CDC Questions Flashcards
1
Q
What is an example of analog-to-digital and digital-to-analog techniques?
A
Pulse code modulation (PCM) and continuously variable slope delta (CVSD) modulation
2
Q
What converts analog signal information into an analog carrier signal?
A
Analog modulation
3
Q
What convers analog signal information into a digital carrier signal?
A
Digital Modulation
4
Q
The information-carrying components that occur on either side of a carrier are called…
A
sidebands
5
Q
Amplitude modulation (AM) requires a bandwidth that is
A
twice that of the modulating signal
6
Q
The upper sideband in a single-sideband suppressed carrier (SSBSC) modulation is eliminated by
A
filtering.
7
Q
We can express the 6-to-1 improvement of the single-sideband suppressed carrier (SSBSC) modulation over conventional amplitude modulation (AM) as
A
8 db of improvement
8
Q
The only basic waveform in nature is a
A
pure sine wave
9
Q
A modulated waveform that contains a carrier plus two sidebands for each modulation frequency is a description of
A
an amplitude modulation (AM)
10
Q
If 100% modulation is exceeded and there is distortion in the modulating signal, additional sidebands are generated. We identify these sidebands as what?
A
splatter
11
Q
The amount of deviation in a frequency modulation (FM) signal is directly proportional to the modulating signal’s
A
amplitude
12
Q
The amount of phase shift in a phase modulation (PM) signal is directly proportional to the
A
amplitude of the modulating signal
13
Q
What form of modulation is insensitive to signal variations?
A
Binary-phase shift keying or bi-phase shift keying (BPSK)
14
Q
In quadrature-phase shift keying (QPSK) the radio frequency (RF) bandwidth for a quadripphase signal is what of that required by a bi-phase signal, given the same data rate
A
half
15
Q
What is the main advantage of differential phase shift keying (DPSK)?
A
It requires a less complex receiver than basic phase shift keying (PSK) signal
16
Q
Which of the following is not considered an analog modulation techniques?
A
pulse-code modulation (PCM)
17
Q
The form of pulse modulation in which the pulse is varied within a set range of positions is known as
A
pulse-position modulation (PPM)
18
Q
Quantized analog modulation is actually
A
analog-to-digital conversion
19
Q
How many bits per character of a 16-step pulse-code modulation (PCM) system are used to describe the quantized analog sample?
A
4
20
Q
The process of coding pulse code modulation (PCM) quantized pulses to make them a constant duration and amplitude is
A
encoding
21
Q
In time division multiplexing (TDM), the transmitting multiplexer will put a bit or a byte from each of the incoming lines into a specifically allocated what?
A
time slot
22
Q
The two major types of frame structures are
A
CCITT and low speed
23
Q
The method of multiplexing the T1 multiplexer uses is
A
time division
24
Q
Wave-division multiplexing (WDM) creates the virtual channels for multiplexing them together for transmission by using different
A
wavelengths or lambdas
25
The most common wave-division multiplexing (WDM) system uses how many wavelengths?
Two wavelengths
26
Individual pulses within a digital signal are
bits
27
What unit is most commonly used in data systems to express signaling speed?
Bits per second
28
Bit count integrity problems are primarily caused by
system timing faults
29
Three categories of synchronization used in digital data circuits are
synchronous, asynchronous, and isochronous
30
Which option is a characteristic of synchronous data operation?
All data bits are the same length in time
31
A digital signal that contains synchronizing bits within the signal stream describes
Asynchronous operation
32
In what type of signal is the information contained in the transition, and there is transition from one state to the other only when a mark bit is sent?
Non-return-to-zero mark
33
In what type of signal does the signal level move to one of the discrete signal levels, but returns to the zero level after predetermined time?
Return-to-zero
34
Which statement best describes an alternate mark inversion (AMI) signal?
A logic one is transmitted as positive voltage if the previous logic one was negative
35
Digital coding techniques such as binary with eight-zero substitution (B8ZS) signal?
Bipolar violations are intentionally inserted into a data signal to break up long strings of zeros.
36
The major difference between conditioned di-phase (CDI) and other schemes is the
use of mid-bit transitions for timing
37
How many bits are in the D4 framing sequence?
12
38
How many bits are in the extended super frame format (EDF) framing sequence?
24
39
What communications control signal uses a two-frequency dialing
Tone dialing
40
What communications information signal uses a continuous 350- and 440- Hz frequency pair?
Dial tone
41
What communications information signal uses a signal cycled on and off for 0.5 second and contains the generation of a 480- and 620-Hz frequency pair?
Busy signal
42
What communications supervisory signal uses a continuous application of direct current voltage for signaling?
Loop0start
43
When is the voltage applied in loop-start signaling?
Off-hook condition
44
In common associated signaling (CAS), what is the seventh bit in frames 6 and 12 used to convey signaling information known as?
Bit robbing
45
In what common channel signaling (CCS) mode are the messages relating to signaling between two points conveyed directly interconnecting these signaling points?
Associated mode
46
What are the two principle weighting characteristics in use with telecommunication circuit noise?
CCITT psophometric and C-message
47
While timing makes sure the equipment is sending and receiving bits at the same time intervals, synchronization makes sure that the
receive equipment can find its place in the bit stream
48
What term is associated with the delay or lag introduced in the application of voltage from one section to the next?
Latency
49
Attenuation distortion is caused by
differing attenuation rates for the various frequency components comprising a voice frequency transmission
50
Jamming a portion of the frequency spectrum is an example of
electronic attack
51
The definition of electronic attack can be found in which publication?
Air Force Doctrine Document 2-5.1
52
Any actions we take to protect our forces, facilities, and equipment for electronic action that can destroy or degrade our capabilities is considered
electronic protection
53
Varying the pulse repetition frequency on a radar set is an example of
electronic protection
54
Electronic warfare support includes devices such as
radar warning receivers and intelligence systems
55
When a multimeter has three input terminal jacks, which jack is always used?
Voltage terminal
56
When using a multimeter, which mode should be used if the reading is unreadable due to fluctuations?
Display hold
57
When using a multimteter, which mode should be used if the reading fluctuates and a more accurate reading is desired?
minimum/maximum (min/max)
58
When using a ohmmeter to take a resistance reading, what preliminary precaution should you take?
Disconnect the power from the circuit being tested
59
What principle of operation does the time domain reflectometer use to test cables?
Radar
60
Which push-buttons would you select to get 125-ohm (Ω) impedance on the time domain relectometer?
50Ω and 75Ω
61
What is the power that is reflected back to an optical source in the time domain reflectometer(TDR)?
Backscatter
62
What are the two major sections of a bit error rate test (Bert) set?
Transmitter and receiver
63
Which section of a bit error rate test (BERT) set measures the received test pattern?
Receiver
64
What type of framing format should you use to conduct a bit error rate test (BERT) on a T1 circuit configured for binary with eight-zero substitution (B8ZS) coding?
Extended superframe
65
When performing a bit error rate test (BERT), what determines the size of a test pattern segment?
The number of bits that can represent the total number of bits in the test pattern
66
What type of error is the result of two successive logic one pulses of the same polarity in violation of alternate mark inversion coding rules?
Bipolar violation
67
On a breakout box, how many RS-232 key interface signals can be monitored and accessed individually?
25
68
The purpose of the miniature ON/OFF switches on a breakout box is to
allow the interruption of the individual interface conductors
69
What happens when more bits are added to a digital signal arranged in a sequence understood by the sender and receiver?
A code set is established
70
How many possible symbols can 4 bits represent?
16
71
In networking, a byte is identified as a/an
octet
72
What organization sets important computer networking wiring standards for residential and commercial network cabling?
Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA)
73
What Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA)/Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA) standard is used for commercially building telecommunications cabling?
568A
74
Which of the following is an International Telecommunication Union (ITU) standardized format used for digital telecommunications services backbone system?
E-carrier
75
There is a worldwide nonprofit association of technical professionals that promotes the development of standards called the
Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE)
76
A collection of standards for local area network (LAN) architectures, protocols, and technologies called Project 802 were developed by the
Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE)
77
The "parent" organization, headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland, for all other telecommunications organizations is the
International Telecommunication Union (ITU)
78
What organization is responsible for the X-series and V-series standards?
International Telecommunications Standardization Sector (ITU-T)
79
Which series of standards are recommended for data transmission using the telephone network?
V
80
The definition of the Open System Interconnect (OSI) reference model was a major contribution to networking made by the
International Organization for Standardization (ISO)
81
Within how many feet of the data communications equipment (DCE) connection does the Electronics Industries Alliance (EIA) RS-232-C standard prescribes bipolar-voltage serial data transmission?
50
82
Which Electronics Industries Alliance (EIA) interface standard has the ability to work in either balanced for unbalanced electrical circuits?
RS-530
83
What transmission rates does Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA) RS-530 accommodate?
20Kbps to 2 megabits per seconds (Mbps)
84
What two sublayers did the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) divide the Open System Interconnect (OSI) data link layers into?
Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC)
85
At what Open System Interconnect (OSI) layer are common data compression and encryption schemes used?
Presentation
86
What Open System Interconnect (OSI) layer is closest to the end user?
Application
87
In the Open System Interconnect (OSI) model, a layer will communicate with three other OSI layers. Which one is not one of those layers?
Lowest layer
88
Which information unit, whose source and destination are network-layer entities, uses connectionless network service?
Datagram
89
What data communication protocol is used to govern the flow and format of information between systems?
Character-oriented
90
In binary-synchronous protocol, what character is used to establish and maintain character synchronization prior to the message block and during transmission?
SYN
91
What data communication protocol is based on bits and the position of the bits?
Bit-oriented
92
What data communication protocol ensures that the receiving station can distinguish information from garbage?
High-Level Data Link Control (HDLC)
93
A group of computers and associated devices that share a common communications line within a small geographic area is a
Local Area Network (LAN)
94
The interconnection of several networks in a city into a single larger network is a
Metropolitan Area Network (MAN)
95
What type of network connects networks that are typically separated by geographical distances?
Wide Area Network (WAN)
96
What type of network enables a group of two or more computer systems to communicate over the public internet?
Virtual Private Network (VPN)
97
Which type network enables users to share resources, files, and printers in a decentralized way?
Peer-to-peer
98
What Network layer protocol provides information about how and where data should be delivered, including the data's source and destination addresses?
Internet Protocol (IP)
99
Which Network layer protocol matches a known internet protocol (IP) address for destination device to a Media Access Control (MAC) address?
Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)
100
Which Network Layer protocol provides the internet protocol (IP) address for a device that knows its own Media Access Control (MAC) address?
Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP)
101
Which Transport layer protocol does not guarantee that packets will be received at all?
User Datagram Protocol (UDP)
102
Which Application layer protocol is used to send a receive files by way of transmission control protocol/internet protocol (TCP/IP)?
File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
103
Which protocol is simpler than File Transfer Protocol (FTP) when transferring files between computers?
Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP)
104
Which Application layer protocol is a terminal emulation used to log on to remote hosts?
Teletype Network
105
Which Application layer protocol is an automated means of assigning a unique internet protocol (IP) address to ever device on a network?
Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)
106
Which Application layer protocol is a utility that can verify that transmission control protocol/internet protocol (TCP/IP) is installed and communicating with the network?
Ping
107
The physical address of any device on the network is a
Media Access Control (MAC) address
108
What are the two parts to an Internet Protocol Version 4 (IPv4) address?
Network and host
109
What is used on a transmission control protocol/internet protocol (TCP/IP) network to determine which network a computer is on?
Subnet mask
110
How many subnet bits are required to support 90 subnets on a class B network?
Seven
111
How many bits are available for host bits on a Class B network using seven bits?
Nine
112
What is not recommendation for planning networks using variable length subnet masking (VLSM)?
Re-address the entire network
113
What mechanism allows for easier Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) address allocations?
Auto configuration
114
Which one of the following is not an Internet Protocol version (IPv6) transition approach?
Auto Configuration
115
Which Internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) tunneling approach attempts to solve the issue of IPv6 to IP version 4 (IPv4, IP protocol 41 issue?
Teredo
116
Teredo has four tunneling components. Which one is not one of them?
Teredo agent
117
The combination transmitter/receiver device, in a single package is called
a transceiver
118
What device provides the physical, electrical, and electronic connections to the network media?
Network interface card (NIC)
119
What layers of the open system interconnection (OSI) model do network interface cards (NIC) belong?
Physical and Data Link Layers
120
A repeater with more than one output port is
a hub
121
What can be used to extend the size of a network?
Active hubs
122
What device subdivides a network into smaller logical pieces, or segments?
Switch
123
The time it takes a switch to figure out where to forward a data unit is called
latency
124
Which device has multiport connectivity that directs data between nodes on a network?
Router
125
A router's strength is its
intelligence
126
What is the oldest routing protocol?
Routing Information Protocol (RIP)
127
Which routing protocol does internet backbones use?
Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)
128
What type of gateway can restrict the kind of access local area network (LAN) users have to the internet, and vice versa?
Internet
129
What type of gateway might include remote access servers that allow dial-up connectivity to a local area network (LAN)?
LAN
130
Virtual private networks (VPN) allow the AF to extend network resources across a/an
Public network
131
What is not a function that a virtual private network (VPN) concentrator performs?
Encapsulates data
132
What cable discrepancies can a time-domain refelectometer (TDR) detect to identify problems?
Impedance
133
When using an optical time-domain reflectometer (OTDR), what action is suggested by most manufactures to prevent false readings?
Connect a launch cable between the test set and the cable being tested
134
A cable scanner wire-map display identifies crossover and straight-through cables by
providing wiring maps at both ends of the cable
135
What test equipment has the capability of diagnosing digital network and developing communications software?
Protocol Analyzer
136
Which component of a protocol analyzer discards frames based on it definition or activates a trigger based on the trigger definition?
Filter
137
What component of a protocol analyzer processes the frames based on the selected test and the user configuration inputs?
Central processing unit (CPU)
138
What protocol analyzer feature automatically runs in the background when the protocol analyzer application is activated?
Node Discovery
139
What protocol analyzer utility is used to determine if a network node is connected or responding?
Ping
140
What protocol analyzer utility is used to see the path that packets are traveling and the time it takes the packets to complete the trip?
Trace Route
141
A Management Information Base (MIB) can be identified by either its object name or its object what?
Descriptor
142
Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) has three components: a managed device, an agent and a
Network Management System (NMS)
143
Which of the following is not a basic Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) command?
Get
144
Which network management function provides the capability to initialize, operate and shut down managed device?
Configuration
145
Which network management function obtains the utilization and error rates of network device and provides statistical data about the network?
Performance
146
The community name that is used with the network management systems (NMS) authenticates
simple network management protocol (SNMP) requests
147
What defines the format and type of data in a network management system (NMS) report?
Report template
148
What process provides the overall process to secure and protect our information networks?
Barrier Reef
149
What defines traffic flow and is a basic protection mechanism on routers?
Access lists
150
The world Wide Web (WWW) proxy provides three benefits: it conceals internal network configuration, provides a means to monitor and eliminate traffic to unofficial WWW sites, and
provides much faster access to the internet
151
What is one of the primary functions of the Network Control Center (NCC), usually done in real time, and ensures the system is being operated within the parameters established by network security policy?
System monitoring
152
What security posture permits everything that is not specifically authorized?
Default deny
153
What is the first line of defense when gaining access to a laptop computer's operating system?
Logon identification and password combination
154
Who has unrestricted access to system commands and data?
Superusers
155
What must be employed to ensure data integrity?
Check sums
156
What method is approved for changing passwords through the use of remote access?
Strongly encrypted virtual private network
157
an intrusion detection system (IDS) may miss attacks that bypass the firewall like application-based attacks and
tunneling
158
What type of firewall can filter messages according to a set of rules for a specific application?
Proxy server
159
What are the two vulnerability scanner examination techniques?
Passive and active
160
One disadvantage of microwave wavelengths is that the frequencies are susceptible to
weather effects
161
What is not a factor in determining the refractive index of air?
Propagation medium
162
The determining factor in calculating the correct size of a waveguide is
frequency
163
How many miles above the earth are satellites placed in orbit?
22,300
164
Which satellite communications system is used to transmit space operations?
Defense Satellite Communications System (DSCS)
165
To transmit an audio signal over radio frequency (RF), it first has to be
modulated
166
What is one path high frequency (HF) transmission follow from the antenna to distant end?
Groundwave
167
Which is not a disadvantage of laser light transmission?
No need for careful alignment of transmitter and receiver
168
Broadband refers to a technology that can transmit
a relatively wide range of frequencies
169
Broadband technology uses all of the transmission mediums except?
laser light
170
The Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) configuration normally used to connect switches together is the
Primary Rate Interface (PRI)
171
How many B and D channels does the standard configuration in North American Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) primary rate of interface (PRI) application use?
23, 1
172
What was the primary driving factor behind the invention of the telephone exchange system?
Point-to-point telephone access caused cabling issues
173
When a telephone network is circuit switched, each call
has dedicated circuit created by the switch
174
The three cornerstones of voice network system security are availability,
confidentiality, and integrity
175
What is the most serious threat to voice network system integrity?
Subversion
176
What role does the Private Branch Exchange (PBX) play in the telephony industry?
A small scale switch that handles internal calls for an organization
177
How many serial data interface ports does the Meridian Option 11C small System Controller Have?
3
178
Which models of the digital multiplex system (DMS) family are commonly used at Air Forces bases to provide base telephone services?
DMS-100 and Meridian System Logic (MSL)-100
179
What is the maximum number of ports that a digital multiplex system-100 (DMS-100) supports?
100,000
180
Which elements make up the control component of the SuperNode central control?
CM and system load module (SLM)
181
What link is used to connect the digital multiplex system (DMS)-core to the DMS-bus?
DS-512
182
Which major component of the NorTel digital switching system (DSS) interfaces line and trunk subscribers?
Peripheral Module (PM)
183
What components are directly connected to the input/output controller (IOC)?
A pair of SuperNode message controllers and the device controllers
184
Base cables normally enter the central office (CO) facility through a
cable vault
185
The primary reason you should measure the voltage across terminal or distribution frame protectors before removing and replacing them is to
ensure dangerous voltages are not present on the line
186
Where do incoming unswitched circuits from a peripheral module (PM) enter the NT9X35A cross-point card matrix?
Vertical Bus
187
Because the enhanced network (ENET) is a matrix, and input channel has access to any available
output channel
188
Which digital multiplex system (DMS)-11 database facility is responsible for creating and maintaining tables of data in a controlled manner?
Table Control
189
Which digital multiplex system (DMS)-100 database facility provides facilities for storing data modifications orders (DM)) and for retrieving them at a specified time for execution?
Pending order file
190
Which digital multiples system (DMS)-100 database facility provides data modifications orders (DMO) on the tape or disk so that data tables can be restored if the stem should fall?
Journal File
191
What voice mail interface has the capability to support the temporary absence greeting (TAG) feature?
Meridian mail user interface
192
What voice mail interface allows a user's mailbox to be partitioned into a mail mailbox and up to eight submailboxes?
Voice Messaging User Interface Forum
193
Why are the R-Y and B-Y signals shifted 33° counterclockwise?
R-Y was shifted to maximum and B-Y was shifted to minimum color acuity, respectively for human vision
194
The red, green, and blue (RGB) outputs form the camera go to the
encoder
195
What modulation technique is used by the Advanced Television Systems Committee (ATSC) system?
8-vestigial sideband (8-VSB)
196
What modulation technique is used for Digital Video Broadcasting - Cable transmission?
MPEG-2
197
How many lines of video are discarded in high-definition 1080 line video encoded with 1920x1088 pixel frames prior to display?
8
198
How is information recorded or stored on the videotape?
Series of magnetic patterns
199
You can compare a video tape recorder (VTR) head to an
electromagnet
200
What function in a video tape recorder (VTR) is accomplished by transporting the videotape across the head gap at the same speed at which it was recorded?
Playback
201
An important concept to understand is that digital video is merely an alternate means for
carrying a video waveform
202
What is a major advantage of digital recording over analog recording?
Material can be edited generation after generation without noticeable degradation in quality
203
Which digital video tape format uses a 4:#:# standard, with an 8 bit sampling rate, 19mm wide tape, and has a 94 minute recording time?
D1
204
What is the means of measuring the amount of time that has been played or recorded on a video tape recorder (VTR)?
Counter
205
What part of the video switcher allows titles or other video scenes to be inserted into a full screen background?
Effects keyer
206
The GVG-110 video switcher effects key fills with
key bus video or an internally-generated color matte signal
207
The purpose of the GVG-110 general purpose contact-closure editor interface (GPI) is to allow
remote control of switcher transitions
208
The GVG-110 video switcher serial interface allows
remote control of the switcher by a personal computer or digital manipulator
209
What are the frequencies at which the two common mode nulling adjustments are set in the video distribution amplifier?
60 Hz and 5.5 MHz
210
What is the beginning of a cable system called?
Head-end
211
What device is used to combine TB channels into a single line?
Modulator
212
What component carries the signal to individual subscribers?
Trunk Line
213
What must a line of detection detect?
Walking, running, rolling, crawling, or jumping through the line of detection
214
What is the main purpose of a boundary fence?
To present a physical and psychological deterrent to unauthorized entry
215
The security lighting inside the restricted area is used to
facilitate the detection and tracking of intruders
216
The basic configuration of the entry control facility (ECF) included a
gatehouse, personnel entry gate, inspection equipment, and vehicle entrapment area
217
What interior intrusion detection system (IIDS) is designed to detect intruders attempting to enter a
AN/GSS-39
218
What annunciator is used with the Advisor VIII control unit?
Small permanent communications and display segment (SPCDS)
219
What does the AN/GSS-39 system use to monitor the integrity of all sensor wiring to the control panel?
EOL module
220
Which sensor uses heat radiation to detect intruders?
Passive infrared
221
What is the range of the alternate current (AC) presence time delay relay in the AN/GSS-39 system before a power loss is reported?
1.5 to 15 seconds
222
Between what ranges can you adjust the SDI-76 microwave sensor?
15-75 feet
223
What type signal is sent to the fence protection system (FPS) signal processor when an alarm is detected?
Analog
224
A standard Air Force E-Flex II monitors how many meters?
300
225
Which is not a selectable option of the E-Flex II system?
Sector reporting priority
226
What is the maximum length of the vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS)?
328 Feet
227
What is the maximum length of the Y taut-wire sensor (YTWS)?
200 Feet
228
What type alarm occurs if the sensor post cover in vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS) is removed?
Tamper
229
In the event of a power failure, how many hours can the vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS) remain operational?
4
230
How many inches is the beam width at the widest portion of the infrared perimeter detection sensor?
2
231
At what distance does the detection pattern of the infrared perimeter detection sensor (IPDS) transmitters change, and to what pattern does it change?
150 feet; signal transmitted to two receivers
232
What is the operating frequency of the synchronizing oscillator in the "A" sensor post of the infrared pulsed intrusion detection system (IPIDS)?
1200Hz
233
What is the primary mode of detection for the microwave fence sensor?
Beam break
234
When aligning a microwave fence sensor, what reading do you look for from the automatic the automatic gain control (AGC) using the multimeter?
Lowest possible
235
How does the T-Bus relate to the function of the Promina?
The information that is multiplexed/demultiplexed travels over the T-Bus
236
Asymmetric trunk operation provides more efficient use of bandwidth by
not utilizing the bandwidth in the opposite direction of a one-way call
237
Which module provides encryption/decryption of traffic into and out of the theatre deployable communications/integrated communications access package (TDC/ICAP) network?
Crypto
238
If all deployed and fixed locations use global positioning system (GPS) referenced clocks, we can eliminate crypto-sync loss due to
timing slips
239
What is the maximum number of channels of voice and/or data traffic that the FCC-100 can handle?
16
240
How many card slots does the FCC-100 have, and how many of them are available for user configuration?
16, 8
241
For either secure or nonsecure data network in theatre deployable communications (TDC), the Crypto Interface Module's router normally acts as the
external router
242
For a theatre deployable communications (TDC) network design that has the crypto interface module (CIM) and the Promina Multiplexer (P-MUX) in separate locations, which piece of the equipment is necessary?
CV-2048/8448-D
243
The Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) Gateway Exchange (IGX) switch allows for stacks of up to 8 IGX switches, while the Avaya Prologix switch can operate in a stack of
2
244
The tactical interface gateway (TIG) uses what protocol to allow backwards compatibility between the Avaya Prologix and Legacy Triservice Tactical Communications (TRI-TAC) equipment?
Internet
245
What configuration does the Red Data Module normally operate in?
Gateway/client
246
The next generation receive terminal (NGRT) accepts feeds from which two satellite bands?
Ku, Ka
247
What receive broadcast manager (RBM) processes military specific and classified information?
Type One
248
Which piece of the receive broadcast manager (RBM) functions as a common television settop converter box?
Video converter
249
A status acquisition message (SAM) is sent from
Defense Information Technology Contracting Office (DITCO)
250
Circuits that fail to meet all parameters specified in the appropriate technical schedule when test and acceptance (T&A) is done may not be accepted for service without the express approval of
the Telecommunications Service Order (TSO) issuing authority
251
Within how many normal duty hours of completion action on the Telecommunications Service Order (TSO) must the circuit control office (CCO) submit an in-effect report?
72
252
What report must be sent if the circuit does not meet all required parameters and the Telecommunications Service Order (TSO) issuing authority advises that the circuit is accepted for service?
Exception
253
Trend Analysis is a program that trends all of these outage data except
preempted outages
254
Trend Analysis is a program that ensures circuits meet management threshold (MT), what test might be performed?
Quality Control (QC)
255
The first position of a trunk identifier indicates the
"from" (sending) station
256
Which Defense Information Systems Agency Circular(s) (DISAC) contain information needed to assign a temporary command communications service designator (CCSD)?
310-70-1 and 310-55-1
257
Which office or system confirms a restoration priority?
National Communications System (NCS)
258
What are the two parts/priorities to the Telecommunications Service Priority (TSP)?
provisioning and restoration
259
Who's gay?
Sharma
