(6) Neuro & Psych: Antipsych/Parkinsons (5.1-5.3) Flashcards

(46 cards)

1
Q

Suffix: First-generation antipsychotics

A

“-azine”

(Don’t confuse the “-zine” of H1 receptor blockers with the “-azine” of typical antipsychotics)

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2
Q

Name a first-generation antipsychotic without the suffix “-zine”

A

Haloperidol

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3
Q

MOA: First-generation antipsychotics

A

Inhibit central D2 receptors

(Its primary mechanism of action)

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4
Q

What are the high potency first-generation antipsychotics?

A

(1) Trifluoperazine/Fluphenazine
(2) Haloperidol

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5
Q

What are the low potency first-generation antipsychotics?

A

(1) Thioridazine
(2) Chlorpromazine

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6
Q

Indications (4) : First-generation antipsychotics

A

(1) Schizophrenia
(2) Acute psychosis
(3) Acute aggression/agitation
(4) Tourette’s syndrome

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7
Q

Do first-generation antipsychotics have a short or long half-life?

A

Long

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8
Q

Other than D2 receptors, what receptors do first-generation antipsychotics inhibit?

A

(1) Muscarinic receptors
(2) α1 receptors
(3) H1 receptors
* (Note: this occurs predominantly in the LOW potency first-generation antipsychotics)*

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9
Q

What type of side effects are more common in first-generation antipsychotics compared to second generation?

A

Extra pyramidal symptoms

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10
Q

What type of extrapyramidal symptoms can occur within minutes of starting a high potency first-generation antipsychotics?

A

Acute dystonia

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11
Q

What type of extrapyramidal symptoms can occur within days of starting a high potency first-generation antipsychotics?

A

Akathisia

(movement disorder characterized by a subjective feeling of inner restlessness accompanied by mental distress and an inability to sit still)

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12
Q

What type of extrapyramidal symptoms can occur within weeks of starting a high potency first-generation antipsychotics?

A

(1) Drug-induced Parkinson
(2) Tardive dyskinesia

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13
Q

Name 2 endocrine abnormalities that can occur secondary to high potency first-generation antipsychotic use

A

(1) ↓ Dopamine ⇒ ↑ Prolactin
(2) ↑ Prolactin ⇒ ↓ GnRH

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14
Q

Adverse Effects - Non-endocrine (3) : Typical antipsychotics

A

(1) Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
(2) Torsades de pointes
(3) Seizures

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15
Q

What are the symptoms of neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

A

(1) Lead-pipe rigidity
(2) Autonomic instability
(3) Rhabdomyolysis

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16
Q

What is the distinctive side effect of Thioridazine?

A

Retinal deposits

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17
Q

What is the distinctive side effect of Chlorpromazine?

A

Yellow corneal deposits

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18
Q

Do first-generation antipsychotics better treat positive or negative symptoms of schizophrenia?

A

Positive symptoms of schizophrenia

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19
Q

Name 6 atypical antipsychotics

A

(1) Quetiapine
(2) Olanzapine
(3) Risperidone
(4) Aripiprazole
(5) Ziprasidone
(6) Clozapine

20
Q

MOA: Atypical antipsychotics

A

(1) Central D2-receptor antagonist
(2) 5-HT2A receptor antagonist

21
Q

Do atypical psychotics treat the positive or negative symptoms of schizophrenia?

22
Q

Indications (3) : Atypical antipsychotics

A

(1) Schizophrenia
(2) Resistant depression
(3) OCD (with SSRI)

23
Q

Which atypical antipsychotic has been used to treat Tourettes?

24
Q

Other than D2 and 5-HT2A receptors, what receptors do atypical antipsychotics block?

A

(1) H1 receptors
(2) α1 receptors
(3) Muscarinic

25
Which atypical antipsychotic most strongly blocks muscarinic receptors?
Clozapine
26
What side effects distinguish atypical antipsychotics from first-generation?
(1) Weight gain (2) Dyslipidemia (3) Hyperglycemia * (These occur in Second Generation, not first generation)*
27
What are the potential adverse effects most associated with Clozapine?
(1) Agranulocytosis (2) Myocarditis/cardiomyopathy (3) Seizures
28
Which atypical antipsychotic is most associated with extrapyramidal side effects?
Risperidone
29
Are atypical antipsychotics associated with neuroleptic malignant syndrome?
Yes *(Although less than first generation)*
30
What adverse cardiac effect is associated with atypical antipsychotics?
Torsades de pointes
31
What is the immediate precursor to dopamine?
L-DOPA (*Which is able to cross the BBB)*
32
**Adverse Effects** - Acute therapy (4) : L-DOPA
**_Due to increased PERIPHERAL Dopamine:_** * (1) GI distress * (2) Cardiac arrhythmia * (3) Orthostatic hypotension **_Due to increased CENTRAL Dopamine:_** (4) Neuropsychiatric symptoms * (↑ Dopamine in chemotrigger zone outside BBB ⇒ Nausea. Antipsychotics can be used to treat CNS symptoms)*
33
**Adverse Effects** - Chronic therapy (2) : L-DOPA
(1) Response fluctuations (Wearing-off effect) (2) Dyskinesias (i.e., choreoathetosis)
34
**Contraindication**: L-DOPA
Psychosis
35
**MOA**: Carbidopa
Peripheral DOPA decarboxylase inhibitor *(⇒ ↓ Peripheral adverse effects + ↑ Bioavailability)*
36
What drug can be used to alleviate the peripheral side effects of L-DOPA?
Carbidopa
37
Name 3 enzymes which metabolize peripheral L-DOPA
(1) DOPA decarboxylase (2) COMT (3) MAO
38
**Suffix**: COMT inhibitor
"-capone"
39
What's the difference between Tolcapone and Entacapone?
Entacapone is NOT active in CNS *(Notice Tall Al Capone is in the vault ∴ can cross BBB)*
40
Which Parkinson's drug is associated with liver failure?
Tolcapone *(∴ Entacapone is usually preferred)*
41
**MOA**: Ropinirole
D2 receptor agonist
42
**MOA**: Pramipexole
D3 receptor agonist
43
**Indications** - Non-endocrine (2) : Dopamine receptor agonists
(1) Parkinsons (2) Restless leg syndrome * (Usually, initial therapy for Parkinson's, as they are less likely to produce an on-off effect)*
44
What drug can exacerbate impulse control disorders?
Ropinirole *("Just think 'rock and roll' Ropinirole!")*
45
**MOA**: Amantadine (in treating Parkinson's)
(1) ↑ Endogenous release (2) Inhibiting reuptake * (Very similar to amphetamines, it even sounds similar)*
46
Which symptom of Parkinson's is NOT treated by centrally acting antimuscarinics?
Bradykinesia