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COMP EXAM 2022 > 560C VITAMINS & MINERALS > Flashcards

560C VITAMINS & MINERALS Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the carotenoid pigments has the greatest vitamin A activity?

a. delta-carotene
b. beta-carotene
c. alpha-carotene
d. gamma-carotene

A

b. beta carotene

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2
Q

In what cells will you find most of the retinol and vitamin A stored?

a. stellate
b. antrum
c. fundus
d. gallbladder

A

a. stellate

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3
Q

Formation of retinol from beta-carotene requires the presence of what B vitamin?

a. ascorbic acid
b. folic acid
c. pyridoxal phosphate
d. niacin

A

d. niacin

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4
Q

Which vitamin directs cellular differentiation of epithelial cells?

a. vitamin E
b. riboflavin
c. vitamin K
d. vitamin A

A

vitamin A

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5
Q

Which vitamin is said to be essential for reproductive processes and immune system function?

a. D
b. A
c. K
d. E

A

A

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6
Q

Which is the strongest antioxidant?

a. alpha-tocopherol
b. beta-cryptoxanthin
c. beta-carotene
d. lycopene

A

d. lycopene

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7
Q

Which micromineral deficiency interferes with vitamin A metabolism by reducing retinol binding protein?

a. zinc
b. selenium
c. iron
d. manganese

A

a. zinc

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8
Q

Which vitamin is believed to function like a steroid hormone?

a. choline
b. vitamin A
c. vitamin D
d. vitamin E

A

Vitamin D

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9
Q

Which vitamin has as its primary function the maintenance of calcium homeostasis?

a. A
b. K
c. D
d. E

A

C. D

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10
Q

What vitamin is associated with diminished proliferation and enhanced differentiation of cells, which serves as a basis for its use as treatment of skin diseases such as psoriasis?

a. D
b. K
c. A
d. E

A

A. D

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11
Q

A deficiency of which vitamin is commonly associated with rickets?

a. D
b. K
c. A
d. E

A

D

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12
Q

Toxicity of which vitamin is related to increased deposition of calcium in soft tissues?

a. D
b. biotin
c. E
d. lipoic acid

A

D

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13
Q

Which tocopherol form provides the most vitamin E activity in the U.S. food supply?

a. alpha
b. delta
c. beta
d. gamma

A

alpha

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14
Q

Which fat-soluble vitamin has as its principal function the maintenance of membrane integrity?

a. vitamin D
b. vitamin E
c. vitamin K
d. vitamin A

A

vitamin E

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15
Q

In what type of tissue is the largest amount of vitamin E stored?

a. heart
b. brain
c. lung
d. adipose

A

adipose

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16
Q

Formation of retinol from beta-carotene requires the presence of what B vitamin?

a. ascorbic acid
b. folic acid
c. pyridoxal phosphate
d. niacin

A

d. niacin

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17
Q

Which vitamin directs cellular differentiation of epithelial cells?

a. vitamin E
b. riboflavin
c. vitamin K
d. vitamin A

A

d. vitamin A

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18
Q

Which is the strongest antioxidant?

a. alpha-tocopherol
b. beta-cryptoxanthin
c. beta-carotene
d. lycopene

A

d. lycopene

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19
Q

Which micromineral deficiency interferes with vitamin A metabolism by reducing retinol binding protein?

a. zinc
b. selenium
c. iron
d. manganese

A

a. zinc

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20
Q

Which compound is associated with less oxidized LDL and less risk of development of foam cells and atherosclerotic lesions?

a. alpha -tocopherol
b. hydroquinone
c. calcidiol
d. Vitamin D

A

alpha-tocopherol

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21
Q

Which vitamin is associated with improved plasma membrane structure and glucose transport/metabolic control in people with type 2 diabetes?

a. A
b. D
c. E
d. K

A

E

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22
Q

For which vitamin is the tolerable upper intake level set because of increased tendency for bleeding?

a. A
b. E
c. K
d. D

A

E

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23
Q

Which of the fat-soluble vitamins is consumed in the form of phylloquinone from plant foods?

a. E
b. K
c. A
d. D

A

K

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24
Q

Which fat-soluble vitamin appears to operate as a coenzyme that modifies proteins to bind with calcium?

a. ß-carotene
b. A
c. K
d. E

A

K

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25
Q

Vitamin K deficiency is most often observed in:

a. children
b. newborns
c. old people
d. adolescents

A

Newborns

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26
Q

Vitamin K deficiency in adults is most likely due to:

a. high-fiber diet
b. antibiotic therapy
c. oxalic acid in food
d. achlorhydria

A

B

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27
Q

For which vitamin is a severe deficiency associated with an increased tendency for bleeding?

a. E
b. A
c. K
d. D

A

C. K

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28
Q

Which is not a function of vitamin A.?

a. vision
b. cellular energy
c. bone development
d. reproduction

A

B. Cellular energy

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29
Q

Vitamin A is needed for T-lymphocyte function and for antibody response to viral, parasitic and bacterial infection?

a. True
b. False

A

T

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30
Q

Carotenoids like Lutein and Zeaxanthin are found in the macula and can induce oxidation of cell membranes and can exacerbate UV-induced eye damage?

a. True
b. False

A

F

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31
Q

Excess Vitamin A interferes with Vitamin K absorption?

a. True
b. False

A

T

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32
Q

Vitamin A deficiency is associated with decreased iron incorporation into RBC’s, and supplementation with it in turn corrects the anemia?

a. True
b. False

A

T

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33
Q

Nuclear receptors for Vitamin D are only found on bone despite claims that they are found in over 30 organs such as intestine, skin, lung, muscle, and kidney?

a. True
b. False

A

F

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34
Q

RANKL is located on the osteoclast?

a. True
b. False

A

F

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35
Q

In adults Vitamin D deficiency results in rickets?

a. True
b. False

A

F

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36
Q

Vitamin D is conditionally essential in the elderly, alcoholics, and for people living in the north-east?

a. True
b. False

A

T

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37
Q

Olive oil is high in Alpha-Tocopherol?

a. True
b. False

A

T

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38
Q

If a patient is a smoker, exercises, and takes PUFA’s, it would be a good idea for this individual to supplement with _____ to avoid lipid peroxidation?

a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin K
c. Vitamin D
d. Vitamin E

A

D vitamin e

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39
Q

Bacteria in the colon, provide a source of ______ for humans.

a. menaquinones
b. phylloquinone
c. calcitriol
d. lycopene

A

menaquinones

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40
Q

To clot, fibrinogen must be converted to its active form of fibrin by?

a. vitamin E
b. vitamin K and calcium
c. vitamin K
d. vitamin D

A

B. vitamin K and calcium

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41
Q

All of the following can be involved with osteoporosis except for?

a. Vitamin K
b. Vitamin D
c. Vitamin A
d. Vitamin E

A

Vitamin E

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42
Q

Where is the primary site for conversion of pro-vitamin A to vitamin A in the human body?

a. Adipose cell
b. chylomicron
c. liver
d. intestinal lumen
e. intestinal mucosal cell

A

intestinal mucosal cell

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43
Q

Calcitriol can be defined as

a. a fully activated form of vitamin D
b. synthetic vitamin D2 available commercially
c. vitamin D3 produced in the skin
d. the most abundant form of vitamin D in the blood
e. a precursor to pre-vitamin D3

A

A fully activated form of vitamin D

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44
Q

Which of the following foods are high in vitamin D because they are typically fortified?

a. milk
b. orange juice
c. cheese
d. fish
e. butter

A

milk

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45
Q

How many vitamers of vitamin E are there?

a. 2 vitamers, D and L
b. 4 vitamers, alpha, beta, delta, gamma
c. 8 vitamers, including tocopherols and tocotrienols
d. 12 vitamers, including acetate and succinate esters
e. 1 vitamer

A

8 vitamers, including tocopherols and tocotrienols

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46
Q

Which TWO of the following depend upon vitamin K for their production?

a. prostaglandin F2-alpha
b. calcitonin
c. matrix Gla protein
d. osteocalcin
e. 7-dehydrocholesterol

A

matrix Gla protein & osteocalcin

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47
Q

Which of the following blood disorders is associated with vitamin K deficiency?

a. macrocytic anemia
b. hemolytic anemia
c. venous thrombosis
d. hemorrhagic disease
e. microcytic anemia

A

hemorrhagic disease

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48
Q

___________________occurs with vitamin A deficiency and is characterized by abnormalities of the conjunctiva and cornea of the eye.

a. Hypocarotenosis
b. Myopia
c. Night blindness
d. Xerophthalmia
e. Transcaltachia

A

D. Xerophthalmia

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49
Q

The naturally occurring form of vitamin K which is thought to provide the majority of vitamin K in the U.S. diet is __________________ found in plant foods.

a. Menadione
b. Decaquinones
c. Menaquinone
d. Phylloquinone
e. Hydroquinones

A

D. Phylloquinone

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50
Q

The vitamin K-dependent factors required for the normal coagulation of blood are:

a. Factors V, X
b. Factors V, VIII
c. Factors II (prothrombin), VII, IX, and X
d. Factors V, VII, IX, and X
e. Factors V, VIII, IX

A

C. Factors II (prothrombin), VII, IX, and X

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51
Q

Two anticoagulant drugs that antagonize the action of vitamin K are:

a. Coumarin and Vioxx
b. Coumarin and warfarin
c. Coumarin and Actonel
d. Warfarin and Actonel
e. Warfarin and Vioxx

A

B. Coumarin and warfarin

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52
Q

Excess amounts of Vitamins __ has been associated with birth defects as a drug knows as Accutane(for acne treatment) caused (which is a modified form of this vitamin).

a. vitamin E
b. vitamin A
c. vitamin K
d. vitamin D

A

B. vitamin A

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53
Q

Choose the food that is high in vitamin A palmitate

a. pumpkin
b. spinach
c. carrots
d. liver

A

D. Liver

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54
Q

The majority of vitamin A is stored in the liver, while carotenoids are stored mainly in the _____ tissue.

a. adipose
b. eye
c. muscle
d. skin

A

A. Adipose

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55
Q

Which of the following is needed for the visual cycle?

a. 11-cis retinal
b. 9-cis retinoic acid
c. cryptoxanthin
d. lycopene

A

A.

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56
Q

Would you recommend β-carotene supplementation to a smoker to decrease risk to lung cancer?

a. No—β-carotene supplements may be harmful to smokers and are their use is not advised for the general public
b. Yes—β-carotene can quench singlet oxygen
c. Yes—smoking increases free radical formation; β-carotene can decrease free radicals
d. No—β-carotene supplements can cause a vitamin A toxicity and liver cirrhosis

A

A. No—β-carotene supplements may be harmful to smokers and are their use is not advised for the general public.

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57
Q

Choose the phrase which best explains the following statement: “β-carotene is no magic bullet.”

a. β-carotene supplements cannot be manufactured cheaply enough
b. β-carotene is not the only health-promoting molecule in fruits and vegetables
c. β-carotene does not decrease the reactivity of singlet oxygen molecules
d. β-carotene can replace vitamin E in terminating the auto-oxidation of fatty acids

A

B. β-carotene is not the only health-promoting molecule in fruits and vegetables

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58
Q

Which symptom of a vitamin A deficiency is most likely responsible for deficiency-related deaths?

a. severe infections
b. functions as a teratogen
c. keratinization of the cornea
d. poor cellular differentiation and growth

A

A. Severe infections

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59
Q

magine you are a nutritionist working in a country other than the U.S. Which is an assumption about vitamin D status that is NOT true?

a. The latitude makes a difference as regards how much vitamin D can be self-synthesized
b. Customs of dress make a difference as regards how much vitamin D can be self-synthesized
c. Skin color makes a difference as regards how much sun is needed to synthesize vitamin
d. Cow’s milk is a reliable source of vitamin D in the food supply

A

D. Cow’s milk is a reliable source of vitamin D in the food supply

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60
Q

Which vitamin D molecule would you expect to see in fortified foods?

a. calcidiol - 25-OH D3
b. calcitriol - 1,25-OH2 D3
c. cholecalciferol - vitamin D3
d. ergocalciferol - vitamin D2

A

cholecalciferol - vitamin D3

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61
Q

It’s a good thing that milk is fortified with vitamin D so that we can consume the RDA if we drink the recommended number of glasses of milk each day. The DRI for 9-69 year olds is 600 IU (15 mg). This equals _____ cups of milk.

a. four
b. three
c. two
d. six

A

D. Six

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62
Q

What % of vitamin D from the diet is absorbed?

a. 50
b. 20
c. 30
d. 40

A

A. 50

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63
Q

Dietary cholecalciferol must be further hydroxylated in order to be active vitamin D. The first hydroxylation occurs in the _____ to produce _____.

a. skin, 7-dehydrocholesterol
b. liver, 25-hydroxycholecalciferol
c. kidney, 1-hydrocholesterol
d. kidney, 25-hydroxycholecalciferol

A

B.

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64
Q

The RDA for vitamin D for people over the age of 70 is _____ the RDA for teenagers.

a. less than
b. equal to
c. greater than

A

C. Greater than

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65
Q

If asked about the relationship of vitamin D to autoimmune disease, the best information for a dietetic professional to provide is:

a. some evidence suggests a protective effect of vitamin D
b. take a supplement containing 2000 IU vitamin D each day
c. the evidence is only in animals, not humans
d. the evidence does not support a relationship at this time

A

A. Some evidence suggests a protective effect of vitamin D

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66
Q

Sun exposure does not cause hypervitaminosis D because _____.

a. sunburned skin is not sensitive to the UV wavelength that causes previtamin D3 synthesis
b. vitamin D-binding protein is not saturated with D3
c. inactive products are synthesized from pre-vitamin D3 and D3
d. cutaneous production of the vitamin reaches a maximum

A

D. cutaneous production of the vitamin reaches a maximum

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67
Q

What is a symptom of a vitamin D toxicity?

a. rickets
b. hypocalcemia
c. hypercalcemia
d. osteoporosis

A

C. hypercalcemia

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68
Q

In assessing the vitamin D status of an individual, which measure would you use?

a. circulating cholecalciferol
b. circulating 1,25-OH2 cholecalciferol
c. circulating 25-OH cholecalciferol
d. serum calcium levels

A

C. circulating 25-OH cholecalciferol

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69
Q

How does alpha-tocopherol differ from beta-tocopherol?

a. location of methyl groups
b. saturation of side chain
c. source in the diet

A

A. location of methyl groups

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70
Q

A genetic deficiency in _____ leads to a vitamin E deficiency syndrome.

a. alpha-tocopherol transfer protein in the liver
b. gamma-tocotrienol
c. RRR alpha-tocopherol
d. tocopherol carrier protein in the jejunum

A

alpha-tocopherol transfer protein in the liver

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71
Q

The action of vitamin K is the post-translational synthesis of blood clotting factors occurs:

a. in the liver
b. in the small intestine
c. in the bone marrow
d. in the blood

A

A. in the liver

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72
Q

Anticoagulant drugs that act by inhibiting vitamin K activity do so by which mechanism?

a. inhibiting the formation of the active form of vitamin K
b. stimulating osteocalcin synthesis
c. interfering with micelle formation so vitamin K is not absorbed
d. not allowing calcium to interact with Gla residues

A

inhibiting the formation of the active form of vitamin K

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73
Q

Mr. S. takes warfarin due to his valve replacement surgery. He is an avid gardener and enjoys eating the many green leafy vegetables he grows. You caution Mr. S. to tell his physician about this because the amount of warfarin he takes may need to be _____

a. increased
b. decreased

A

A. Increased

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74
Q

Which is the best measure of vitamin K status?

a. INR
b. des-γ-carboxyglutamic prothrombin
c. prothrombin time
d. PTH concentration

A

C. prothrombin time

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75
Q

The glucose transporter that is sensitive to insulin is

a. SGLT1
b. GLUT1
c. GLUT4
d. GLUT2

A

D. Glut 4

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76
Q

Which hormonal changes occur in response to a fall in blood glucose concentration?

a. decreased insulin, increased glucagon
b. increased insulin, decreased glucagon
c. increased insulin, increased glucagon
d. decreased insulin, decreased glucocorticoids

A

B. decreased insulin, increased glucagon

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77
Q

Glycemic load considers the _____ in the food.

a. fat and carbohydrate content
b. protein and carbohydrate content
c. quantity and quality of carbohydrate
d. fat to carbohydrate ratio

A

quantity and quality of carbohydrate

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78
Q

Insulin is an anabolic hormone. Which process does insulin stimulate?

a. lipolysis
b. ketogenesis
c. glycogenesis
d. gluconeogenesis

A

C. glycogenesis

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79
Q

Due to a lack of the enzyme glucose-6-phosphatase, which tissue capable of glycogenesis cannot contribute to blood glucose levels between meals?

a. brain
b. kidney
c. muscle
d. liver

A

C. Muscle

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80
Q

The major end products of cellular oxidation of carbohydrate include:

a. water, carbon dioxide, and energy
b. carbon, nitrogen, and hydrogen
c. glucose and amino acids
d. dietary fiber and ammonia

A

A. water, carbon dioxide, and energy

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81
Q

Glycolysis is a process involving:

a. reactions that convert glucose to pyruvate
b. synthesis of fatty acids
c. reactions that convert glucose to glycogen
d. reactions that convert glycogen to protein

A

A.

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82
Q

In what part of the cell does glycolysis occur?

a. mitochondrion
b. endoplasmic reticulum
c. cytosol
d. nucleus

A

C.

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83
Q

In which cellular site is most of the energy released when carbohydrates are oxidized to carbon dioxide and water?

a. Golgi body
b. mitochondrion
c. reticuloendothelium
d. cytoplast

A

mitochondrion

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84
Q

Two hormones that stimulate glycogenolysis in the muscle and liver, respectively, are _____.

a. insulin and epinephrine
b. cortisol and epinephrine
c. epinephrine and glucagon
d. glucagon and insulin

A

epinephrine and glucagon

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85
Q

In what organelle are the enzymes that catalyze the citric acid cycle located?

a. lysosome
b. cytoplasmic matrix
c. mitochondrion
d. endoplasmic reticulum

A

mitochondrion

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86
Q

Under anaerobic conditions within a cell, how many net ATPs are formed from one glucose molecule by substrate-level phosphorylation?

a. two
b. six
c. four
d. none

A

two

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87
Q

Under anaerobic conditions within a cell, how many net ATPs are formed from one glucose molecule by substrate-level phosphorylation?

a. two
b. six
c. four
d. none

A

A.

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88
Q

In the complete oxidation of 1 mol of glucose, how many ATPs are formed?

a. 4-6
b. 32-38
c. 8-12
d. 18-24

A

32-38

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89
Q

During the end reaction of the electron transport chain, molecular oxygen becomes _____.

a. reduced to water
b. FADH2
c. oxidized to carbon dioxide
d. NADH+ H+

A

A. reduced to water

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90
Q

Gluconeogenesis is essentially the reversal of which pathway?

a. glycolysis
b. TCA cycle
c. lipogenesis
d. glycogenesis

A

A. Glycolysis

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91
Q

Muscle lactate is converted to glucose in the liver and returned to the muscle by means of the _____.

a. electron transport chain
b. malate-aspartate shuttle
c. Cori cycle
d. pentose phosphate pathway

A

C. Cori cycle

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92
Q

Within the lamina propria, lying just below the epithelium, is the mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue, which

a. initiates peristalsis
b. contains white blood cells and protects against ingested microorganisms
c. controls secretions from the mucosal glands
d. secretes mucus, hormones and digestive juices into the lumen

A

B. Contains white blood cells and protects against ingested microorganisms.

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93
Q

Which of the following is NOT considered an accessory organ?

a. gallbladder
b. liver
c. pancreas
d. spleen

A

D. Spleen

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94
Q

Bile is most important for the digestion and absorption of _____.

a. proteins
b. vitamins
c. fats
d. carbohydrates

A

C. Fats

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95
Q

What is the name of the digestive enzyme in saliva that digests starch?

a. amylase
b. synthetase
c. lactase
d. lipase

A

A. Amylase

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96
Q

Which is NOT a component of saliva?

a. enzymes
b. mucus
c. water
d. proteases

A

D.

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97
Q

The volume of a normal stomach ranges from 50 mL (~2 oz) when empty to _____ when full.

a. 1.5 L (~ 6 cups)
b. 750 mL (~3 cups)
c. 250 mL (~1 cup)
d. 100 mL (~4 oz)

A

A.

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98
Q

What product produced by neck cells in the oxyntic gland of the stomach protects the epithelium from mechanical and chemical damage?

a. amylase
b. pepsin
c. mucus
d. gastrin

A

C. Mucus

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99
Q

What cells found both in oxyntic glands and pyloric glands of the stomach secrete hydrochloric acid and intrinsic factor?

a. enteroendocrine cells
b. neck cells
c. chief cells
d. parietal cells

A

D. Parietal cells

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100
Q

What cells found in oxyntic glands in the body of the stomach secrete pepsinogens?

a. parietal cells
b. chief cells
c. enteroendocrine cells
d. neck cells

A

B.

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101
Q

Which specialized cell of the gastric epithelium secretes a hormone?

a. chief cells
b. g-cells
c. neck cells
d. parietal cells

A

B. G cells

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102
Q

The chief cells secrete _______.

a. mucus
b. zymogens
c. hydrochloric acid
d. gastrin

A

D. Gastrin

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103
Q

The parietal cells secrete _____.

a. hydrochloric acid and intrinsic factor
b. zymogens and hydrochloric acid
c. intrinsic factor and gastrin
d. gastrin and zymogens

A

A.

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104
Q

A function of hydrochloric acid in the gastric juice is to

a. protect the stomach lining from damage
b. act as a bactericide agent
c. digest protein, functioning as an endopeptidase
d. inhibit secretion of gastrin and CCK

A

B.

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105
Q

When the pH of the stomach is increased to avoid GERD, over time the stomach may not be acidic enough. Which of the following might occur?

a. decreased protein digestion
b. destruction of bacteria in the stomach
c. gastric ulcer
d. lack of carbohydrate digestion

A

A

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106
Q

The product(s) of pepsin’s action is/are _______.

a. hydrolyzed proteins
b. short chain fatty acids
c. amylose
d. disaccharides

A

A

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107
Q

Pepcid, a drug that is classified as a H2 receptor antagonist, acts by _____.

a. inhibiting the binding of histamine to the parietal cells
b. inhibiting the release of acetylcholine by the vagus nerve
c. inhibiting the secretion of hydrogen ions by the parietal cells
d. inhibiting the binding of gastrin to the parietal cells

A

A

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108
Q

Which medication inhibits hydrogen release into the gastric juice, which reduces GI mucosal irritation?

a. Nexium
b. Pepcid
c. Tagament
d. Tums

A

A

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109
Q

Most of the digestive enzymes produced by the intestinal enterocytes function

a. in the stomach
b. within the cytoplasm of the enterocytes
c. in the intestinal lumen
d. at the brush border

A

D

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110
Q

The pancreas is a digestive system accessory organ with two types of active tissue, the ductless endocrine cells that secrete insulin and glucagon and the

a. erythropoietic cells that produce red blood cells
b. ductless absorptive tissue that controls bicarbonate
c. acinar exocrine cells that produce digestive enzymes
d. liver-like cells that produce bile

A

acinar exocrine cells that produce digestive enzymes

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111
Q

Pancreatic juice that enters the duodenum through the sphincter of Oddi contains all of the following EXCEPT _____.

a. digestive enzymes
b. cations such as sodium, potassium, and calcium
c. intrinsic factor
d. anions such as bicarbonate and chloride

A

intrinsic factor

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112
Q

The majority of the pancreatic tissue is _____.

a. exocrine in function
b. endocrine in function

A

exocrine in function

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113
Q

In what organ are enzymes produced that are responsible for digestion of 50% of carbohydrate and protein and 90% of fat?

a. gallbladder
b. esophagus
c. pancreas
d. liver

A

pancreas

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114
Q

The hormone whose major action is to alkalize intestinal contents by stimulating secretion of bicarbonate from the pancreas and by inhibiting gastric acid secretion and gastric emptying is _____.

a. cholecystokinin
b. secretin
c. gastrin
d. GRP

A

secretin

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115
Q

The hormone primarily responsible for contraction of the gallbladder and release of bile into the duodenum is _____.

a. cholecystokinin
b. secretin
c. GRP
d. gastrin

A

cholecystokinin

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116
Q

Bile salts are synthesized from cholesterol in the _____.

a. canaliculi
b. common bile duct
c. hepatocytes
d. gallbladder

A

hepatocytes

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117
Q

The total bile acid pool in the human body is 2.5 to 5 g. What percentage of bile is reabsorbed in the ileum?

a. 65%
b. 90%
c. 10%
d. 30%

A

90%

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118
Q

Which of the following is enterohepatically circulated

a. pancreatic enzymes
b. bile
c. CCK
d. glucose

A

bile

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119
Q

In general, in which portion of the gastrointestinal tract does most absorption occur?

a. colon
b. esophagus
c. stomach
d. small intestine

A

small intestine

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120
Q

How long does it take for most of the carbohydrate, protein, and fat to be absorbed from chyme after it enters the small intestine?

a. 30 minutes
b. 1 hour
c. 10 minutes
d. 2 hours

A

30 minutes

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121
Q

Which of the mechanisms responsible for absorption of nutrients into the epithelial cell of the villus requires energy?

a. diffusion
b. facilitated diffusion
c. glucagon
d. active transport

A

active transport

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122
Q

Anaerobic bacteria populate the gut in _____ greater quantities than aerobic bacteria

a. 2 fold
b. 10 fold
c. 100 fold
d. 5 fold

A

10 fold

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123
Q

Of the 3 short-chain fatty acids created by gut bacteria, which one is the preferred energy source for colonic epithelial cells?

a. acetic acid
b. propionic acid
c. butyric acid
d. oleic acid

A

butyric acid

124
Q

When diagnosing lactose intolerance, _____ is measured in the breath following oral consumption of 50 g lactose.

a. carbon dioxide
b. methane
c. sulfur
d. hydrogen

A

Hydrogen

125
Q

Lactose intolerance is common in all of the following EXCEPT _____.

a. Asian Americans
b. American Indians
c. European Americans
d. African Americas

A

European Americans

126
Q

Prebiotics act as substrates for the growth of beneficial bacteria in the colon and are _____.

a. selected fibers
b. certain types of bifidobacteria
c. live cultures of mixed lactobacilli
d. antibiotics

A

selected fibers

127
Q

The parasympathetic nervous system affects gastrointestinal motility by

a. constricting sphincters
b. decreasing muscle contractions
c. stimulating peristalsis
d. inhibiting peptide production

A

stimulating peristalsis

128
Q

The major role of gastrin in the GI tract is that of _____.

a. stimulation
b. transport
c. inhibition
d. no effect

A

stimulation

129
Q

Secretin is released from the enteroendocrine S-cell in the _____.

a. proximal small intestine
b. colon
c. esophagus
d. gastric mucosa

A

proximal small intestine

130
Q

Which regulatory peptide synthesized in the pancreatic and intestinal cells appears to inhibit release of gastrin, secretin, and motilin?

a. somatastatin
b. GRP
c. insulin
d. neurotensin

A

somatastatin

131
Q

Which of the following peptides stimulates appetite?

a. bombesin
b. leptin
c. cholecystokinin
d. ghrelin

A

ghrelin

132
Q

When water-soluble vitamins are consumed in excess of body needs, generally the excess is:

a. not absorbed
b. excreted in the urine
c. excreted in the feces
d. stored in liver, bone, and adipose tissue

A

excreted in the urine

133
Q

All of the following are involved in satiety and suppression of food intake EXCEPT _____.

a. corticotropin-releasing hormone
b. cholecystokinin
c. leptin
d. neuropeptide Y

A

neuropeptide Y

134
Q

A major function of B vitamins is to serve as:

a. electrolytes
b. a part of a coenzyme
c. antibodies
d. a source of energy

A

a part of a coenzyme

135
Q

Which water-soluble vitamin contributes to “intracellular cement” in the formation of scar tissue and wound healing?

a. vitamin B12
b. riboflavin
c. vitamin C
d. thiamin

A

vitamin C

136
Q

Which of the following molecules synthesized with the help of vitamin C underscores the importance of vitamin C to fat metabolism?

a. carnitine
b. tyrosine
c. norepinephrine
d. collagen

A

carnitine

137
Q

A primary function of vitamin C is to act as an:

a. antiviral agent
b. antioxidant
c. antirachitic agent
d. acyl transferase

A

antioxidant

138
Q

A major role for thiamin is:

a. blood coagulation
b. erythrocyte synthesis
c. energy transformation
d. collagen formation

A

energy transformation

139
Q

A consequence of thiamin deficiency is:

a. beriberi
b. pellagra
c. rickets
d. megaloblastic anemia

A

beriberi

140
Q

Cheilosis is a symptom of a dietary deficiency of which vitamin?

a. ascorbic acid
b. riboflavin
c. biotin
d. niacin

A

riboflavin

141
Q

When the diet is adequate in protein, the body can synthesize niacin from which amino acid?

a. valine
b. phenylalanine
c. tyrosine
d. tryptophan

A

tryptophan

142
Q

Which vitamin has a reduced coenzyme form important for fatty acid and cholesterol synthesis that is a product of the hexose monophosphate shunt?

a. vitamin C
b. niacin
c. thiamin
d. riboflavin

A

niacin

143
Q

Which classical vitamin deficiency is known for the four Ds: dermatitis, dementia, diarrhea, and death?

a. folic acid
b. niacin
c. biotin
d. thiamin

A

niacin

144
Q

Which of the water-soluble vitamins is found widely distributed in all plant and animal foods, which makes a deficiency unlikely?

a. thiamin
b. pantothenic acid (B5)
c. riboflavin
d. pyridoxine

A

pantothenic acid (B5)

145
Q

Synthesis of coenzyme A starts with the phosphorylation of which vitamin?

a. pyridoxal phosphate
b. vitamin E
c. pantothenic acid
d. folic acid

A

pantothenic acid (B5)

146
Q

A deficiency of what vitamin is associated with these symptoms: hallucinations, lethargy, skin rash, alopecia, and muscle pain?

a. vitamin C
b. vitamin B12
c. thiamin
d. biotin

A

biotin

147
Q

5-methyl THF requires the action of which vitamin in order to form folate?

a. niacin
b. B12
c. B2
d. C

A

B12

148
Q

Folate is vitally important for dividing cells during growth and cancer because of its essential role in the synthesis of _____.

a. purines and pyrimidines
b. lysosomes and peroxisomes
c. lipid bilayers
d. mitochondria

A

purines and pyrimidines

149
Q

Intrinsic factor is required for the absorption of which vitamin?

a. C
b. B12
c. B2
d. B6

A

B12

150
Q

Which of the water-soluble vitamins is able to be stored and retained in the body for long periods of time?

a. B12
b. thiamin
c. niacin
d. folic acid

A

B12

151
Q

Which vitamin is most involved in amino acid metabolism?

a. biotin
b. vitamin E
c. vitamin B6
d. vitamin A

A

vitamin B6

152
Q

Metabolism of vitamin B6 to the primary coenzyme form, pyridoxal phosphate, requires the action of what other B-vitamin?

a. THF
b. GSH
c. FMN (flavin mononucleotide; B2)
d. NAD FMN

A

FMN (flavin mononucleotide; B2)

153
Q

Because vitamin B6 is involved in heme synthesis, a deficiency symptom is

a. seizures
b. hypochromic, microcytic anemia
c. hyperhomocysteinemia
d. impaired calcium metabolism

A

hypochromic, microcytic anemia

154
Q

Which of the following vitamins has a Tolerable Upper Intake Level established?

a. thiamin
b. vitamin B6
c. vitamin B12
d. riboflavin

A

vitamin B6

155
Q

Ascorbic acid acts as a pro-oxidant by:

a. reacting with transferrin-bound iron
b. reducing ferrous iron
c. reducing dehydroascorbic acid
d. mobilizing ferric iron from storage

A

reducing ferrous iron

156
Q

Elevated homocysteine levels can be due to all the following except:

a. low pyridoxine
b. low ascorbic acid
c. low folacin
d. low cobalamin

A

low ascorbic acid

157
Q

Which three vitamins are involved in the synthesis of fatty acids?

a. biotin, vitamin D, thiamin
b. niacin, biotin, pantothenic acid
c. riboflavin, B12, folate
d. thiamin, riboflavin, niacin

A

niacin, biotin, pantothenic acid

158
Q

Thiamin deficiency associated with alcoholism is known as:

a. Cirrhosis of the liver
b. Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome
c. Pellagra
d. Beriberi
e. Maple Syrup Urine Disease

A

Werniche-Korsakoff Syndrome

159
Q

Which of the following would you find under B12-deficient conditions and the methyl trap hypothesis?

a. accumulation of 5-methylene THF
b. accumulation of THF
c. more than one of the above
d. accumulation of 5-methyl THF
e. depletion of homocysteine

A

accumulation of 5-methyl THF

160
Q

Which of the following amino acids is a precursor to niacin?

a. phenylalanine
b. tryptophan
c. leucine
d. valine

A

tryptophan

161
Q

Niacin toxicity may include all of the following effects except one. Which one?

a. Elevated plasma glucose
b. Liver injury
c. Increased uric acid levels
d. Heartburn
e. Increased blood pressure

A

increased blood pressure

162
Q

Which of the following is a potential toxic effect of excess pyridoxine?

a. Kidney stone formation
b. Excessive bleeding
c. Liver damage
d. Peripheral neuropathy
e. Low HDL levels

A

Peripheral neuropathy

163
Q

A characteristic that is unique to vitamin B12 is that it requires:

a. intrinsic factor for absorption
b. presence of all other B vitamins to perform its function
c. chromium in its molecular structure
d. lipids for absorption
e. an acid intestinal environment for synthesis

A

Intrinsic factor for absorption

164
Q

Which reaction is typical of the kind catalyzed by vitamin C?

a. transamination
b. methylation
c. hydroxylation
d. decarboxylation
e. carboxylation

A

hydroxylation

165
Q

Which of the following foods is NOT a good source of vitamin C?

a. carrots
b. brussel sprouts
c. broccoli
d. citrus fruits
e. green pepper

A

carrots

166
Q

Hyperhomocysteinemia is associated with an increased risk for heart disease. Research has shown that supplementation with which of the following three vitamins reduces plasma homocysteine concentrations.

a. Vitamin B1, vitamin B12, vitamin D
b. Vitamin B1, vitamin B12, biotin
c. Folate, vitamin B6, vitamin B12
d. Vitamin B1, vitamin E, vitamin K
e. Vitamin B1, vitamin B6, vitamin B12

A

folate, vitamin B6, vitamin B12

167
Q

Vitamin C is involved in the synthesis of which of the following. Choose the most inclusive answer.

a. Collagen
b. Carnitine
c. Collagen, carnitine, neurotransmitters
d. Collagen, carnitine
e. Neurotransmitters

A

collagen, carnitine, neurotransmitters

168
Q

Pellagra symptoms may appear during B6 deficiency, because it is required in the process of obtaining niacin from tryptophan?

a. True
b. False

A

True

169
Q

Pernicious anemia can be due to folate or B12 deficiency?

a. True
b. False

A

False

170
Q

High circulating levels of homocysteine (i.e., hyperhomocysteinemia) have been implicated in a number of pathologies including cardiovascular disease?

a. True
b. False

A

True

171
Q

The highest amounts of Vitamin C is located in the?

a. WBC
b. adrenal glands
c. heart
d. liver

A

adrenal glands

172
Q

The Vitamn C absorption increases with increased vitamin intake?

a. True
b. False

A

False

173
Q

Vitamin C is needed for the hydroxylation of ______ in order to synthesize tyrosine.

a. serotonin
b. niacin
c. tryptophan
d. melatonin
e. phenylalanine

A

phenylalanine

174
Q

The most common side effect of Vitamin C toxicity is?

a. bleeding gums
b. high cholesterol
c. kidney stones
d. arthralgia
e. abdominal pain and diarrhea

A

abdominal pain and diarrhea

175
Q

___ is involved with nerve impulse transmission and regulation of sodium channels and ACH receptors?

a. B1(thiamine)
b. B7
c. B12
d. B5
e. vitamin C

A

B1 (thiamine)

176
Q

To recycle Glutathione ___ and ___ are needed.

a. Folic acid
b. biotin
c. pantothenic acid
d. niacin
e. riboflavin

A

niacin (B3) & riboflavin

177
Q

Burning feet syndrome is seen with deficiency of?

a. biotin
b. folic acid
c. thiamin
d. pantothenic acid
e. niacin

A

pantothenic acid (B5)

178
Q

Methionine regeneration from homocysteine involves?

a. biotin
b. 5-methyl THF
c. thiamin
d. riboflavin
e. vitamin K

A

5-methyl THF

179
Q

B12 deficiency can lead to all of the following except for?

a. anemia
b. tinnitus
c. shortness of breath
d. abnormal gait
e. demyelination

A

tinnitus

180
Q

Schillings test is used to asses?

a. B6 deficiency
b. Riboflavin levels
c. B12 deficiency related to intrinsic factor
d. Folic acid deficiency

A

B12 deficiency related to intrinsic factor

181
Q

To assess B6 deficiency, a tryptophan load of 100mg/kg body weight, and measure the urinary excretion of_______.

a. Xanthurenic acid excretion
b. methionine
c. Intrinsic factor
d. PLP
e. Cysteine

A

Xanthurenic acid excretion

182
Q

Lethargy, depression, hallucinations, muscle pain, alopecia, scaly, red dermatitis is seen with deficiency in?

a. vitamin C
b. thiamin
c. riboflavin
d. biotin

A

biotin

183
Q

Most animals synthesize their own ascorbic acid from _____.

a. glucose
b. alanine
c. glutamine
d. glycogen

A

glucose

184
Q

Without enough vitamin C, collagen would _____.

a. be too tightly coiled
b. too strong and less flexible
c. be under-hydroxylated
d. be over-hydroxylated

A

be under-hydroxylated

185
Q

Although excess absorbed ascorbic acid is excreted in urine, the body has an estimated maximal body pool of about _____, which can be maintained with intakes of 100-200 mg vitamin C per day.

a. 500 mg
b. 1000 mg
c. 2000 mg
d. 1500 mg

A

2000 mg

186
Q

Vitamin C’s actual participation in biochemical reactions usually involves its antioxidant ability. Choose the description of this activity.

a. Accepts an electron from the quinone form of vitamin E
b. Accepts an electron or electrons to reduce a mineral cofactor
c. Donates an electron or electrons to oxidize a mineral cofactor
d. Donates an electron or electrons to reduce a mineral cofactor

A

Donates an electron or electrons to reduce a mineral cofactor (Vitamin C recycles Vitamin E)

187
Q

The necessity of ascorbic acid for its role in _____ is believed to be the reason that people with scurvy have no energy and are very tired.

a. carnitine synthesis
b. creatine synthesis
c. hormone activation
d. collagen synthesis

A

carnitine synthesis

188
Q

The RDA for vitamin C for adult men is _____ and the UL is _____.

a. 200 mg, 2000 mg
b. 75 mg, 500 mg
c. 100 mg, 500 mg
d. 90 mg, 2000 mg

A

90 mg, 2000 mg

189
Q

Erythrocyte transketolase activity is an assay to assess the status of:

a. thiamin
b. riboflavin
c. B6
d. B12

A

thiamin

190
Q

Folate in foods can only be absorbed in the monoglutamate form; therefore, digestive enzymes called _____ are important for folate nutriture.

a. lipases
b. legumes
c. hydrolases
d. conjugases

A

conjugases

191
Q

Which of the following reflects long-term folate status?

a. serum folate
b. serum methylmalonic acid
c. homocysteine concentration in blood
d. red blood cell folate

A

red blood cell folate

192
Q

To absorb folate consumed from green, leafy vegetables, _____.

a. glutamic acid molecules must be added
b. glutamic acid molecules must be removed
c. glutamate must be transaminated to form alpha-ketoglutarate
d. phosphate groups must be removed by the action of alkaline phosphatase

A

glutamic acid molecules must be removed

193
Q

In the enzyme methionine synthase, vitamin B12 acts by accepting a _____ group from _____ and donating this group to _____ to form methionine.

a. carbon, serine, glycine
b. methyl, 5-methyltetrahydrofolate, homocysteine
c. methyl, formiminoglutamic acid, succinyl-CoA
d. carbon, methionine, folate

A

methyl, 5-methyltetrahydrofolate, homocysteine

194
Q

Which is NOT a fate of homocysteine in the cell?

a. used to restore tetrahydrofolate
b. methylated to methionine
c. used in the synthesis of leucine
d. used to synthesize cysteine

A

used in the synthesis of leucine

195
Q

Methionine is used to synthesize S-adenosylmethionine (SAM). Why is this important?

a. so that methyl groups are available
b. so that 5-methyl THF is formed
c. so that fatty acids with an odd-numbered chain can be metabolized
d. so that dUMP is catalyzed to dTMP

A

so that methyl groups are available

196
Q

Tetrahydrofolate is vitally important for dividing cells during growth and cancer and knowledge of this need is used in cancer treatment by giving the drug methotrexate to inhibit the enzyme _____.

a. dihydrofolate reductase
b. folylpolyglutamate synthetase
c. formimino glutamate
d. conjugase

A

Tetrahydrofolate is vitally important for dividing cells during growth and cancer and knowledge of this need is used in cancer treatment by giving the drug methotrexate to inhibit the enzyme _____.

a. dihydrofolate reductase
b. folylpolyglutamate synthetase
c. formimino glutamate
d. conjugase

197
Q

What amount of supplemental folic acid is recommended daily for women of childbearing age in the United States?

a. 400 ug DFE
b. 800 ug DFE
c. 200 ug DFE
d. 600 ug DFE

A

400 ug DFE

198
Q

Vitamin B12 is absorbed in the _____.

a. duodenum
b. colon
c. ileum
d. jejunum

A

ileum

199
Q

Which of the water-soluble vitamins is able to be stored and retained in the body for long periods of time?

a. folic acid
b. niacin
c. thiamin
d. B12

A

B12

200
Q

Large amounts of folic acid can mask a vitamin B12 deficiency and prevent _____ from resulting. Over time the symptoms unique to a vitamin B12

a. DNA and RNA synthesis, vascular system
b. macrocytic anemia, nervous system
c. microcytic anemia, muscular system
d. one-carbon transfer, nervous system

A

macrocytic anemia, nervous system

201
Q

Vitamin B6 functions importantly in all of the following EXCEPT _____.

a. synthesis of niacin
b. synthesis of fatty acids
c. transamination of amino acids
d. glycogen breakdown

A

synthesis of fatty acids

202
Q

Which of the following dietary substances inhibits uptake of non-heme iron?

a. Lactic Acid
b. Tea
c. MFP
d. Ascorbic Acid

A

Tea

203
Q

Absorption of dietary iron is regulated by _____, produced by the liver when iron stores are high and released to the blood to act at the surface of the intestinal crypt cells.

a. Hepaestin
b. Hepcidin
c. Hemoglobin
d. Ferroportin

A

Hepcidin

204
Q

Which mineral is critical for oxidizing iron to be bound by transferrin for delivery to the tissues from the gut and liver?

a. Copper
b. Zinc
c. Chromium
d. Manganese

A

Copper

205
Q

The binding of iron by proteins defends the cells against

a. Iron deposition in kidneys and other organs
b. Oxidative damage from free radicals
c. Tissue hypoxia
d. Stellate cells

A

Oxidative damage from free radicals

206
Q

Which mineral facilitates transfer of electrons in the respiratory chain?

a. Calcium
b. Iron
c. Nickel
d. Zinc

A

Iron

207
Q

Hemoglobin and hematocrit are common measurements for assessment of nutriture for which mineral?

a. Iodine
b. Iron
c. Chromium
d. Zinc

A

Iron

208
Q

Zinc is important for taste perception as a component of _____.

a. Gustin
b. Alcohol Dehydrogenase
c. Carbonic Anhydrase
d. Thionein

A

Gustin

209
Q

Among the trace minerals, which mineral participates in the greatest number of enzyme systems?

a. Zinc
b. Selenium
c. Copper
d. Iron

A

Zinc

210
Q

At the cellular level, vitamin A interacts with which mineral in promoting growth and synthesis of plasma protein, especially retinol-binding protein?

a. silicon
b. chromium
c. cobalt
d. zinc

A

Zinc

211
Q

Which of the following dietary components impedes copper absorption?

a. phosphate
b. ascorbate
c. citrate
d. gluconate

A

ascorbate

212
Q

What two minerals can cause damage to cells when in their free ion forms?

a. iron and copper
b. zinc and copper
c. zinc and molybdenum
d. iodine and manganese

A

iron and copper

213
Q

Which vitamin enhances copper transfer and reduction?

a. biotin
b. ß-carotene
c. ascorbic acid
d. niacin

A

ascorbic acid

214
Q

What glycoprotein serves as a transporter of copper, an antioxidant, and an oxidative enzyme?

a. globulin
b. ceruploplasmin
c. free amino acid
d. albumin

A

ceruploplasmin

215
Q

Which mineral is an essential factor in the action of glutathione peroxidase (GPX) in the reduction of organic peroxides and hydrogen peroxide?

a. selenium
b. molybdenum
c. silicon
d. vanadium

A

selenium

216
Q

Which micromineral is necessary for iodine metabolism?

a. selenium
b. chromium
c. manganese
d. fluorine

A

selenium

217
Q

Which non-metal nutrient is associated with Keshan disease, characterized by cardiomyopathy?

a. selenium
b. molybdenum
c. iodine
d. zinc

A

selenium

218
Q

Which mineral is associated with the glucose tolerance factor (GTF)?

a. cobalt
b. copper
c. manganese
d. chromium

A

chromium

219
Q

The primary physiological role of which mineral is as a constituent in the thyroid hormones?

a. chromium
b. fluorine
c. selenium
d. iodine

A

iodine

220
Q

The addition to the diet of which food will alleviate the problem of endemic goiter?

a. broccoli
b. cassava
c. cabbage
d. iodized salt

A

iodized salt

221
Q

Iodine deficiency associated with growth problems results in _____.

a. goitrin
b. goiter
c. cretinism
d. Keshan disease

A

cretinism

222
Q

Which mineral serves as a cofactor in xanthine oxidase in the metabolism of purines, pyrimidines, and pteridines?

a. molybdenum
b. manganese
c. copper
d. chromium

A

molybdenum

223
Q

People living in regions that contain high soil molybdenum levels may develop _____.

a. gout
b. cretinism
c. heart disease
d. reduced urea production

A

gout

224
Q

Which micromineral plays a contributing role in the formation of hydroxyapatite crystals?

a. arsenic
b. selenium
c. fluoride
d. nickel

A

fluoride

225
Q

What is important in antioxidant DEFENSE?

a. all three of these
b. superoxide dismutase (SOD)
c. glutathione
d. iron
e. more than one of these

A

SOD and glutathione. more than one of these

226
Q

The following vitamins/ minerals are required for heme synthesis:

a. folate, B12, and iron
b. B6, zinc, and iron
c. copper, zinc, and folate
d. vitamin E, vitamin C, and iron

A

B6, zinc, and iron.

227
Q

Hemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that ultimately results in the excessive accumulation of iron in certain tissues.

a. True
b. False

A

True

228
Q

Albumin carries zinc and copper in the portal circulation to all tissues in the body.

a. True
b. False

A

False

229
Q

Metallothionein is a storage protein for excess zinc and copper.

a. True
b. False

A

True

230
Q

All of the following are considered major electrolytes EXCEPT _____.

a. potassium
b. calcium
c. chloride
d. sodium

A

calcium

231
Q

Which of the following is considered a major mineral in the body?

a. iron
b. selenium
c. sodium
d. iodine

A

sodium

232
Q

Which of the following minerals plays a major role in regulating body fluid pH?

a. sulphur
b. calcium
c. magnesium
d. phosphorus

A

phosphorus

233
Q

Deficiency of which major mineral is usually associated with muscular weakness, mental apathy, cardiac arrhythmias,paralysis, bone fragility and adrenal hypertrophy?

a. Sulphur
b. Potassium
c. Calcium
d. Chloride

A

Potassium

234
Q

Which mineral provides the most abundant cation in the human body?

a. calcium
b. phosphorus
c. potassium
d. magnesium

A

calcium

235
Q

Calcitriol can stimulate the absorption of calcium from the intestines by regulating _____.

a. calmodulin
b. calsequestrin
c. calbindin
d. calcitonin

A

calbindin

236
Q

What substance can improve calcium absorption?

a. magnesium
b. phytic acid
c. unabsorbed fatty acids
d. lactose

A

lactose

237
Q

lactose

A

osteoblasts

238
Q

During which period of the life cycle does peak bone mass occur?

a. 50 years and above
b. 0-10 years
c. 10-25 years
d. 30-40 years

A

30-40 years

239
Q

The binding protein that regulates many of the calcium-dependent enzymes is:

a. calcitonin
b. calmodulin
c. globulin
d. albumin

A

calmodulin

240
Q

According to the NIH panel on osteoporosis, what calcium levels are recommended for postmenopausal females not treated with estrogen?

a. 1200 mg/d
b. 1500 mg/d
c. 1000 mg/d
d. 800 mg/d

A

1500 mg/d

241
Q 
In the renal system, which mineral regulates body fluid pH by reacting with secreted hydrogen ions, releasing sodium
ions in the process?
a. calcium
b. phosphorus
c. magnesium
d. sulphur
A

phosphorus

242
Q 
Which two minerals are part of the crystal, hydroxyapatite, formed in ossification of bone?
A. sulphur, magnesium
b. calcium, potassium
c. sodium, chloride
d. calcium, phosphorus
A

calcium, phosphorus

243
Q

Which mineral is LEAST likely to be deficient in anyone’s diet?

a. calcium
b. iodine
c. chromium
d. phosphorus

A

phosphorus

244
Q

Which mineral is part of the green chlorophyll pigment in green leafy vegetables?

a. potassium
b. magnesium
c. sulfur
d. sodium

A

magnesium

245
Q

Which mineral participates in all aspects of energy metabolism including glycolysis, beta-oxidation and the TCA cycle?

a. calcium
b. sulphur
c. iron
d. magnesium

A

magnesium

246
Q

Which mineral has as its primary function to bind phosphate groups in ATP and ATP-dependent enzyme reactions?

a. magnesium
b. sodium
c. calcium
d. potassium

A

magnesium

247
Q

Which of the following statements is true?

a. In blood coagulation, the roles of calcium and magnesium are antagonistic, with calcium promoting the process and magnesium being the inhibitor
b. Calcium may cause an alteration in magnesium distribution by changing the flux of magnesium across the cell membrane or displacing it on its binding sites
c. Calcium and magnesium promote each other’s reabsorption in the kidney
d. In muscle contraction, the roles of calcium and magnesium are antagonistic, with magnesium promoting the process and calcium being the inhibitor

A

In blood coagulation, the roles of calcium and magnesium are antagonistic, with calcium promoting the process and magnesium being the inhibitor.

248
Q

A food may be labeled “low sodium” if each serving provides:

a. 35 mg or less
b. 140 mg or less
c. less than 5 mg
d. 240 mg or less

A

140 mg or less

249
Q

Significant loss of what mineral occurs when one exercises vigorously while the temperature is high?

a. sulphur
b. phosphorus
c. sodium
d. potassium

A

sodium

250
Q

Which mineral serves as the major intracellular fluid cation?

a. chloride
b. calcium
c. potassium
d. sodium

A

potassium

251
Q

What is a major function of chloride?

a. wound healing
b. maintenance of gastric acidity
c. protein synthesis in cells

A

maintenance of gastric acidity

252
Q

Which mineral is the most abundant anion found in extracellular fluid?

a. magnesium
b. chloride
c. phosphorus
d. sodium

A

chloride

253
Q

Dietary intake of which mineral correlates positively with blood pressure?

a. potassium
b. magnesium
c. calcium
d. sodium

A

sodium

254
Q

Research has shown that supplements of which mineral are associated with significant reductions in both systolic and diastolic blood pressure, especially in individuals with hypertension?

a. potassium
b. sodium
c. calcium
d. magnesium

A

potassium

255
Q

Which of the following foods is associated with reduced blood pressure?

a. nuts
b. alcohol
c. red meat
d. sugar

A

nuts

256
Q

What ultratrace element plays a role in the metabolism of methionine to taurine?

a. boron
b. arsenic
c. vanadium
d. nickel

A

arsenic

257
Q

The element that appears to be needed for formation and utilization of methyl groups and formation of Sadenosylmethionineis _____.

a. vanadium
b. silicon
c. boron
d. arsenic

A

arsenic

258
Q

uman toxicity has been shown as blackfoot disease, a peripheral vascular condition, in individuals drinking water contaminated with _____.

a. vanadium
b. silicon
c. boron
d. arsenic

A

arsenic

259
Q

Which of the following groups of foods are richest in boron, providing 1.0 to 4.5 mg/100 g?

a. raisins, legumes, nuts and avocados
b. fish and shellfish
c. milk, butter, cheese
d. pork, beef, poultry

A

raisins, legumes, nuts and avocados

260
Q

Which ultratrace element affects the composition, structure and strength of bones as well as cell membrane stability and inflammation?

a. cobalt
b. boron
c. arsenic
d. vanadium

A

boron

261
Q

Because of its anti-inflammatory actions, which element may reduce the severity of rheumatoid arthritis?

a. boron
b. cobalt
c. arsenic
d. silicon

A

boron

262
Q

In humans, signs of nickel _____ include nausea, vomiting, and shortness of breath.

a. toxicity
b. carcinogenesis
c. subclinical deficiency
d. deficiency

A

toxicity

263
Q

Which element is second only to oxygen in abundance on earth?

a. vanadium
b. cobalt
c. silicon
d. nickel

A

silicon

264
Q

Which element has a positive influence on collagen synthesis and bone mineralization?

a. vanadium
b. nickel
c. arsenic
d. silicon

A

silicon

265
Q

The major detrimental effect of a long-term excess of dietary silicon, usually in the form of antacids, is _____.

a. asthma
b. diabetes
c. kidney stones
d. cancer

A

kidney stones

266
Q

Which ultratrace element, in pharmacological quantities, mimics the action of insulin?

a. silicon
b. boron
c. vanadium
d. nickel

A

vanadium

267
Q

The richest dietary sources of vanadium are _____.

a. sweeteners
b. fats and oils
c. milk products
d. cereal and grain products

A

cereal and grain products

268
Q

Toxicity of which element results in green tongue, diarrhea, and GI cramps?

a. silicon
b. boron
c. vanadium
d. nickel

A

vanadium

269
Q

Which ultratrace element is a constituent of vitamin B12?

a. cobalt
b. boron
c. vanadium
d. arsenic

A

cobalt

270
Q

Which population group is most at risk for chromium deficiency?

a. Adolescents
b. Pregnant women
c. Young adult
d. Men
e. Elderly
f. Infants

A

Elderly

271
Q

Which of the following best describes hemosiderin?

a. Increases relative to primary storage form when iron overload occurs
b. Responsible for iron transport in serum
c. Facilitates oxygen transport in muscle
d. Primary storage form of iron
e. Responsible for iron transport within the intestinal cell

A

Increases relative to primary storage form when iron overload occurs

272
Q

Which vitamin promotes iron absorption?

a. Folic acid
b. Vitamin B12
c. Vitamin A
d. Vitamin C
e. Vitamin E

A

Vitamin C

273
Q

Deficiency of which of the following has been specifically linked to both myocardial infarction and cardiac arrhythmias?

a. Calcium
b. Phosphorus
c. Iron
d. Magnesium
e. Zinc

A

Magnesium

274
Q

Hypokalemia may occur as the result of which of the following?

a. bone marrow failure
b. severe tissue destruction
c. prolonged diarrhea
d. prolonged immobilization
e. high sodium intake

A

prolonged diarrhea

275
Q

Which of the following minerals is essential to the function of glutathione peroxidase?

a. Copper
b. Zinc
c. Iron
d. Manganese
e. Selenium

A

Selenium

276
Q

Superoxide dismutase (SOD), found in the cytoplasm, is dependent upon which two micro minerals?

a. Copper, Manganese
b. Copper, Iron
c. Copper, Zinc
d. Copper, Molybdenum
e. Copper, Selenium

A

Copper, Zinc

277
Q

Which of the following is found in bran and legumes and will, in large amounts, have a detrimental effect upon absorption of minerals such as calcium and zinc?

a. Vitamin C
b. Phytate
c. Oxalate
d. Cellulose
e. Aluminum

A

Phytate

278
Q

Superoxide dismutase found in the mitochondria is dependent upon which micro mineral?

a. Copper
b. Zinc
c. Iron
d. Molybdenum
e. Manganese

A

Manganese

279
Q

Two enzymes that function in the disposal of hydrogen peroxide within cells and tissues are:

a. Glutathione peroxidase and superoxide dismutase
b. Amine oxidase and glutathione peroxidase
c. Catalase and amine oxidase
d. Catalase and superoxide dismutase
e. Glutathione Peroxidase and catalase

A

Glutathione Peroxidase and catalase

280
Q

Which of the following minerals is second only to calcium in abundance in the human body?

a. Phosphorous
b. Iron
c. Magnesium
d. Sodium
e. Potassium

A

Phosphorous

281
Q

Studies have shown that the following are linked to hypertension. Choose the most inclusive answer.

a. Sodium, chloride, potassium, calcium
b. Sodium, chloride, potassium, calcium, magnesium, sucrose, alcohol consumption
c. Sodium, chloride, potassium, calcium, magnesium, sucrose
d. Sodium, chloride, potassium
e. Sodium, chloride, potassium, calcium, magnesium

A

Sodium, chloride, potassium, calcium, magnesium, sucrose, alcohol consumption

282
Q

_____ is secreted in response to low plasma calcium concentrations and acts on the kidney to increase synthesis of _____, which promotes renal reabsorption of calcium.

a. Calcitriol, calmodulin
b. Parathyroid hormone, calcitriol
c. Parathyroid hormone, calcitonin
d. Calcitonin, calcitriol

A

Parathyroid hormone, calcitriol

283
Q

One health claim for calcium states that levels above _____ are unlikely to provide additional benefit.

a. 1200 mg/d
b. 800 mg/d
c. 1000 mg/d
d. 2000 mg/d

A

2000 mg/d

284
Q

Deficiency of which major mineral is usually associated with muscular weakness, neuromuscular hyper excitability, and tetany?

a. Chloride
b. Magnesium
c. Calcium
d. Sulphur

A

Magnesium
*Trick question; key word is “deficiency”- Tetany can be the result of an electrolyte imbalance. Most often, it’s a dramatically low calcium level, known as hypocalcemia. But, it can also be caused by magnesium deficiency or too little potassium..

285
Q

By what mechanism is vitamin C thought to protect bone health?

a. contributing to the integrity of bone collagen
b. carboxylation of osteocalcin and matrix Gla protein
c. buffering for acid-base balance
d. diminishing bone resorption

A

contributing to the integrity of bone collagen

286
Q

By what mechanism is vitamin K thought to protect bone health?

a. buffering for acid-base balance
b. carboxylation of osteocalcin and matrix Gla protein
c. contributing to the integrity of bone collagen
d. diminishing bone resorption

A

carboxylation of osteocalcin and matrix Gla protein

287
Q

Water accounts for what percentage of the body weight in normal adult?

a. 40%
b. 20%
c. 60%
d. 80%

A

60%

288
Q

What percentage of blood volume is circulated through the kidney’s

a. 50%
b. 75%
c. 25%
d. 100%

A

25%

289
Q

Which of the components comprising the nephron includes the capillary network called the glomerulus?

a. collecting duct
b. loop of Henle
c. Bowman’s capsule
d. distal convoluted tubule

A

Bowman’s capsule

290
Q

Which are responsible for regulation of extracellular water osmolarity and volume?

a. liver and pancreas
b. pancreas and kidney
c. hypothalamus and kidney
d. spleen and bone marrow

A

hypothalamus and kidney

291
Q

What percentage of the glomerular filtrate volume is excreted as urine each day?

a. 50%
b. 1%
c. 25%
d. 100%

A

1%

292
Q

Which hormone, mediated by the enzyme renin, is primarily responsible for active reabsorption of sodium ions in the distal and collecting tubules?

a. antidiuretic hormone
b. androsterone
c. aldosterone
d. adrenocortical

A

aldosterone

293
Q

Which hormone, stimulated by increased blood pressure stretching the heart, functions to inhibit sodium reabsorption to promote sodium excretion?

a. angiotensin II
b. atrial natriuretic peptide
c. aldosterone
d. vasopressin

A

atrial natriuretic peptide

294
Q

In which part of the nephron is most of the filtered sodium reabsorbed?

a. distal convoluted tubule
b. proximal tubule
c. collecting ducts
d. ascending loop of Henle

A

ascending loop of Henle

295
Q

ncidence of hypertension in populations is considered predictable by _____.

a. serum sodium concentration
b. sodium filtration rate by the kidney
c. urinary sodium excretion
d. average daily sodium intake

A

average daily sodium intake

296
Q

Magnesium absorption may be improved by all of the following except?

a. selected carbohydrates
b. protein
c. phosphorous
d. vitamin D

A

phosphorous

297
Q

Which mineral is contained in a preformed metallovitamin essential for humans that cannot be synthesized from dietary sources?

a. cobalt
b. boron
c. silicon
d. nickel

A

cobalt

298
Q

What ultratrace element has been shown to inhibit Na+/K+-ATPase function and the absorption of amino acids at higher concentrations?

a. vanadium
b. arsenic
c. boron
d. cobalt

A

vanadium

299
Q

Dietary _____ inhibits absorption of silicon

a. alkalinity
b. lactose
c. iron
d. fiber

A

fiber

300
Q

Which of the microminerals is considered essential for normal brain function?

a. chromium
b. manganese
c. vanadium
d. fluorine

A

manganese

301
Q

Iron content of the average Western diet is estimated to be about:

a. 18 g /day
b. 5 to 7 mg iron per 1,000 kcal
c. 1 to 4 mg iron per 1,000 kcal
d. 8 to 15 mg/day

A

5 to 7 mg iron per 1,000 kcal.

302
Q

Which mineral facilitates transfer of electrons in the electron transport chain?

a. iron
b. nickel
c. zinc
d. calcium

A

iron

303
Q

Excessive intake of non-heme iron interferes with absorption of which mineral by an unknown mechanism?

a. manganese
b. chromium
c. selenium
d. zinc

A

zinc

304
Q

The protein that plays a dual function in both iron and copper homeostasis is:

a. transferrin
b. ferritin
c. ceruloplasmin
d. metallothionein

A

ceruloplasmin

305
Q

What genetic disorder causes copper toxicity?

a. Wilson’s disease
b. hemochromatosis
c. Menkes disease
d. Keshan disease

A

Wilson’s disease

COMP EXAM 2022 (15 decks)

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