CDC Z3D152

Question 1

Which 3D career field deploys, sustains, troubleshoots, and repairs wireless, line-of-sight, beyond line-of-sight, wideband and ground-based satellite and encryption transmission devices?

Answer 1

Radio Frequency Transmission Systems (3D1X3)

Question 2

Which of the following is not a communications security program duty and responsibility for Cyber Transport Systems?

Answer 2

Technical security

Question 3

What is defined as an integrated bundle of expert knowledge and organizational skills inherent to a particular career field?

Answer 3

Core competency

Question 4

To prevent manual handling hazards, utilize team lifting when lifting items that weigh more than how many pounds?

Answer 4

25

Question 5

Which hazard is caused by heavy workloads, lack of control over the pace of work, shift work, noise, working by yourself, and conflict with coworkers and employers?

Answer 5

Stress

Question 6

What simple, systematic process allows commanders to maximize combat capability, while limiting risk?

Answer 6

Risk management

Question 7

How many steps are in the risk management (RM) process?

Answer 7

Five

Question 8

Which of the following is a principle of risk management (RM)?

Answer 8

Apply the RM process continuously

Question 9

An enclave that does not have a firewall and intrusion detection system (IDS) is classified as having what category of vulnerability?

Answer 9

I

Question 10

How many Integrated Network and Operation Security Centers (INOSC) does the Air Force have?

Answer 10

Two

Question 11

The Integrated Network Operations and Security Centers (INOSC) has several responsibilities except

Answer 11

install patches or perform any upgrades provided by the Air Force Enterprise Network (AFEN).

Question 12

At which open systems interconnect (OSI) layer does a circuit layer gateway operate?

Answer 12

6

Question 13

Which term is used to describe the technology for transmitting voice communications over a data network using open-standard-based internet protocol (IP)?

Answer 13

IP telephony

Question 14

You should implement all of the following security features to help defend internet protocol (IP) telephony systems from attackers except

Answer 14

consolidating your voice with your data using virtual local area networks (VLAN).

Question 15

Host-based intrusion detection systems (HIDS) are

Answer 15

passive and active.

Question 16

Network-based intrusion detection systems (NIDS) are

Answer 16

passive only.

Question 17

One advantage of a network-based intrusion detection system (NIDS) is that it

Answer 17

uses very few network resources.

Question 18

The disadvantage of a host-based intrusion detection system (HIDS) is that it

Answer 18

consumes resources on the host it resides on and slows that device down.

Question 19

Which intrusion detection system (IDS) monitors packets for protocol anomalies and known virus signatures?

Answer 19

Network-based.

Question 20

Which intrusion detection system (IDS) uses software sensors?

Answer 20

Host-based.

Question 21

What security posture permits everything that is not specifically denied?

Answer 21

Open.

Question 22

What is the first line of defense in securing laptops?

Answer 22

Set a login ID and password combination for access.

Question 23

What type of certificate authenticates the identity of the user?

Answer 23

Digital.

Question 24

The definition of integrity as applied to identification, authentication, and encryption is

Answer 24

the assurance that no one has changed or destroyed information without permission.

Question 25

A facility with an inspectable space of more than 20 meters, but less than 100 meters would be considered to be in facility zone

Answer 25

B

Question 26

Equipment with an equipment radiation TEMPEST zone (ERTZ) of 20 to 100 meters would be considered to be in equipment zone

Answer 26

C

Question 27

What plays a major role in a conductor's ability to minimizing compromising emanations?

Answer 27

Distance and angle

Question 28

Which method of containing radiated emanations requires both facility and equipment testing?

Answer 28

Zoning

Question 29

Why must the use of TEMPEST-certified equipment be validated by an AF Certified TEMPEST technical authority (CTTA) prior to testing an inspectable space?

Answer 29

It is expensive.

Question 30

Equipment is comprised as machines that process information in electronic or electrical form.

Answer 30

Equipment processing clear-text classified information.

Question 31

Which type of separation ensures that every signal conductor from a RED device routes to another RED device, or becomes encrypted before connecting to a BLACK device?

Answer 31

Electrical.

Question 32

What is the grounding resistance goal for military communications electronics (C-E) facilities?

Answer 32

10 ohms or less.

Question 33

Bonds in the earth electrode subsystem normally are direct permanent bonds and do not exceed a resistance of

Answer 33

1 milliohm.

Question 34

What kind of bond is normally applied to signal reference bonds?

Answer 34

Mechanical

Question 35

Which type of shielding utilizes braid, foil, metal wrap, conduit or twisted wire around a conductor?

Answer 35

Cable.

Question 36

Which electronic discharge sensitive (ESD) class has a sensitivity range from 0 - 999 volts?

Answer 36

Class I.

Question 37

Which of these activities would generate the most electrostatic current?

Answer 37

Walking across carpet.

Question 38

Which power line fault category is symptomatic of an instantaneous or dramatic increase in voltage?

Answer 38

Spike.

Question 39

Which type of uninterruptible power supply (UPS) is traditionally referred to as "offline"?

Answer 39

Passive standby.

Question 40

Which type of uninterruptible power supply (UPS) offers the highest level of protection?

Answer 40

Double conversion.

Question 41

How many phases of generator power are usually required for industrial and commercial applications?

Answer 41

Three.

Question 42

What function do facility batteries provide during normal operating conditions (commercial alternate current [AC] power available)?

Answer 42

They act as a DC filter for the commercial AC power.

Question 43

Which is not a consideration for selecting facility batteries?

Answer 43

The number of AC converters required for the facility.

Question 44

Which publication series covers standard Air Force installation practices?

Answer 44

TO 31-10 series.

Question 45

How are connectorized cables labeled?

Answer 45

The first label is placed within 12 inches of the connector and marked "TO", and the second is placed within two (2) inches of the first label and marked "FROM".

Question 46

The advantage of using coaxial cable over paired cable is that coaxial cable

Answer 46

does not radiate energy.

Question 47

Which type of cable does not radiate energy and is not affected by nearby magnetic fields?

Answer 47

Shielded.

Question 48

The thin plastic colored tape that spirals around a specific number of pairs that replicate in color is a

Answer 48

binder.

Question 49

What is used to identify the polarity of a wire pair in a cable?

Answer 49

Tip and Ring.

Question 50

Pin 1 on a typical Electronics Industry Association/Telecommunications Industry Association (EIA/TIA) 568B connector is what color?

Answer 50

White/orange.

Question 51

What cable type connects devices that operate at similar layers of the open system interconnection (OSI) model?

Answer 51

Crossover.

Question 52

What is the standard conductor used for data networking?

Answer 52

RJ-45.

Question 53

What has made very high data rate transmission possible on a fiber optics cable?

Answer 53

The use of light-emitting diodes.

Question 54

What is the maximum operating temperature of fiber optic cable?

Answer 54

1,000°C.

Question 55

Which type of cable is the easiest to splice?

Answer 55

Multimode step index fiber.

Question 56

What do you use to remove excess fiber after the connector has cooled and epoxy has dried on a fiber cable?

Answer 56

Scribe.

Question 57

When using a polishing cloth, remove a little bit of the protruding fiber at a time, until the fiber is perfectly

Answer 57

flat and level.

Question 58

When a multimeter has three input terminal jacks, which jack is always used?

Answer 58

Common.

Question 59

When using an ohmmeter to take a resistance reading, what preliminary precaution should you take?

Answer 59

Disconnect the power from the circuit being tested.

Question 60

The purpose of a breakout box is to

Answer 60

allow monitoring and access to multiple conductors.

Question 61

The purpose of the miniature ON/OFF switches on a breakout box is to

Answer 61

allow the interruption of the individual interface conductors for isolated testing.

Question 62

What do the jumper cables and side switch pins on a breakout box allow?

Answer 62

Cross-patching of individual interface conductors.

Question 63

What happens to the observed signal if you advance the oscilloscope synchronizing control too far?

Answer 63

Distortion.

Question 64

What area of a digital storage oscilloscope takes digitized samples and performs numerous manipulations on the data including measuring rise and fall times, periods, time intervals, and math computations?

Answer 64

Microprocessor.

Question 65

What type of sampling does a digital storage oscilloscope normally use on single-shot or seldom-occurring signals?

Answer 65

Real-time.

Question 66

What determines the size of a test pattern segment transmitted from a bit error rate test (BERT)?

Answer 66

The number of bits that can represent the total number of bits in the test pattern.

Question 67

What type of error is the result of two successive logic one pulses of the same polarity that violates alternate mark inversion coding rules?

Answer 67

Bipolar violation.

Question 68

Which section of a bit error rate test (BERT) set measures the received test pattern?

Answer 68

Receiver.

Question 69

When using an optical time-domain reflectometer (OTDR), what action might a manufacturer require to prevent false readings?

Answer 69

Connect a launch cable between the test set and the cable being tested.

Question 70

What active test is selected on a protocol analyzer to determine if a network node is connected or responding?

Answer 70

Packet internetwork groper (PING).

Question 71

What active test on a protocol analyzer is selected to see the path that the packets are traveling and the time it takes the packets to compete the trip?

Answer 71

Trace route.

Question 72

What protocol analyzer test window reports errors that occur at the physical layer such as bad frame check sequence (FCS), short frames, and jabbers?

Answer 72

Media access control (MAC) node statistics.

Question 73

Which component of a protocol analyzer discards frames based on its definition or activates a trigger based on the trigger definition?

Answer 73

Filter.

Question 74

Which power line fault category is symptomatic of a total loss of utility power?

Answer 74

Blackout.

Question 75

What protocol analyzer test window provides information concerning the network utilization and frame error that are related to a specific protocol?

Answer 75

Protocol statistics.

Question 76

What protocol analyzer test window automatically runs in the background when the protocol analyzer application is activated?

Answer 76

Node discovery.

Question 77

What are the three sections of a fiber optic cable?

Answer 77

Core, cladding, and jacket.

Question 78

Support intervals for cables requiring surface installation will not exceed how many feet?

Answer 78

5

Question 79

Which power line fault category is typically referred to as electro-magnetic interference and radio frequency interference?

Answer 79

Noise.

Question 80

What does an integral system of air terminals, roof conductors, and down conductors, securely interconnected to the shortest practicable path to earth provide for a facility?

Answer 80

Protection from lightning.

Question 81

Which facility ground subsystem uses surge arrestors?

Answer 81

Lightning protection.

Question 82

To whom does the risk management (RM) process apply?

Answer 82

All personnel.

Question 83

Which hazard is not one of the four major types of hazards?

Answer 83

Nuclear.

Question 84

When working on electrical circuits, you may only wear metal framed eyeglasses if

Answer 84

they are secured with a nonmetallic cord.

Question 85

When working on electrical circuits, the role of safety observer is normally performed by the

Answer 85

supervisor.

Question 86

Which AF form is used to report hazardous conditions that place Air Force personnel or property at risk?

Answer 86

457.

Question 87

Which digital storage oscilloscope button controls all waveforms displayed in the STORE mode?

Answer 87

CURSORS control.

Question 88

What is the standard operating mode for the acquisition mode on a digital storage oscilloscope?

Answer 88

Sample mode.

Question 89

Sampled data points are stored in the memory of a digital storage oscilloscope as

Answer 89

waveform points.

Question 90

How long do most fiber-optic epoxies take to set?

Answer 90

12-24 hours.

Question 91

Which section of a horizontal cable duct is used for signal and control cables?

Answer 91

Upper.

Question 92

What is required in electronic settings to prevent equipment and signals from propagating interference and to protect equipment and signals from the effects of interference propagated by other devices?

Answer 92

Shielding.

Question 93

Which facility ground subsystem is also called the "signal ground" and controls electrical noise and static in a facility?

Answer 93

Signal reference.

Question 94

Which facility ground subsystem is also called the safety ground?

Answer 94

Fault protection.

Question 95

What equipment should be designated as BLACK when designating equipment that supports physical and electrical concepts?

Answer 95

Equipment processing encrypted classified information.

Question 96

Which AF System Security Instruction (AFSSI) provides the overall implementation of DOD's TEMPEST program?

Answer 96

7700.

Question 97

What Air Force Systems Security Instruction (AFSSI) series covers emission security (EMSEC)?

Answer 97

7000.

Question 98

At which open systems interconnect (OSI) layer does a packet filter gateway operate at?

Answer 98

3.

Question 99

At which open systems interconnect (OSI) layer does an application-level firewall operate?

Answer 99

7.

Question 100

Which of the following is a core competency of Cyber Transport Systems?

Answer 100

Voice network systems.