct size of a waveguide is
What is not a factor in determining the refractive index of air?
How many miles above the earth are satellites placed in orbit?
Which satellite communications system is used to transmit space operations?
Defense Satellite Communications System (DSCS).
To transmit an audio signal over radio frequency (RF), it first has to be
What is one path high frequency (HF) transmissions follow from the antenna to the distant end?
Which is not a disadvantage of laser light transmission?
No need for careful alignment of transmitter and receiver.
Broadband refers to a technology that can transmit
a relatively wide range of frequencies.
Broadband technology uses all of these transmission mediums except?
The Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) configuration normally used to connect switches together is the
primary rate interface (PRI).
What was the primary driving factor behind the invention of the telephone exchange system?
Point-to-point telephone access caused cabling issues.
When a telephone network is circuit switched, each call
has a dedicated circuit
The three cornerstones of voice network system security are availability
confidentiality, and integrity.
How many serial data interface ports does the Meridian Option 11C Small System Controller have
What role does the Private Branch Exchange (PBX) play in the telephony industry?
A small scale switch that handles internal calls for an organization.
Base cables normally enter the central office (CO) facility through a
The primary reason you should measure the voltage across terminal or distribution frame protectors before removing and replacing them is to
ensure dangerous voltages are not present on the line.
What components are directly connected to the input/output controller (IOC)?
A pair of SuperNode message controllers and the device controllers.
What is the maximum number of ports that a digital multiplex system-100 (DMS-100) supports?
What link is used to connect the digital multiplex system (DMS)-core to the DMS-bus?
Which elements make up the control component of the SuperNode central control?
CM and system load module (SLM).
Which major component of the NorTel digital switching system (DSS) interfaces line and trunk subscribers?
peripheral module (PM).
Which models of the digital multiplex system (DMS) family are commonly used at Air Force bases to provide base telephone services?
DMS-100 and Meridian System Logic (MSL)-100.
Because the enhanced network (ENET) is a matrix, any input channel has access to any available..
Where do incoming unswitched circuits from a peripheral module (PM) enter the NT9X35A cross-point card matrix?
Which digital multiplex system (DMS)-100 database facility is responsible for creating and maintaining tables of data in a controlled manner?
Which digital multiplex system (DMS)-100 database facility provides facilities for preserving data modifications orders (DMO) on tape or disk so that data tables can be restored if the system should fail?
Which digital multiplex system (DMS)-100 database facility provides facilities for storing
data modifications orders (DMO) and for retrieving them at a specified time for execution?
Pending order file
What voice mail interface allows a user's mailbox to be partitioned into a main mailbox and up to eight submailboxes?
Voice Messaging User Interface Forum.
What voice mail interface has the capability to support the temporary absence greeting (TAG) feature?
Meridian mail user interface.
The red, green, and blue (RGB) outputs from the camera go to the
Why are the R-Y and B-Y signals shifted 33° counterclockwise?
R-Y was shifted to maximum and B-Y was shifted to minimum color acuity, respectively for human vision.
How many lines of video are discarded in high-definition 1080 line video encoded with 1920x1088 pixel frames prior to display?
What modulation technique is used by the Advanced Television Systems Committee (ATSC) system?
8-vestigial sideband (8-VSB).
What modulation technique is used for Digital Video Broadcasting - Cable transmission?
An important concept to understand is that digital video is merely an alternate means for
carrying a video waveform.
How is information recorded or stored on the videotape?
Series of magnetic patterns.
What function in a video tape recorder (VTR) is accomplished by transporting the videotape across the head gap at the same speed at which it was recorded?
What is a major advantage of digital recording over analog recording?
Material can be edited generation after generation without noticeable degradation in quality.
What is the means of measuring the amount of time that has been played or recorded on a video tape recorder (VTR)?
Which digital video tape format uses a 4:2:2 standard, with an 8 bit sampling rate, 19mm wide tape, and has a 94 minute recording time?
You can compare a video tape recorder (VTR) head to a/an
The GVG-110 video switcher effects key fills with
key bus video or an internally-generated color matte signal.
The GVG-110 video switcher serial interface allows
remote control of the switcher by a personal computer or digital picture manipulator.
The purpose of the GVG-110 general purpose contact-closure editor interface (GPI) is to allow
remote control of switcher transitions.
What part of the video switcher allows titles or other video scenes to be inserted into a full screen background?
What are the frequencies at which the two common mode nulling adjustments are set in the video distribution amplifier?
60 Hz and 5.5 MHz.
What component carries the signal to individual subscribers?
What device is used to combine TV channels into a single line?
What is the beginning of a cable system called?
The security lighting inside the restricted area is used to
facilitate the detection and tracking of intruders.
What is the main purpose of a boundary fence?
To present a physical and psychological deterrent to unauthorized entry.
What must a line of detection detect?
Walking, running, rolling, crawling, or jumping through the line of detection.
The basic configuration of the entry control facility (ECF) includes a
gatehouse, personnel entry gate, inspection equipment, and vehicle entrapment area.
Between what ranges can you adjust the SDI-76 microwave sensor?
What annunciator is used with the Advisor VIII control unit?
Small permanent communications and display segment (SPCDS).
What does the AN/GSS-39 system use to monitor the integrity of all sensor wiring to the
What interior intrusion detection system (IIDS) is designed to detect intruders attempting to enter a shelter, storage igloo, or building?
Which sensor uses heat radiation to detect intruders?
A standard Air Force E-Flex II monitors how many meters?
At what distance does the detection pattern of the infrared perimeter detection sensor (IPDS) transmitters change, and to what pattern does it change?
150 feet; signal transmitted to two receivers
How many inches is the beam width at the widest portion of the infrared perimeter detection sensor?
What is the maximum length of the vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS)?
What is the maximum length of the Y taut-wire sensor (YTWS)?
What is the operating frequency of the synchronizing oscillator in the "A" sensor post of the infrared pulsed intrusion detection system (IPIDS)?
What is the primary mode of detection for the microwave fence sensor?
What type alarm occurs if the sensor post cover in vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS) is removed?
What type signal is sent to the fence protection system (FPS) signal processor when an alarm is detected?
When aligning a microwave fence sensor, what reading do you look for from the automatic gain control (AGC) using a multimeter?
Which is not a selectable option of the E-Flex II system?
Sector reporting priority.
Asymmetric trunk operation provides more efficient use of bandwidth by
not utilizing the bandwidth in the opposite direction of a one-way call.
How does the T-Bus relate to the function of the Promina?
The information that is multiplexed/demultiplexed travels over the T-Bus.
If all deployed and fixed locations use global positioning system (GPS) referenced clocks, we can eliminate crypto-sync loss due to
Which module provides encryption/decryption of traffic into and out of the theater deployable communications/integrated communications access package (TDC/ICAP) network?
How many card slots does the FCC-100 have, and how many of them are available for user configuration?
What is the maximum number of channels of voice and/or data traffic that the FCC-100 can handle?
For a theater deployable communications (TDC) network design that has the crypto interface module (CIM) and the Promina Multiplexer (P-MUX) in separate locations, which piece of equipment is necessary?
For either secure or nonsecure data network in theater deployable communications (TDC), the Crypto Interface Module's router normally acts as the
The Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) Gateway Exchange (IGX) switch allows for stacks of up to 8 IGX switches, while the Avaya Prologix switch can operate in a stack of
The tactical interface gateway (TIG) uses what protocol to allow backwards compatibility between the Avaya Prologix and legacy Triservice Tactical Communications (TRI-TAC) equipment?
What configuration does the Red Data Module normally operate in?
The next generation receive terminal (NGRT) accepts feeds from which two satellite bands?
What receive broadcast manager (RBM) processes military specific and classified information?
Which piece of the receive broadcast manager (RBM) functions as a common television set-top converter box?
A status acquisition message (SAM) is sent from
Defense Informaiton Technology Contracting Office (DITCO).
Circuits that fail to meet all parameters specified in the appropriate technical schedule when
test and acceptance (T&A) is done may not be accepted for service without the express approval
the Telecommunications Service Order (TSO) issuing authority.
What report must be sent if the circuit does not meet all required parameters and the
Telecommunications Service Order (TSO) issuing authority advises that the circuit is accepted for service?
Within how many normal duty hours of completion action on the Telecommunications
Service Order (TSO) must the circuit control office (CCO) submit an in-effect report?
If a circuit fails its management threshold (MT), what test might be performed?
Quality control (QC).
Trend Analysis is a program that ensures circuits meet management thresholds (MT) on what basis?
Trend Analysis is a program that trends all of these outage data except
The first position of a trunk identifier indicates the
responsible operations and maintenance (O&M) agency.
Which Defense Information Systems Agency Circular(s) (DISAC) contain information needed to assign a temporary command communications service designator (CCSD)?
310-70-1 and 310-55-1.
What are the two parts/priorities to the Telecommunications Service Priority (TSP)?
provisioning and restoration.