CDC Z3D152 Part 2 Flashcards
1
Q
At what Open System Interconnection (OSI) layer are virtual circuits established, maintained and terminated?
A
Transport.
2
Q
Which of the following is an example of a video compression standard?
A
Motion Picture Experts Group-4 (MPEG-4).
3
Q
In the Open System Interconnect (OSI) model, a layer will communicate with three other OSI layers. Which one is not one of those layers?
A
Lowest layer.
4
Q
What data communication protocol uses characters or “handshaking” to control the link and represent information?
A
Binary synchronous protocol.
5
Q
In binary-synchronous protocol, which characters establishes and maintains character synchronization prior to the message block and during transmission?
A
SYN.
6
Q
Which data communication protocol is based on bits and the position of the bits?
A
Bit-oriented.
7
Q
Which data communication protocol is a transmission code that supports a variety of link types and topologies?
A
Synchronous Data Link Control (SDLC).
8
Q
Which network layer protocol matches a known Internet protocol (IP) address for a destination device to a Media Access Control (MAC) address?
A
Address Resolution Protocol (ARP).
9
Q
Which Network layer protocol provides messaging that can help with troubleshooting?
A
Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP).
10
Q
Which Transport layer protocol provides reliable data delivery services?
A
Transmission Control Protocol (TCP).
11
Q
Which Application layer protocol is used to synchronize the clocks of computers on a network?
A
Network Time Protocol (NTP).
12
Q
Which network Class has the most addresses for hosts?
A
A.
13
Q
How many subnet bits are required to support 90 subnets on a Class B network?
A
Seven.
14
Q
Internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) addresses are represented by
A
8 groups of hexadecimal numbers.
15
Q
Teredo has four tunneling components. Which one is not one of them?
A
Agent.
16
Q
Which device has multiport connectivity that directs data between nodes on a network?
A
Router.
17
Q
Which routing protocol do internet backbones use?
A
Border Gateway Protocol (BGP).
18
Q
Which router port is used for initial configuration?
A
Console.
19
Q
When configuring a router, you control access to privileged EXEC mode by configuring which password?
A
Enable.
20
Q
On a router’s serial interface connection, what provides the timing signal for the communication link?
A
Data communications equipment.
21
Q
Virtual Private Networks (VPNs) allow the AF to extend network resources across a/an
A
a public network.
22
Q
Which topology defines the way in which devices communicate and data is transmitted throughout the network?
A
Logical.
23
Q
Which topology has the stations connected in the form of a circle?
A
Ring.
24
Q
Which topology combines two or more different physical topologies in a single network?
A
Hybrid.
25
Which device subdivides a network into smaller logical pieces, or segments?
Switch.
26
The time it takes a switch to figure out where to forward a data unit is called its
latency.
27
Which of the following is not a distinct layer of a hierarchical network design?
Transport.
28
How many broadcast domains forms a Virtual LAN (VLAN)?
1.
29
What allows transportation of all active Virtual LANs (VLAN) between switches using a single physical link?
VLAN trunks.
30
Which of the following will minimize EtherChannel configuration problems?
Configure all interfaces to operate at the same speed and duplex mode.
31
Which Institute of Electrical Electronics Engineers (IEEE) specification is least susceptible to interference caused by household appliances and medical devices?
802.11a.
32
Which wireless design phase accounts for the amount of users on the network, the training required for the users and the security and integrity requirements of the network data?
Planning.
33
What identifier differentiates one wireless local area network (WLAN) from another?
Service Set Identifier (SSID).
34
A Management Information Base (MIB) is a collection of information that is organized
hierarchically.
35
Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is a tool used by network administrators to manage network performance, investigate and solve network problems and help plan for
future growth.
36
Which physical security action can you take to ensure network equipment supports the widest range of security services?
Configure the equipment with the maximum amount of memory possible.
37
In general, you should deny direct dial-in access to a network device by disabling which port?
Auxiliary.
38
Individual pulses within a digital signal are
bits.
39
What is most commonly used in data systems to express signaling speed?
Bits per second.
40
Which option is a characteristic of synchronous data operation?
All data bits are the same length in time.
41
A digital signal that contains synchronizing bits within the signal stream describes
asynchronous operation.
42
How many voltage levels does a binary signal have?
2.
43
In what type of digital signal does the signal level move to one of the discrete signal levels, but returns to the zero level after a predetermined time?
Return-to-zero.
44
Digital coding techniques such as binary with eight-zero substitution (B8ZS) are becoming more popular because they are designed to
maintain ones density standards.
45
Which statement best describes a binary with eight-zero substitution (B8ZS) signal?
Bipolar violations are intentionally inserted into a data signal to break up long strings of zeros.
46
How many bits are in the extended superframe format (ESF) framing sequence?
24.
47
The signaling equipment has three types of communications signals that functions to
control and process calls.
48
Which communications control signal uses a two-frequency dialing combination?
Tone.
49
In common associated signaling (CAS), what is the seventh bit in frames 6 and 12 used for?
Bit robbing.
50
Which common channel signaling (CCS) mode does the transfer of messages relating to signaling between two points occur directly over links interconnecting the signaling points?
Associated.
51
What is the process, or result of the process, of modifying (varying) one or more characteristics of a carrier signal in accordance with an instantaneous characteristic of an information signal?
Modulation.
52
The signal components that occur as bands above and below a carrier are called
sidebands.
53
To prevent frequency modulation (FM) radio stations from interfering with each other, the Federal Communications Commission (FCC) has set limits that allow each station to cause its oscillator frequency to deviate no more than
75 kHz.
54
Which form of modulation is insensitive to signal variations?
Binary-phase shift keying.
55
The form of pulse modulation in which a discrete pulse is varied within a range of positions is known as
pulse-position.
56
Which type of pulse modulation is least affected by noise?
Pulse-code.
57
Which form of multiplexing is very susceptible to signal deterioration?
Frequency-division.
58
What are the two major types of frame structures?
CCITT and low speed.
59
The method of multiplexing the T1 multiplexer uses is
time division.
60
Which wave-division multiplexing technology uses uncooled lasers to reduce cost?
Coarse wave division multiplexing.
61
To create a better timing environment in communications networks, external timing distribution occurs through
station clocks.
62
What do Global Positioning System (GPS) satellites use to provide very precise time to GPS receivers?
Atomic clock.
63
Which stratum level is a Global Positioning System (GPS) timing source?
1
64
Which agency has responsibility for a circuit end-to-end?
Circuit Control Office (CCO).
65
Who is responsible for all circuits within their facility up to the designated demarcation point and provides troubleshooting assistance at the direction of the Global NetOps Support Center (GNSC)?
Node side coordinator.
66
Which agency is the preferred transport provider for Internet and commercial satellite connections used for voice, video and/or data services on DOD networks?
Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).
67
What web application is used to order telecommunications products and services from the Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA)?
DISA Direct Order Entry (DDOE).
68
What document is the authority for the operations and maintenance agencies to procure specific devices and ancillary equipment necessary for the installation or operation of the circuit?
Telecommunications service order.
69
Which DD form do you use for an official narrative log that is often used to brief unit commanders?
1753.
70
Which DD form is used as the primary source of information when preparing DOD Information Network (DODIN) status reports?
1443.
71
Which test results do you record on the reverse/back side of the DD Form 1697-Analog?
Frequency response and envelope delay.
72
If the circuit files are lost or destroyed, what document are Technical Control Facilities required to obtain?
The latest telecommunications service order (TSO) that reflects the current end-to-end circuit configuration.
73
Within how many normal duty hours of completion action on the Telecommunications Service Order (TSO) must the circuit control office (CCO) submit an in-effect report?
72.
74
What report must be sent if the circuit does not meet all required parameters and the Telecommunications Service Order (TSO) issuing authority advises that the circuit is accepted for service?
Exception.
75
Trend analysis is a program that ensures circuits meet management thresholds on what basis?
Monthly.
76
If a circuit fails its management threshold, what test might be performed?
Quality control.
77
Which publication lists the methods used to identify systems, links, trunks and circuits?
DISAC 310-65-1.
78
Which office or system confirms a restoration priority?
National Communications System (NCS).
79
When you must restore user service by rerouting, what is the second type of circuit you preempt?
Nonactive on-call circuits.
80
Combined distribution frames encompass the functions of a main distribution frame and
an intermediate distribution frame.
81
Who determines if Preventative Maintenance Inspections (PMI) are accomplished when commercial manuals or publications are not available?
Flight commander.
82
When a telephone network is circuit switched, each call
has a dedicated circuit created by the switch.
83
In Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN), the "B" channel carries
user traffic.
84
The three cornerstones of voice network system security are availability,
confidentiality, and integrity.
85
The vulnerabilities of voice and data converged networks were highlighted in a report released by the
President's National Security Telecommunications Advisory Committee.
86
What should security policies encompass to help mitigate the threat of convergence?
Both voice and data networks.
87
What provides enterprise wide visibility into telecom resource utilization, phone network usage and incidents of toll fraud?
Enterprise Telephony Management system.
88
During the initial research for voice system security, who recognized that the most common security threats could be addressed by voice protection system?
The Air Force Information Warfare Battle Lab.
89
Which is not a component of the voice protection system architecture?
Firewall.
90
Where are voice protection system servers installed?
Integrated Network and Security Center.
91
Which is not a characteristic and capability of a voice protection system?
Centralizing yet distributing management.
92
What are attempts to gain access to a switch system by posing as an authorized user?
Masquerades.
93
How many serial data interface ports does the Meridian Option 11C Small System Controller have?
3
94
What is the maximum number of ports that a Meridian System Logic-100 (MSL-100) supports?
30,000.
95
Which elements make up the control component of the SuperNode central control?
CM and system load module (SLM).
96
What link is used to connect the Digital Multiplex System (DMS)-core to the DMS-bus?
DS-512.
97
What Digital Multiplex System (DMS)-100 system contains subsystems for test routing, fault detection, fault analysis and error reporting?
Maintenance and administration position.
98
The primary reason you should measure the voltage across faulty terminal protectors before removing and replacing them is to
ensure dangerous voltages are not present on the line.
99
Where do incoming (unswitched) circuits transmitted to the ENET enter the NT9X35A cross-point card?
Vertical bus (V-bus).
100
Which Digital Multiplex System (DMS)-100 database facility is responsible for creating and maintaining tables of data in a controlled manner?
Table control.
101
Which Digital Multiplex System (DMS)-100 database facility provides facilities for storing data modifications orders (DMO) and for retrieving them at a specified time for execution?
Pending order file.
102
Which Digital Multiplex System (DMS)-100 database facility provides facilities for preserving data modifications orders (DMO) on tape or disk so that data tables can be restored if the system fails?
Journal file.
103
What names are given to the shifted R-Y and B-Y signals, respectively?
I (in-phase) and Q (quadrature).
104
Which digital broadcast system was adopted by the United States as the standard?
Advanced Television Systems Committee.
105
The GVG-110 video switcher effects key fills with
key bus video or an internally-generated color matte signal.
106
The total number of effects storage registers in the GVG-110 video switcher is
16.
107
What does the GVG-110 video switcher serial interface allow?
Remote control of all switcher functions by a personal computer.
108
Which basic circuit in the video distribution amplifier consists of two transistors that form the upper leg of a totem pole circuit?
Output driver.
109
In an Intrusion Detection System (IDS), what must a line of detection detect?
Walking, running, rolling, crawling or jumping through the line of detection.
110
In an Intrusion Detection System (IDS), what is the main purpose of a boundary fence?
To present a physical and psychological deterrent to unauthorized entry.
111
The basic configuration of the entry control facility includes a
gatehouse, personnel entry gate, inspection equipment and vehicle entrapment area.
112
Which interior intrusion detection system is designed to detect intruders attempting to enter a shelter, storage igloo or building?
AN/GSS-39.
113
What does the AN/GSS-39(V) system use to monitor the integrity of all sensor wiring to the control panel?
End-of-line module.
114
Which interior intrusion detection system (IIDS) sensor uses heat radiation to detect intruders?
Passive infrared.
115
How many selectable frequencies are obtainable with a SD80DC microwave sensor?
10.
116
What type of signal is sent to the fence protection system (FPS) signal processor when an alarm is detected?
Analog.
117
How many sensors does a taut-wire system in the Y taut-wire sensor (YTWS) configuration contain?
12.
118
How many vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS) sectors can be serviced per field distribution box (FDB)?
2.
119
What is the maximum length of the vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS)?
328 feet.
120
What is the maximum length of the Y taut-wire sensor (YTWS)?
200 feet.
121
What type alarm occurs if the sensor post
| cover in vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS) is removed?
Tamper.
122
What is the maximum detection distance in meters of an Infrared Pulsed Intrusion Detection System (IPIDS)?
80.
123
What is the secondary mode of detection for the microwave fence sensor?
Multipath reflection.
124
How is supervisory signaling information transferred in common channel signaling (CCS)?
Separate network channel.
