3D152 Flashcards
(256 cards)
1
Q
How many B and D channels does the standard configuration in North American Integrated
Services Digital Network (ISDN) primary rate interface (PRI) application use?
A
23, 1
2
Q
What is the most serious threat to voice network system integrity?
A
Subversion.
3
Q
In the event of a power failure, how many hours can the vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS) remain operational?
A
4
4
Q
What is an example of analog-to-digital and digital-to-analog techniques?
A
Pulse code modulation (PCM) and continuously variable slope delta (CVSD) modulation.
5
Q
What is the range of the alternate current (AC) presence time delay relay in the AN/GSS-39
system before a power loss is reported?
A
1.5 to 15 seconds
6
Q
What converts analog signal information into a digital carrier signal?
A
Digital modulation
7
Q
Amplitude modulation (AM) requires a bandwidth that is
A
twice that of the modulating signal.
8
Q
The information-carrying components that occur on either side of a carrier are called
A
sidebands.
9
Q
The upper sideband in a single-sideband suppressed carrier (SSBSC) modulation is eliminated by
A
filtering.
10
Q
We can express the 6-to-1 improvement of the single-sideband suppressed carrier (SSBSC)
modulation over conventional amplitude modulation (AM) as
A
8 dB of improvement.
11
Q
A modulated waveform that contains a carrier plus two sidebands for each modulation frequency is a description of
A
an amplitude modulation (AM).
12
Q
If 100 percent modulation is exceeded and there is distortion in the modulating signal, additional sidebands are generated. We identify these sidebands as what?
A
Splatter.
13
Q
The only basic waveform in nature is a
A
pure sine wave
14
Q
The amount of deviation in a frequency modulation (FM) signal is directly proportional to the modulating signal’s
A
amplitude
15
Q
The amount of phase shift in a phase modulation (PM) signal is directly proportional to the
A
amplitude of the modulating signal.
16
Q
In quadrature-phase shift keying (QPSK) the radio frequency (RF) bandwidth for a quadriphase signal is what of that required by a bi-phase signal, given the same data rate.
A
half
17
Q
What form of modulation is insensitive to signal variations?
A
Binary-phase shift keying or bi-phase shift keying (BPSK).
18
Q
What is the main advantage of differential phase shift keying (DPSK)?
A
It requires a less complex receiver than a basic phase shift keying (PSK) signal.
19
Q
How many bits per character of a 16-step pulse-code modulation (PCM) system are used to describe the quantized analog sample?
A
4
20
Q
Quantized analog modulation is actually
A
analog-to-digital conversion
21
Q
The form of pulse modulation in which the pulse is varied within a set range of positions is known as
A
pulse-position modulation (PPM)
22
Q
The process of coding pulse code modulation (PCM) quantized pulses to make them a constant duration and amplitude is
A
encoding
23
Q
Which of the following is not considered an analog modulation techniques?
A
Pulse-Code Modulation
24
Q
In Time Division Multiplexing (TDM), the transmitting multiplexer will put a bit or a byte from each of the incoming lines into a specifically allocated what?
A
Time Slot
25
The method of multiplexing the T1 multiplexer uses is
time division
26
The two major types of frame structures are
CCITT and low speed.
27
The most common wave-division multiplexing (WDM) system uses how many wavelengths?
Two wavelengths.
28
Wave-division multiplexing (WDM) creates the virtual channels for multiplexing them together for transmission by using different
wavelengths or lambdas.
29
Bit count integrity problems are primarily caused by
system timing faults.
30
Individual pulses within a digital signal are
bits.
31
What unit is most commonly used in data systems to express signaling speed?
Baudot.
32
A digital signal that contains synchronizing bits within the signal stream describes
asynchronous operation.
33
Three categories of synchronization used in digital data circuits are
synchronous, asynchronous, and isochronous.
34
Which option is a characteristic of synchronous data operation?
All data bits are the same length in time.
35
In what type of signal does the signal level move to one of the discrete signal levels, but returns to the zero level after a predetermined time?
Return-to-zero.
36
Digital coding techniques such as binary with eight-zero substitution (B8ZS) are becoming more popular because they are designed to
operate at higher data rates.
37
The major difference between conditioned di-phase (CDI) and other schemes is the
use of mid-bit transitions for timing.
38
Which statement best describes a binary with eight-zero substitution (B8ZS) signal?
Bipolar violations are intentionally inserted into a data signal to break up long strings of zeros
39
Which statement best describes an alternate mark inversion (AMI) signal?
A logic one is transmitted as positive voltage if the previous logic one was negative.
40
How many bits are in the D4 framing sequence?
12
41
How many bits are in the extended superframe format (ESF) framing sequence?
24
42
What communications information signal uses a continuous 350- and 440-Hz frequency pair?
Dial tone.
43
What communications supervisory signal uses a continuous application of direct current voltage for signaling?
Loop-start
44
In common associated signaling (CAS), what is the seventh bit in frames 6 and 12 used to convey signaling information known as?
Bit robbing
45
In what common channel signaling (CCS) mode are the messages relating to signaling between two points conveyed directly interconnecting these signaling points?
Associated mode
46
While timing makes sure the equipment is sending and receiving bits at the same time intervals, synchronization makes sure that the
receive equipment can find its place in the bit stream.
47
What term is associated with the delay or lag introduced in the application of voltage from one section to the next?
Latency
48
Jamming a portion of the frequency spectrum is an example of
electronic attack.
49
The definition of electronic attack can be found in which publication?
Air Force Doctrine Document 2-5.1.
50
Any actions we take to protect our forces, facilities, and equipment for electronic action that can destroy or degrade our capabilities is considered
electronic protection.
51
Varying the pulse repetition frequency on a radar set is an example of
electronic protection.
52
When a multimeter has three input terminal jacks, which jack is always used?
Voltage terminal.
53
When using a multimeter, which mode should be used if the reading fluctuates and a more accurate reading is desired?
Minimum/maximum (MIN/MAX).
54
When using an ohmmeter to take a resistance reading, what preliminary precaution should you take?
Disconnect the power from the circuit being tested.
55
What principle of operation does the time domain reflectometer use to test cables?
Radar
56
Which push-buttons would you select to get 125-ohm (Ω) impedance on the time domain reflectometer?
50Ω and 75Ω
57
What are the two major sections of a bit error rate test (BERT) set?
Extended superframe.
58
When performing a bit error rate test (BERT), what determines the size of a test pattern segment?
The number of bits that can represent the total number of bits in the test pattern.
59
Which section of a bit error rate test (BERT) set measures the received test pattern?
Receiver.
60
On a breakout box, how many RS-232 key interface signals can be monitored and accessed individually?
12.
61
The purpose of the miniature ON/OFF switches on a breakout box is to
allow the interruption of the individual interface conductors.
62
What communications control signal uses a two-frequency dialing combination?
Tone dialing.
63
What communications information signal uses a signal cycled on and off for 0.5 second and contains the generation of a 480- and 620-Hz frequency pair?
Busy signal.
64
When is the voltage applied in loop-start signaling?
Off-hook condition.
65
What are the two principle weighting characteristics in use with telecommunication circuit noise?
CCITT psophometric and C-message.
66
Attenuation distortion is caused by
differing attenuation rates for the various frequency components comprising a voice frequency transmission.
67
Electronic warfare support includes devices such as
radar warning receivers and intelligence systems.
68
When using a multimeter, which mode should be used if the reading is unreadable due to fluctuations?
Display hold.
69
What is the power that is reflected back to an optical source in the time domain reflectometer (TDR)?
Backscatter.
70
How many possible symbols can 4 bits represent?
16
71
What happens when more bits are added to a digital signal arranged in a sequence understood by the sender and receiver?
A code set is established.
72
In networking, a byte is identified as a/an
octet.
73
What Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA)/Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA)
standard is used for commercially building telecommunications cabling?
568A.
74
What organization sets important computer networking wiring standards for residential and
commercial network cabling?
Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA).
75
A collection of standards for local area network (LAN) architectures, protocols, and technologies called Project 802 were developed by the
Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE).
76
The definition of the Open System Interconnect (OSI) reference model was a major contribution to networking made by the
International Organization for Standardization (ISO).
77
The "parent" organization, headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland, for all other telecommunications organizations is the
International Telecommunication Union (ITU).
78
There is a worldwide nonprofit association of technical professionals that promotes the
development of standards called the
Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE).
79
What organization is responsible for the X-series and V-series standards?
International Telecommunication Union Telecommunications Standardization Sector (ITU-T)
80
Which of the following is an International Telecommunication Union (ITU) standardized
format used for digital telecommunications services backbone system?
E-carrier.
81
Which series of standards are recommended for data transmission using the telephone network?
V
82
What transmission rates does Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA) RS-530 accommodate?
20 Kbps to 2 megabits per second (Mbps).
83
Which Electronics Industries Alliance (EIA) interface standard has the ability to work in either balanced or unbalanced electrical circuits?
RS-530
84
Within how many feet of the data communications equipment (DCE) connection does the
Electronics Industries Alliance (EIA) RS-232-C standard prescribes bipolar-voltage serial data transmission?
50.
85
At what Open System Interconnect (OSI) layer are common data compression and encryption schemes used?
Presentation.
86
What Open System Interconnect (OSI) layer is closest to the end user?
Application.
87
What two sublayers did the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) divide the Open System Interconnect (OSI) data link layers into?
Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC).
88
In the Open System Interconnect (OSI) model, a layer will communicate with three other OSI layers. Which one is not one of those layers?
Lowest layer.
89
Which information unit, whose source and destination are network-layer entities, uses connectionless network service?
Datagram
90
In binary-synchronous protocol, what character is used to establish and maintain character
synchronization prior to the message block and during transmission?
SYN.
91
What data communication protocol is used to govern the flow and format of information between systems?
Character-oriented.
92
What data communication protocol ensures that the receiving station can distinguish information from garbage?
High-Level Data Link Control (HDLC)
93
What data communication protocol is based on bits and the position of the bits?
Bit-oriented.
94
A group of computers and associated devices that share a common communications line within a small geographic area is a
Local area network (LAN).
95
The interconnection of several networks in a city into a single larger network is a
Metropolitan area network (MAN).
96
What type of network connects networks that are typically separated by geographical distances?
Wide area network (WAN).
97
What type of network enables a group of two or more computer systems to communicate over the public Internet?
Virtual private network (VPN).
98
Which type network enables users to share resources, files, and printers in a decentralized way?
Peer-to-peer.
99
What Network layer protocol provides information about how and where data should be delivered, including the data's source and destination addresses?
Internet protocol (IP).
100
Which Network layer protocol matches a known internet protocol (IP) address for a destination device to a Media Access Control (MAC) address?
Address Resolution Protocol (ARP).
101
Which Network layer protocol provides the internet protocol (IP) address for a device that knows its own Media Access Control (MAC) address?
Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP).
102
Which Transport layer protocol does not guarantee that packets will be received at all?
User Datagram Protocol (UDP).
103
Which Application layer protocol is an automated means of assigning a unique internet protocol (IP) address to every device on a network?
Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP).
104
Which Application layer protocol is a terminal emulation used to log on to remote hosts?
Teletype Network.
105
Which Application layer protocol is a utility that can verify that transmission control protocol/internet protocol (TCP/IP) is installed and communicating with the network?
Ping.
106
Which Application layer protocol is used to send and receive files by way of transmission control protocol/internet protocol (TCP/IP)?
File Transfer Protocol (FTP).
107
Which protocol is simpler than File Transfer Protocol (FTP) when transferring files between computers
Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP).
108
The physical address of any device on the network is a/an
Media Access Control (MAC) address.
109
What are the two parts to an Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) address?
Network and host.
110
What is used on a transmission control protocol/internet protocol (TCP/IP) network to
determine which network a computer is on?
Subnet mask.
111
How many bits are available for host bits on a Class B network using seven bits?
Nine.
112
How many subnet bits are required to support 90 subnets on a Class B network?
Seven.
113
What is not a recommendation for planning networks using variable length subnet masking (VLSM)?
Re-address the entire network.
114
What mechanism allows for easier Internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) address allocations?
Auto configuration.
115
Teredo has four tunneling components. Which one is not one of them?
Teredo agent.
116
Which Internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) tunneling approach attempts to solve the issue of IPv6 to IP version 4 (IPv4), IP protocol 41 issue?
Teredo.
117
Which one of the following is not an Internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) transition approach?
Auto configuration
118
The combination transmitter/receiver device, in a single package, is called a
transceiver.
119
What device provides the physical, electrical, and electronic connections to the network media?
Network interface card (NIC).
120
What layers of the open system interconnection (OSI) model do network interface cards (NIC) belong?
Physical and Data Link layers.
121
A repeater with more than one output port is a
hub.
122
What can be used to extend the size of a network?
Active hubs.
123
The time it takes a switch to figure out where to forward a data unit is called
latency.
124
What device subdivides a network into smaller logical pieces, or segments?
Switch.
125
A router's strength is its
intelligence.
126
What is the oldest routing protocol?
Routing Information Protocol (RIP).
127
Which device has multiport connectivity that directs data between nodes on a network?
Router.
128
Which routing protocol does internet backbones use?
Border Gateway Protocol (BGP).
129
What type of gateway can restrict the kind of access local area network (LAN) users have to the internet, and vice versa?
Internet.
130
What type of gateway might include remote access servers that allow dial-up connectivity to a local area network (LAN)?
LAN.
131
Virtual private networks (VPN) allow the AF to extend network resources across a/an
public network.
132
Which of the following is not a function that a virtual private network (VPN) concentrator performs?
Encapsulates data.
133
A cable scanner wire-map display identifies crossover and straight-through cables by
providing wiring maps at both ends of the cable.
134
What cable discrepancies can a time-domain reflectometer (TDR) detect?
Kinks, opens, and corroded connectors
135
What type of cable property changes does a time-domain reflectometer (TDR) detect to identify problems?
Impedance.
136
When using an optical time-domain reflectometer (OTDR), what action is suggested by
most manufacturers to prevent false readings?
Connect a launch cable between the test set and the cable being tested.
137
What component of a protocol analyzer processes the frames based on the selected test and the user configuration inputs?
Central processing unit (CPU).
138
What protocol analyzer feature automatically runs in the background when the protocol analyzer application is activated?
Node discovery.
139
What protocol analyzer utility is used to determine if a network node is connected or responding?
Ping.
140
What protocol analyzer utility is used to see the path that packets are traveling and the time it takes the packets to complete the trip?
Trace Route.
141
What test equipment has the capability of diagnosing digital network and developing communications software?
Protocol analyzer.
142
Which component of a protocol analyzer discards frames based on its definition or activates a trigger based on the trigger definition?
Filter
143
A Management Information Base (MIB) can be identified by either its object name or its object what?
Descriptor.
144
Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) has three components: a managed device, an agent and a
Get.
145
Which network management function obtains the utilization and error rates of network devices and provides statistical data about the network?
Performance.
146
The community name that is used with the network management systems (NMS) authenticates
simple network management protocol (SNMP) requests.
147
What defines the format and type of data in a network management system (NMS) report?
Report template.
148
The World Wide Web (WWW) proxy provides three benefits: it conceals internal network configuration, provides a means to monitor and eliminate traffic to unofficial WWW sites, and
provides much faster access to the internet.
149
What defines traffic flow and is a basic protection mechanism on routers?
Access lists.
150
What process provides the overall process to secure and protect our information networks?
Barrier Reef.
151
What is one of the primary functions of the Network Control Center (NCC), usually done in real time, and ensures the system is being operated within the parameters established by network security policy?
System monitoring.
152
What security posture permits everything that is not specifically blocked?
Open
153
What security posture prevents everything that is not specifically authorized?
Default deny.
154
What is the first line of defense when gaining access to a laptop computer's operating system?
Logon identification and password combination.
155
Who has unrestricted access to system commands and data?
Supersusers.
156
What method is approved for changing passwords through the use of remote access?
Strongly encrypted virtual private network.
157
What must be employed to ensure data integrity?
Check sums.
158
An intrusion detection system (IDS) may miss attacks that bypass the firewall like application-based attacks and
tunneling.
159
What are the two vulnerability scanner examination techniques?
Passive and active.
160
What type of firewall can filter messages according to a set of rules for a specific application?
Proxy server.
161
One disadvantage of microwave wavelengths is that the frequencies are susceptible to
weather effects.
162
The determining factor in calculating the correct size of a waveguide is
frequency.
163
What is not a factor in determining the refractive index of air?
Propagation medium.
164
How many miles above the earth are satellites placed in orbit?
22,300.
165
Which satellite communications system is used to transmit space operations?
Defense Satellite Communications System (DSCS).
166
To transmit an audio signal over radio frequency (RF), it first has to be
modulated.
167
What is one path high frequency (HF) transmissions follow from the antenna to the distant end?
Groundwave
168
Which is not a disadvantage of laser light transmission?
No need for careful alignment of transmitter and receiver.
169
Broadband refers to a technology that can transmit
a relatively wide range of frequencies.
170
Broadband technology uses all of these transmission mediums except?
laser light
171
The Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) configuration normally used to connect switches together is the
primary rate interface (PRI).
172
What was the primary driving factor behind the invention of the telephone exchange system?
Point-to-point telephone access caused cabling issues.
173
When a telephone network is circuit switched, each call
has a dedicated circuit
174
The three cornerstones of voice network system security are availability
confidentiality, and integrity.
175
How many serial data interface ports does the Meridian Option 11C Small System Controller have
3
176
What role does the Private Branch Exchange (PBX) play in the telephony industry?
A small scale switch that handles internal calls for an organization.
177
Base cables normally enter the central office (CO) facility through a
cable vault.
178
The primary reason you should measure the voltage across terminal or distribution frame protectors before removing and replacing them is to
ensure dangerous voltages are not present on the line.
179
What components are directly connected to the input/output controller (IOC)?
A pair of SuperNode message controllers and the device controllers.
180
What is the maximum number of ports that a digital multiplex system-100 (DMS-100) supports?
100,000.
181
What link is used to connect the digital multiplex system (DMS)-core to the DMS-bus?
DS-512.
182
Which elements make up the control component of the SuperNode central control?
CM and system load module (SLM).
183
Which major component of the NorTel digital switching system (DSS) interfaces line and trunk subscribers?
peripheral module (PM).
184
Which models of the digital multiplex system (DMS) family are commonly used at Air Force bases to provide base telephone services?
DMS-100 and Meridian System Logic (MSL)-100.
185
Because the enhanced network (ENET) is a matrix, any input channel has access to any available..
output channel.
186
Where do incoming unswitched circuits from a peripheral module (PM) enter the NT9X35A cross-point card matrix?
Vertical bus.
187
Which digital multiplex system (DMS)-100 database facility is responsible for creating and maintaining tables of data in a controlled manner?
Table control.
188
Which digital multiplex system (DMS)-100 database facility provides facilities for preserving data modifications orders (DMO) on tape or disk so that data tables can be restored if the system should fail?
Journal file.
189
Which digital multiplex system (DMS)-100 database facility provides facilities for storing
data modifications orders (DMO) and for retrieving them at a specified time for execution?
Pending order file
190
What voice mail interface allows a user's mailbox to be partitioned into a main mailbox and up to eight submailboxes?
Voice Messaging User Interface Forum.
191
What voice mail interface has the capability to support the temporary absence greeting (TAG) feature?
Meridian mail user interface.
192
The red, green, and blue (RGB) outputs from the camera go to the
encoder.
193
Why are the R-Y and B-Y signals shifted 33° counterclockwise?
R-Y was shifted to maximum and B-Y was shifted to minimum color acuity, respectively for human vision.
194
How many lines of video are discarded in high-definition 1080 line video encoded with 1920x1088 pixel frames prior to display?
8
195
What modulation technique is used by the Advanced Television Systems Committee (ATSC) system?
8-vestigial sideband (8-VSB).
196
What modulation technique is used for Digital Video Broadcasting - Cable transmission?
MPEG-2.
197
An important concept to understand is that digital video is merely an alternate means for
carrying a video waveform.
198
How is information recorded or stored on the videotape?
Series of magnetic patterns.
199
What function in a video tape recorder (VTR) is accomplished by transporting the videotape across the head gap at the same speed at which it was recorded?
Playback.
200
What is a major advantage of digital recording over analog recording?
Material can be edited generation after generation without noticeable degradation in quality.
201
What is the means of measuring the amount of time that has been played or recorded on a video tape recorder (VTR)?
Counter.
202
Which digital video tape format uses a 4:2:2 standard, with an 8 bit sampling rate, 19mm wide tape, and has a 94 minute recording time?
D1.
203
You can compare a video tape recorder (VTR) head to a/an
electromagnet.
204
The GVG-110 video switcher effects key fills with
key bus video or an internally-generated color matte signal.
205
The GVG-110 video switcher serial interface allows
remote control of the switcher by a personal computer or digital picture manipulator.
206
The purpose of the GVG-110 general purpose contact-closure editor interface (GPI) is to allow
remote control of switcher transitions.
207
What part of the video switcher allows titles or other video scenes to be inserted into a full screen background?
Effects keyer.
208
What are the frequencies at which the two common mode nulling adjustments are set in the video distribution amplifier?
60 Hz and 5.5 MHz.
209
What component carries the signal to individual subscribers?
Trunk line.
210
What device is used to combine TV channels into a single line?
Modulator.
211
What is the beginning of a cable system called?
Head-end.
212
The security lighting inside the restricted area is used to
facilitate the detection and tracking of intruders.
213
What is the main purpose of a boundary fence?
To present a physical and psychological deterrent to unauthorized entry.
214
What must a line of detection detect?
Walking, running, rolling, crawling, or jumping through the line of detection.
215
The basic configuration of the entry control facility (ECF) includes a
gatehouse, personnel entry gate, inspection equipment, and vehicle entrapment area.
216
Between what ranges can you adjust the SDI-76 microwave sensor?
15-75 feet.
217
What annunciator is used with the Advisor VIII control unit?
Small permanent communications and display segment (SPCDS).
218
What does the AN/GSS-39 system use to monitor the integrity of all sensor wiring to the
EOL module.
219
What interior intrusion detection system (IIDS) is designed to detect intruders attempting to enter a shelter, storage igloo, or building?
AN/GSS-39
220
Which sensor uses heat radiation to detect intruders?
Passive infrared.
221
A standard Air Force E-Flex II monitors how many meters?
300.
222
At what distance does the detection pattern of the infrared perimeter detection sensor (IPDS) transmitters change, and to what pattern does it change?
150 feet; signal transmitted to two receivers
223
How many inches is the beam width at the widest portion of the infrared perimeter detection sensor?
2.
224
What is the maximum length of the vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS)?
328 feet.
225
What is the maximum length of the Y taut-wire sensor (YTWS)?
200 feet.
226
What is the operating frequency of the synchronizing oscillator in the "A" sensor post of the infrared pulsed intrusion detection system (IPIDS)?
1200 Hz.
227
What is the primary mode of detection for the microwave fence sensor?
Beam break.
228
What type alarm occurs if the sensor post cover in vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS) is removed?
Tamper.
229
What type signal is sent to the fence protection system (FPS) signal processor when an alarm is detected?
Analog.
230
When aligning a microwave fence sensor, what reading do you look for from the automatic gain control (AGC) using a multimeter?
Lowest possible.
231
Which is not a selectable option of the E-Flex II system?
Sector reporting priority.
232
Asymmetric trunk operation provides more efficient use of bandwidth by
not utilizing the bandwidth in the opposite direction of a one-way call.
233
How does the T-Bus relate to the function of the Promina?
The information that is multiplexed/demultiplexed travels over the T-Bus.
234
If all deployed and fixed locations use global positioning system (GPS) referenced clocks, we can eliminate crypto-sync loss due to
timing slips.
235
Which module provides encryption/decryption of traffic into and out of the theater deployable communications/integrated communications access package (TDC/ICAP) network?
Crypto.
236
How many card slots does the FCC-100 have, and how many of them are available for user configuration?
16, 8.
237
What is the maximum number of channels of voice and/or data traffic that the FCC-100 can handle?
16.
238
For a theater deployable communications (TDC) network design that has the crypto interface module (CIM) and the Promina Multiplexer (P-MUX) in separate locations, which piece of equipment is necessary?
CV-2048/8448-D.
239
For either secure or nonsecure data network in theater deployable communications (TDC), the Crypto Interface Module's router normally acts as the
external router.
240
The Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) Gateway Exchange (IGX) switch allows for stacks of up to 8 IGX switches, while the Avaya Prologix switch can operate in a stack of
2
241
The tactical interface gateway (TIG) uses what protocol to allow backwards compatibility between the Avaya Prologix and legacy Triservice Tactical Communications (TRI-TAC) equipment?
Internet.
242
What configuration does the Red Data Module normally operate in?
Gateway/client.
243
The next generation receive terminal (NGRT) accepts feeds from which two satellite bands?
Ku, Ka.
244
What receive broadcast manager (RBM) processes military specific and classified information?
Type one.
245
Which piece of the receive broadcast manager (RBM) functions as a common television set-top converter box?
Video converter.
246
A status acquisition message (SAM) is sent from
Defense Informaiton Technology Contracting Office (DITCO).
247
Circuits that fail to meet all parameters specified in the appropriate technical schedule when
test and acceptance (T&A) is done may not be accepted for service without the express approval
of
the Telecommunications Service Order (TSO) issuing authority.
248
What report must be sent if the circuit does not meet all required parameters and the
Telecommunications Service Order (TSO) issuing authority advises that the circuit is accepted for service?
Exception.
249
```
Within how many normal duty hours of completion action on the Telecommunications
Service Order (TSO) must the circuit control office (CCO) submit an in-effect report?
```
72.
250
If a circuit fails its management threshold (MT), what test might be performed?
Quality control (QC).
251
Trend Analysis is a program that ensures circuits meet management thresholds (MT) on what basis?
Monthly.
252
Trend Analysis is a program that trends all of these outage data except
preempted outages
253
The first position of a trunk identifier indicates the
responsible operations and maintenance (O&M) agency.
254
Which Defense Information Systems Agency Circular(s) (DISAC) contain information needed to assign a temporary command communications service designator (CCSD)?
310-70-1 and 310-55-1.
255
What are the two parts/priorities to the Telecommunications Service Priority (TSP)?
provisioning and restoration.
256
Which office or system confirms a restoration priority?
National Communications System (NCS).
