(5) GI & Endo: Thyroid etc (3.1-3.4) Flashcards

(62 cards)

1
Q

What cell type is responsible for iodine uptake and thyroid hormone production?

A

What cell type is responsible for iodine uptake and thyroid hormone production?

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2
Q

How is iodide transported into the thyroid follicular cell?

A

Na+/I- symporter

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3
Q

Where is thyroglobulin found?

A

Thyroid follicu-LAIR lumen

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4
Q

Name 3 functions of thyroid peroxidase

A

(1) Oxidation of I- → I2
(2) Organification of thyroglobulin
(3) Coupling of iodinated tyrosine residues

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5
Q

In what compartment is thyroid hormone cleaved off of thyroglobulin?

A

Follicular cell’s cytoplasm

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6
Q

Is T3 or T4 more potent?

A

T3

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7
Q

What enzyme converts T4 to T3 in the peripheral tissues?

A

5’ deiodinase

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8
Q

Broadly, what can we attribute the symptoms of hyperthyroidism to?

A

↑ β-adrenergic receptors

(⇒ Hypermetabolic and hyperadrenergic state)

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9
Q

Which thyroid disorder causes exophthalmos?

A

Graves disease

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10
Q

Adverse Effects (3) : I131 ablation therapy

A

(1) Hypothyroidism
(2) Exacerbation of hyperthyroidism
(3) Exacerbation of Graves ophthalmopathy
* (Exacerbation of ophthalmopathy MOA: Rapid reduction in thyroid hormone ⇒ ↑ TSH ⇒ Binds pre-adipocytic fibroblasts ⇒ ↑ Glycosaminoglycan and adipose deposition)*

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11
Q

MOA: Propylthiouracil

A

(1) Inhibits TPO
(2) Inhibits 5’ deiodinase

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12
Q

MOA: Methimazole

A

Inhibits TPO

(TPO: thyroid peroxidase enzyme; involved in iodide oxidation & organification)

(Methimazole is 10x more potent than Propylthiouracil and is usually the DOC. The exception is in FIRST trimester of pregnancy)

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13
Q

MOA: β-blockers (in treating hyperthyroidism)

A

(1) β-blocker
(2) Inhibit 5’ deiodinase

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14
Q

MOA: Glucocorticoids (in treating hyperthyroidism)

A

Inhibits 5’ deiodinase

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15
Q

Which pharmacologic treatment of hyperthyroidism is particularly effective against Graves’s ophthalmopathy?

A

Glucocorticoids

(Glucocorticoids induce lymphocyte apoptosis and ∵ ↓ production of autoantibodies ⇒ ↓ Fibroblast proliferation ⇒ ↓ Ophthalmopathy)

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16
Q

Treatment: Thyroid storm

A

(1) β-blockers
(2) Methimazole
(3) Glucocorticoids
* (Methimazole preferred over PTU∵ of increased efficacy)*

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17
Q

Adverse Effects (3) : Propylthiouracil (unique from methimazole)

A

(1) Hepatotoxicity
(2) Maculopapular rash
(3) ANCA-associated vasculitis

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18
Q

Name 3 adverse effect that Propylthiouracil and Methimazole share

A

(1) Agranulocytosis
(2) Aplastic anemia
(3) Drug-induced lupus

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19
Q

Treatment: Hypothyroidism (in a first-trimester pregnant woman)

A

Propylthiouracil

(Methimazole is contraindicated in the first trimester due to teratogenicity, whereas PTU is contraindicated in second and third trimester due to risk of hepatotoxicity)

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20
Q

Name a T4 analog

A

Levothyroxine

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21
Q

Treatment: Radioactive iodine exposure

A

Anions

(Such as perchlorate, pertechnetate, and thiocyanate which inhibit the Na+/I- symporter)

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22
Q

Suffix: Biphosphonates

A

“-dronate”

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23
Q

Biphosphonates have a chemical structure similiar to what molecule?

A

Pyrophosphate

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24
Q

Name 3 ways biphosphonates affect osteoclasts

A

(1) Inhibit bone adherence
(2) Inhibit recruitment/development
(3) Induce apoptosis

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25
Other than osteoporosis, what can biphosphonates be used to treat?
(1) Hypercalcemia (2) Paget's Disease * (_Note_: Calcitonin has similar indications, but is the second line)*
26
**Adverse Effects** (3) : Biphosphonates
(1) Corrosive esophagitis (2) Osteonecrosis of jaw (3) Hypocalcemia
27
What is the mechanism of estrogen therapy in the treatment of osteoporosis?
Inhibit osteoclast **_precursor_** development
28
What drug is an estrogen agonist in bone but antagonist in the breast and uterus?
Raloxifene
29
How does parathyroid hormone stimulate osteoclasts?
↑ RANKL on Osteo**_b_**lasts *(⇒ Osteoclast activation)*
30
**MOA**: Denosumab
anti-RANKL antibody
31
Does calcitonin bind receptors on osteoclasts or osteoblasts?
Osteo**_c_**lasts
32
How does Calcitonin reduce serum calcium?
(1) Inhibits osteoclasts (2) ↓ Renal Ca2+ reabsorption
33
Name two hormones which upregulate RANKL
(1) PTH (2) Calcitriol
34
Name two mechanisms of negative feedback on PTH
(1) ↑ Ca2+ (2) ↑ Calcitriol * (A rare instance where ↑ intracellular Ca2+ inhibits exocytosis)*
35
What effect does the RANK-RANKL interaction have on osteoclasts?
(1) Differentiation (2) Activation * (RANKL is upregulated by PTH, whereas osteoprotegrin is upregulated by Calcitriol)*
36
What effect does PTH have on osteoblasts?
**Maturation** of pre-OB → OB *(The net effect of PTH is bone resorption. Vit. D also stimulates OB maturation)*
37
What effect does PTH have on renal electrolyte handling?
(1) ↑ Ca2+ reabsorption (2) ↑ PO42- excretion
38
Name 3 ways PTH elevates serum [Ca2+]
(1) Activates osteoclasts (2) ↑ Renal Ca2+ reabsorption (3) Activates Vitamin D
39
**MOA:** Teriparatide
PTH analog
40
Identify an important physiologic distinction between Teriparatide and endogenous PTH
(1) _Teriparatide_: Net bone formation (2) _Parathormone_: Net bone resorption * (Pulsatile Teriparatide ⇒ bone formation. Constant dosing would likely instead lead to bone resorption)*
41
Indication: Teriparatide
Osteoporosis
42
What are the source(s) of Vitamin D3?
(1) Dairy products (2) UVB radiation * (Vit. D3 = Cholecalciferol. The 3 of Vit. D3 to remember Cholecalciferol starts with the third letter of alphabet)*
43
What are the source(s) of Vitamin D2?
Plants
44
Describe how dietary Vitamin D is converted into the active form
(1) **25**-hydroxylated in the **liver** (2) **1**-hydroxylated in the **kidney** * (∴ Calcitriol would be indicated over Vit. D2/D3 in the setting of renal/liver disease)*
45
What effect does Calcitriol have on renal electrolyte handling?
(1) ↑ Ca2+ reabsorption (2) ↑ PO42- reabsorption
46
What effect does Calcitriol have on GI electrolyte handling?
(1) ↑ Ca2+ reabsorption (2) ↑ PO42- reabsorption
47
**Indication**: Topical Vit. D
Psoriasis *(Vit. D plays an important role in T-cell homing to skin ∴ topical Vit. D exerts immunomodulatory effects)*
48
Name 2 endocrine etiologies of hypocalcemia treated with Calcitriol
(1) Hypothyroidism (2) Hypoparathyroidism
49
**MOA**: Cinacalcet
Activates CaSR in parathyroid gland * (CaSR = calcium-sensing receptor)* * (⇒ reduced secretion of PTH and ∴ is helpful against renal osteodystrophy secondary to CKD)*
50
**Indication**: Cinacalcet
Hyperparathyroidism
51
**MOA**: Sevelamer
Reduces absorption of PO42- in GI tract *(It is a non-absorbable oral formulation)*
52
**Indication**: Sevelamer
Hyperphosphatemia *(Secondary to chronic kidney disease)*
53
**Suffix**: Glucocorticoids
"-sone"
54
Where is the glucocorticoid receptor found?
Cytoplasm
55
What inflammatory enzyme do glucocorticoids inhibit?
Phospholipase A2 *(By upregulating Lipocortin = Annexin)*
56
What transcription factor do glucocorticoids inhibit?
NF-κB *(∴ Inhibiting production of inflammatory cytokines and activation of B and T cells)*
57
How do glucocorticoids prevent leukocyte migration?
Inhibit adhesion molecules *(∴ Also increase WBC count ∵ fewer WBCs are attached to endothelium and more are freely floating in blood)*
58
What cell type are glucocorticoids most effective at inducing apoptosis in?
TH *(Induce apoptosis of B-cells, T-cells, and eosinophils)*
59
Name 5 metabolic effects of glucocorticoids
(1) Insulin resistance (2) ↑ Gluconeogenesis (3) ↑ Glycogenesis (4) ↑ Proteolysis (5) ↑ Lipolysis
60
Name 4 physical symptoms of Cushing's syndrome
(1) Moon facies (2) Central adipose tissue (3) Muscle wasting (4) Skin thinning
61
What CNS effects can glucocorticoids cause?
Psychosis
62
What electrolyte abnormality can glucocorticoids cause?
Hypokalemia *(Due to mineralocorticoid effects)*