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Ufa Policies And Procedures > 450 SOPs & SOGs > Flashcards

450 SOPs & SOGs Flashcards

1
Q

What is the term for the emergency rapid evacuation of firefighters from the building or hazardous area leaving equipment in place unless needed for a safe evacuation.

A

Abandon

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2
Q

The entire structure has had a primary and secondary search complete on all divisions and no victims have been located or all victims are removed

A

All-clear

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3
Q

Within the same opening, heated gases escape at a high point while fresh air is drawn in below

A

Bi-directional flow

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4
Q

Term for when damage to the structure either through fire, water, or salvage operations has stopped

A

Loss Stop

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5
Q

Term for the level in a structure fire where below it air will be drawn into the structure and above it combustion gases will be exhausted. Only able to be identified after an opening is made.

A

Neutral Plane

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6
Q

Initial quick search of all divisions of a structure to ensure there are no obvious victims

A

Primary Search all clear

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7
Q

Water supply operation where one apparatus flows water through an intake to another apparatus

A

Dual Pumping

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8
Q

A water supply operation where one apparatus flows water to another apparatus through a discharge

A

Relay pumping

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9
Q

A short relay operation used to boost pressure in which the pumper taking water from the source pumps into the intake of the second pumper

A

Tandem pumping

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10
Q

Term for when the fire is no longer a threat of progressing. Does not mean that the fire has been extinguished. Implies that no additional resources will be required to extinguish the fire.

A

Under Control

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11
Q

Air entering at one opening and exiting from another - typically low to high.

A

Uni-directional flow

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12
Q

Operation of entering the structure on an unprotected search, isolate the compartment and conduct a rapid search in that compartment. After search of that compartment, crew members exit the structure.

A

Vent Enter Isolate Search (VEIS)

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13
Q

The removal of firefighters from the fire building or hazardous area, removing with them hose lines, tools, and other equipment.

A

Withdrawal

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14
Q

By which time each day must each station ensure the operations roster is accurate?

A

0900

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15
Q

Where should the red secondary passport be kept?

A

In the apparatus on the passenger side.

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16
Q

Where should the white primary passport be kept?

A

Carried with the officer in charge until given to the officer in charge or attached to the accountability board.

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17
Q

How many par tags should all personnel have?

A

4

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18
Q

At what benchmarks should PAR be initiated?

A

Change from offensive to defensive
Report of a mayday or RIT
Conclusion of RIT
When moving resources from one radio channel to another
Any significant incident: flashover, back draft, collapse, injury
When the IC of Safety officer feels the need

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19
Q

SLICERS stands for what incident priorities?

A

Size up
Locate the seat of the fire
Identify flow path
Cool from a protected position
Extinguish
Rescue
Salvage

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20
Q

Once the battalion chief has gathered SA and assumed command, where should the ICP be established?

A

The Battalion vehicle

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21
Q

When should the transfer of command from the initial arriving captain to the BC occur?

A

Once the BC has arrived in scene and conducted their own size up and 360 of the incident.

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22
Q

If immediate tactical engagement is required by the first due captain, what should happen with command?

A

It should be passed to the next officer arriving on scene and clearly communicated via the radio

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23
Q

What is the preferred method to transfer command?

A

Face-to-face

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24
Q

Where should the first arriving ladder company position when responding to a structure fire?

A

Position to best advantage as assigned by the IC

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25
Q

Where should the 2nd arriving engine initially position on a structure fire?

A

The most appropriate hydrant

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26
Q

From what direction should second and subsequent arriving engines and trucks consider approaching the incident?

A

From the opposite direction of the initial arriving engine and truck

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27
Q

Which apparatus should NOT hold short on a structure fire?

A

First arriving engine
First arriving truck
First due and subsequent command and staff officers
Second arriving engine (arrive on a hydrant)

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28
Q

What should be reported when arriving on an incident?

A

Company number, direction from the incident, number of personnel

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29
Q

Where should an ambulance position in regards to the heavy apparatus?

A

In front of the heavy apparatus

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30
Q

What is the term for a structure that has no occupants or any apparent use and is in a state of obvious disrepair or neglect?

A

Abandoned structure

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31
Q

What is the term for a structure that has an owner but no permanent occupants, although reasonable efforts are in place to preserve its value and/or condition

A

Vacant structure

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32
Q

Term for a structure that contains many hazards associated with types and phases of construction. Including but not limited to trip/fall hazards, open/unsecured utilities, unstable walls/floors/roofs, open shafts etc

A

Under-Construction

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33
Q

When fighting fires in which types of structures should the level of assumed risk be reduced due to the likely absence of occupants, safety of firefighters, and poor/unsafe condition of the structure?

A

Abandoned, vacant, and under-construction

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34
Q

What strategy should be declared for abandoned structures?

A

Defensive. With defined and enforced collapse zones.

An offensive strategy should only be used if a known, salvageable life situation exists and hazards can be mitigated to enhance firefighter safety

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35
Q

When should an offensive strategy be used for a fire in an under-construction building?

A

Only when a rapid-fire attack could stop spread or if a known, savable life exists.

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36
Q

When should an offensive strategy be used for a fire in a vacant building?

A

Only if a known, savable life situation exists and hazards can be mitigated to enhance firefighter safety.

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37
Q

In regards to CO, OSHA has determined that ___ ppm is the maximum permissible exposure limit in the workplace.

A

50

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38
Q

In regards to CO, NIOSH has recommended that ___ ppm is the maximum recommended exposure limit in the workplace

A

35

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39
Q

For what CO levels is the use of ppe/SCBA mandatory?

A

> 50 ppm

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40
Q

CO readings of ___ ppm around a an appliance indicates possible malfunction and recommendation should be made to shut down the appliance?

A

> 15 ppm

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41
Q

___ -___ ppm of CO may be normal background level in an unventilated house

A

0-9 ppm

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42
Q

What ppm level of CO should we evacuate occupants and advise not to occupy the structure until the source has been identified and repaired?

A

> 25ppm

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43
Q

What code word should be used when operations personnel find themselves as a victim of hostage, physically threatened, or similar?

A

Utah

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44
Q

Fire dispatch will notify what parties during a “code utah” activation?

A

Police dispatch, appropriate BC, VECC supervisor, others as necessary or requested.

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45
Q

What is the size of a large vs small hydrocarbon spill?

A

Large >50 gal
Small <50 gal

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46
Q

What is the initial isolation distance for a simple small hydrocarbon leak/spill

A

150 ft radius

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47
Q

What is the initial isolation distance for a tanker fire?

A

800 yards/ half a mile

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48
Q

What zone and channel is staging

A

Zone 1 channel 11

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49
Q

Who automatically becomes the Staging Area Manager?

A

First ENGINE company officer

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50
Q

In general, when should the order to abandon the structure be given?

A

Collapse/partial collapse is imminent or has just occurred, explosion hazard is noted, water supply is lost to interior attack crews, or any other reason deemed necessary to save lives.

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51
Q

What term shall be used to initiate the abandonment process through the IC or safety officer?

A

“Emergency Traffic” and state the need and reason for abandonment.

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52
Q

How does the IC or ISO initiate the abandonment procedure?

A

“Emergency traffic - all units at X command- abandon the building immediately”
Repeated 3 times

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53
Q

What does the main pumper do upon hearing the command to abandon the structure

A

3 air horn blasts lasting 3 seconds each

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54
Q

When would the operational retreat of Withdrawal be utilized?

A

Change in tactics
Fire conditions not improving
To account for personnel involved in freelancing

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55
Q

According to UFA SOG’s, what is the most effective ventilation tactic to remove products of combustion?

A

Vertical ventilation

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56
Q

According to UFA SOGs, what is the ratio of vent openings for mechanical ventilation?

A

The exhaust vent opening should be 2 times the size of the inlet. 2:1 ratio

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57
Q

According to UFA SOGs, who should dictate what ventilation tactic is needed?

A

The IC

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58
Q

According to UFA SOGs, what is the goal of ventilation?

A

Controlling the flow path

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59
Q

According to UFA SOGs, ladders should be kept how far away from power lines to prevent arcing?

A

10 ft

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60
Q

According to UFA SOGs, the tingly feeling in a firefighters feet indicates the potential of completing a circuit called _____.

A

Step potential

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61
Q

Vehicles shall be parked how far away from down lines?

A

One full span away from the power pole break

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62
Q

If a power pole is sheared or power lines are suspended, isolate the area at least _____ in both directions.

A

2 pole spans

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63
Q

What is the appropriate PPE for Powerline/electrical response?

A

Full turnout gear. SCBA is usually not necessary.

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64
Q

Fires burning in electrical transformers at ground level should be extinguished with ____.

A

A dry chemical (ABC) extinguisher

65
Q

For MVAs involving power lines, what should we direct occupants to do?

A

Remain inside the vehicle.

If they must exit the vehicle, instruct them to open the door, “not step out.” They should jump free of the vehicle without touching the vehicle and ground at the same time. Afterwards, walk away with very small steps.

66
Q

When should the gas company be notified of a need to respond when responding to a natural gas leak?

A

Immediately upon arrival if not already en route.

67
Q

According to UFA SOGs, how far away (upwind) should apparatus be positioned on a natural gas leak?

A

300ft

68
Q

According to UFA SOGs, if a natural gas leak has been ignited, what actions should be taken?

A

Avoid extinguishment until gas company has stopped the leak.

69
Q

According to UFA SOGs, what us the first step for a natural gas leak inside of a structure?

A

Determine if the leak is located before or after the meter.

70
Q

According to UFA SOGs, if a gas leak is beyond the meter, what should our procedure be?

A

Shut off the gas supply either at the meter or before the affected appliance.

71
Q

When should an initial arriving officer cancel Hazmat or Dominion Energy?

A

Trick question!
Do not cancel hazmat or Dominion. Provide information (no evidence of gas leak found, gas has been shut off, etc) and allow hazmat or dominion to modify their own responses.

72
Q

According to UFA SOGs, UFA ladders may be dispatched as what?

A

Both a ladder or an engine company

73
Q

According to UFA SOGs, if a ladder is first arriving and passing fire attack to the next due engine will create a delay, the ladder company should….

A

Initiate fire attack

74
Q

If a ladder will be used as the primary pumper, what should the IC confirm prior to arrival with in regards to the balance of structure assignment?

A

That another ladder company is responding

75
Q

What should be considered when positioning the ladder at a structure fire?

A

Current and expected operational needs

76
Q

According to UFA SOGs, on a structure fire, when are personnel expected to don their PPE

A

Prior to response

77
Q

According to UFA SOGs, what are the operational modes that may be declared at a structure fire?

A

Investigation
Offensive exterior/interior
Defensive

78
Q

According to UFA SOGs, RECEO-VS is used to consider

A

Ongoing incident considerations

Rescue
Exposures
Confine
Extinguish
Overhaul
Ventilation
Salvage

79
Q

According to UFA SOGs, what are the incident benchmarks at a structure fire?

A

Primary and secondary searches complete - “all clear”
Fire under control
Loss stopped

80
Q

According to UFA SOGs, what is the minimum fire attack line to be used for an MVA

A

1.5”

81
Q

According to UFA SOGs, what is the PPE required for an MVA fire.

A

Full turnout gear including an SCBA

82
Q

Vehicle fires in a parking structure should be modified to ___.

A

Structure fire response

83
Q

In a motor vehicle fire, energy absorbing bumpers may explode and travel ___ ft.

A

25

84
Q

What battery cable should be cut first following extinguishment of a motor vehicle fire?

A

Ground cable

85
Q

According to UFA SOGs, electric vehicles present a high electrocution hazard in the area of ___ volts

A

600

86
Q

According to UFA SOGs, electric vehicles require continuous water application to the batteries for up to ___ minutes

A

30

87
Q

When responding on a canyon or backcountry response, a ____ command should be set up if it will involve other agencies

A

Unified command

88
Q

According to UFA SOGs, when sending a “hasty team” on a backcountry response, where should the captain be?

A

The captain should be part of the hasty team.

89
Q

According to UFA SOGs, coordination for activating Search and Rescue (for backcountry response) should be handled through ___.

A

UPD

90
Q

According to UFA SOGs, on a fire alarm response, what tools are appropriate prior to making entry?

A

TIC and water can

91
Q

When can an officer choose to cancel when responding to a fire alarm?

A

When an ON SITE RP confirms a false alarm.

92
Q

When responding on a fire alarm, if safe the elevator may be used to respond to which floor?

A

The floor below the alarm indication found on the panel

93
Q

According to UFA SOGs, when can an alarm system be reset?

A

The pull station has been reset and confirmed false activation
An RP is on scene
If the RP has an extended eta and dispatch/alarm monitoring company are informed that the system has been reset.

94
Q

According to UFA SOGs, where should salvage efforts begin?

A

The area most severely threatened by damage

95
Q

According to UFA SOGs, what value should be considered when performing salvage?

A

Personal value and monetary cost

96
Q

When should an AAR occur?

A

As soon as possible following the incident

97
Q

According to UFA SOGs, who should facilitate an AAR?

A

The officer in charge or another lead crew member

98
Q

Ventilation is a ____ driven event.

A

Pressure

99
Q

For VEIS operations, the ladder shall be placed ____.

A

Right below the window sill

100
Q

According to UFA SOGs, during VEIS if a victim is located on the way to the door, what should happen?

A

Make note and continue to the door. Close the door to isolate the room for victim removal.

101
Q

According to UFA SOGS, during VEIS the “point person” (at the window) shall maintain contact utilizing what?

A

Voice and TIC

102
Q

According to UFA SOGs, anything ___ft or deeper shall be defined as a trench

A

4 ft

103
Q

According to UFA SOGs, during trench operations, apparatus shall remain at least __ft from the trench failure

A

50 ft

104
Q

According to UFA SOGs, during trench operations, staging shall be at least ___ ft from the trench failure

A

150 ft

105
Q

According to UFA SOGs, during trench operations, a hazard zone perimeter of ___ ft shall be established from the collapse area

A

50 ft

106
Q

According to UFA SOGs, during trench operations, all non-essential civilian personnel should be kept at least ___ ft away

A

150 ft

107
Q

According to UFA SOGs, during trench operations all non-essential traffic and heavy equipment shall be rerouted at least ___ ft from the collapse

A

300 ft

108
Q

What is the first step following an earthquake of any magnitude?

A

Open bay doors and remove personnel and apparatus

109
Q

According to UFA SOGs, for earthquakes of magnitude ___ or greater, a “UFA windshield assessment” shall be conducted.

A

6.0

110
Q

For the “windshield survey” each company shall drive major district routes to make damage assessments
What is of highest priority?

A

Largest threat of life structures. Hospitals, nursing homes, apartments, schools.

111
Q

What is of second most priority during an earthquake windshield survey?

A

Threats to public safety. Train tracks, chemical storage and other hazmat

112
Q

What ranks 3rd in priority for an earthquake windshield survey?

A

Critical infrastructure. Roads, bridges, water treatment, power plants.

113
Q

What ranks lowest in priority for an earthquake windshield survey.

A

Individual neighborhoods

114
Q

According to UFA SOGs, overhaul begins when?

A

Once “fire under control” has been established

115
Q

Overhaul should begin where?

A

Nearest the area of origin

116
Q

According to UFA SOGs, overhaul will continue until ___.

A

Loss stopped is determined by the officer in charge of overhaul.

117
Q

What should be considered if a standpipe FDC is damaged or out of service?

A

Establishing a connection interior on Division 1

118
Q

At the discretion of ___, the water supply can be established prior to connecting a second line to supply the sandpipe

A

Pump operator

119
Q

Go read all of the definitions under Rescue Task Force policy 450-31

A

Its a lot…

120
Q

What is a combination of Fire/EMS and LE Force Protection personnel deployed to identify, quickly stabilize, and extract critically injured from the warm zone called?

A

Rescue Task Force (RTF)

121
Q

In an active shooter situation, who coordinates with the Unified Command Post on security elements and resources for the formation of RTF’s?

A

Rescue Group Supervisor (RGS)

122
Q

At an active shooter incident, who shall initially be in command?

A

Law Enforcement

123
Q

When dispatched to an active shooter incident, where should all units initially respond?

A

Staging. The first arriving unit will then establish command and make assignments

124
Q

What is the first alarm assignment for an active shooter?

A

2 battalion chiefs
4 ALS heavy apparatus
6 ALS/BLS ambulances (a min of 3 RTF response units)
Other specialty units/personnel

125
Q

If it is determined that this is a single active shooter, where should the first arriving heavy apparatus respond?

A

Directly to the scene with close coordination with law enforcement

126
Q

What does the remainder of the initial arriving crew do on an active shooter call while the captain gathers information?

A

Set up Medical Group: Triage, Treatment, Transport, Transfer

127
Q

On an elevator rescue, if the elevator is equipped with a Phase I service, what should be your first action?

A

Attempt to recall the elevator

128
Q

What should we instruct occupants to do during an elevator rescue?

A

“Sit on the floor with their back against the wall of the elevator”
“Stay away from the doors”
“Activate the car’s STOP switch”

129
Q

What is the first step in an elevator rescue once determining that the car cannot be recalled?

A

Send a crew member to the mechanical room and shut down power to the effected elevators

130
Q

What is the role of the first arriving engine at a commercial fire with fire conditions visible?

A

Fire Attack/FDC Connection

Also, secure a water supply

131
Q

What size attack lines should you expect to use on a commercial fire response?

A

2.5”

132
Q

What is command’s response to “Mayday, Mayday, Mayday”

A

“Command copies a Mayday…emergency traffic…repeat…emergency traffic…go ahead mayday”

133
Q

What shall command request upon a confirmed Mayday?

A

An additional full alarm assignment

134
Q

What is the maximum length recommended if using 3” as a supply line?

A

300ft

135
Q

On a swift water response, where should you start when identifying victims, location, hazards, and access cooridors?

A

Point Last Seen

136
Q

The Warm Zone for a water/Swiftwater response is anywhere within ___ ft of any static or moving water

A

10ft

137
Q

What is required PPE for anyone in the warm zone of a water response?

A

Helmet, PFD, throw bag

138
Q

When should the submersion time “clock” be started if the actual time is unknown?

A

Arrival time of the first unit

139
Q

What is the order of option for a water/swiftwater rescue attempt?

A

Talk, Reach, Throw, Row, Tow, Go, HELO

140
Q

If driving a UFA vehicle through water is unavoidable, a spotter shall walk at a minimum of ____ ft in front of the vehicle with a probing device.

A

10ft

141
Q

Speed shall not exceed ___mph when driving through standing water of unknown depth

A

5mph

142
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring all officers or acting company officers direct personnel to follow decontamination procedures?

A

IC

143
Q

When should the IC designate a decontamination sector?

A

After the “loss stopped” benchmark, or after all needed fireground functions are assigned

144
Q

Dry and then wet decon, as appropriate to the contaminants and the situation, should initially be done at the scene and before ______

A

removal of PPE, especially SCBA

145
Q

What is recommended be done with heavily soiled PPE in regards to decontamination?

A

Bagged at the scene and logistics be notified for pickup and redistribution of clean PPE.

146
Q

All personnel exposed to the products of combustion should be reminded to switch into clean ____ and ____

A

Hood and gloves

147
Q

Ideally, a shower and clean uniform should happen within ___ after a fire

A

1 hour

148
Q

How old must a rider be in order to participate in UFA’s ride along program?

A

18 years old

149
Q

What is the appropriate uniform for personnel from other agencies to wear when participating in a ride along?

A

The uniform of their department

150
Q

What are the hours for ride along shifts?

A

1000-1800

10am-6pm

151
Q

In regards to Field Fires and Wildland Urban Interface Fires, we should ensure that all resources adhere to the ___ fire orders and ___ watch out situations

A

10, 18

152
Q

On a Field Fire and Wildland Urban Interface Fire, the IC can order what resources through VECC?

A

Type 1 engines, Type 6 engines, Water Tenders, BCs, and ambulances

153
Q

Who can order wildland resources such as UFA wildland Division crews, type 3 or 4 engines, helicopters and air tankers through NUIFC?

A

The Operations chief, Wildland Division Chief, or Wildland Duty Officer

154
Q

What are the incident benchmarks of a Wildfire?

A

Contained, Controlled, Fire Out

155
Q

Who assigns the VHF frequency plan upon initial attack dispatch?

A

NUIFC

156
Q

What are the dates during a typical year, when UFA apparatus should be stocked with a wildland pack for each position?

A

May 15th-October 15th

157
Q

How many progressive hoselay packs should various apparatus carry?

A

Type 3 & 6: 4
Type 1: 2
Ladders: 0 unless response are dictates otherwise

158
Q

How many wildland chainsaws should be carried by type 3 and type 6 engines?

A

1

159
Q
A

Ufa Policies And Procedures (9 decks)

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