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COMP EXAM 2022 > 560 E EXTRA > Flashcards

560 E EXTRA Flashcards

1
Q 
Initiation of the atherogenic process may begin in response to some form of endothelial injury. This injury could result from
A. Reduced LDL.
B. Oxidized LDL.
C. Reduced HDL
D. Any of the above.
A

B. Oxidized LDL.

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2
Q 
In patients with jaundice, direct hyperbilirubinemia would most likely occur with
A. Gallstones.
B. Hepatitis.
C. Tylenol overdose.
D. Hemolysis
A

A. Gallstones.

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3
Q

Which of the following activities is shared by vitamin B12 and folate?
A. Both are required for nucleic acid synthesis.
B. Both are considered problem nutrients for strict vegetarians.
C. Both are found in significant amounts in green leafy vegetables.
D. Both require intrinsic factor for their release from food proteins.

A

A. Both are required for nucleic acid synthesis.

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4
Q

T/F: An elevation of aspartate aminotransferase (AST) is specific for liver disease.

A

F

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5
Q

A low serum calcium level can best be explained by
A. Hyperparathyroidism.
B. Hypoalbuminemia.
C. Failure to include dairy products in the diet.
D. Excessive intake of vitamin D.

A

B. Hypoalbuminemia.

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6
Q

Anemia is a symptom of ________ poisoning.
A. Mercury.
B. Lead.
C. Cadmium.

A

B. Lead.

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7
Q 
Which condition would be expected to cause the largest increase in alanine aminotransferase (ALT)?
A. Cirrhosis.
B. Hepatitis.
C. Pancreatitis.
D. Obstructive jaundice hepatitis.
A

B. Hepatitis.

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8
Q 
Which is not a site of inflammation in the presence of obesity?
A. Adipose tissue
B. Liver
C. Spleen
D. Muscle
E. Pancreas
A

C. Spleen

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9
Q 
The biggest source(s) of cadmium exposure for people in the general population are
A. Paints.
B. Hair dyes.
C. Cigarette smoke and food.
D. Tap water.
A

C. Cigarette smoke and food.

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10
Q 
Digestive enzymes most likely to be diminished in the presence of small intestine mucosal inflammation are
A. Disaccharidases
B. Amylase.
C. Lipase.
D. Pepsin.
A

A. Disaccharidases

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11
Q

When interpreting results from a bone mineral density test
A. The T-score is the most meaningful value.
B. The Z-score is the most meaningful value.
C. A negative score is desirable.
D. The T-score must be compared to serum calcium levels.

A

A. The T-score is the most meaningful value.

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12
Q 
Blood mercury levels provide the best information about
A. Recent mercury exposure.
B. Long-term mercury exposure.
C. Metallic mercury exposure.
D. Inorganic mercury exposure.
A

A. Recent mercury exposure.

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13
Q

A decreased hemoglobin would be expected
A. Before iron stores have been depleted.
B. Whenever ferritin values are low.
C. During late stages of iron deficiency.
D. Before erythrocyte protoporphyrin decreases.

A

C. During late stages of iron deficiency.

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14
Q

When measuring serum magnesium
A. Lysis of red blood cells will cause a falsely low result.
B. Lysis of red blood cells will cause a falsely high result.
C. Lysis of red blood cells will have no effect on the result.
D. Lysis of red blood cells is desirable because magnesium is primarily an intracellular ion.

A

B. Lysis of red blood cells will cause a falsely high result.

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15
Q

Phosphorus deficiency
A. Is a large concern in people over 50 years of age.
B. Is rare.
C. Is most common in adolescents.
D. Is associated with large soda consumption.

A

B. Is rare.

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16
Q 
Which of the following nutrients would have the LEAST effect on a TBARS level?
A. Vitamin C.
B. Vitamin E.
C. Coenzyme Q.
D. Vitamin B6.
A

D. Vitamin B6.

17
Q 
When Phase I and Phase II liver detoxification pathways are actively working to rid the body of toxins, the most likely observation would be
A. High urinary orotate.
B. Low urinary orotate.
C. High urinary glucarate.
D. Low urinary glucarate.
A

C. High urinary glucarate.

18
Q 
The primary screening method for assessing lead levels is
A. Erythrocyte protoporphyrin.
B. Urinary lead.
C. Blood lead.
D. Bone x-ray.
A

C. Blood lead.

19
Q 
Symptoms of hemochromatosis most often become apparent in males
A. When they are toddlers.
B. Before the age of 18.
C. After age 40.
D. After age 60.
A

C. After age 40.

20
Q

Zinc deficiency is most likely present if
A. Urinary zinc levels are lower than expected.
B. Serum zinc levels are lower than expected.
C. Serum zinc and metallothionein are both below expected levels.
D. Serum zinc is below expected levels, but metallothionein is above expected levels.

A

C. Serum zinc and metallothionein are both below expected levels.

21
Q

Increased blood ammonia levels correlate most closely with
A. Decreased alanine aminotransferase (ALT).
B. Increased alanine aminotranserase (ALT).
C. Decreased alkaline phosphatase (ALP).
D. Decreased gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase (GGT).

A

B. Increased alanine aminotranserase (ALT).

22
Q 
What is erythrocyte protoporphyrin?
A. An iron storage protein.
B. An immature red blood cell.
C. An iron binding protein.
D. Precursor for hemoglobin synthesis.
A

D. Precursor for hemoglobin synthesis.

23
Q 
Long-term exposure to cadmium would be most likely to cause
A. Anemia.
B. Fragile bones.
C. Heart attack.
D. Dermatitis.
A

B. Fragile bones.

24
Q 
The best measurement to assess cellular stores of vitamin C is
A. Plasma vitamin C level.
B. Leukocyte vitamin C level.
C. Urinary vitamin C level.
D. Erythrocyte vitamin C level.
A

B. Leukocyte vitamin C level.

25
Q

T/F: Measuring cadmium in hair and nails is better than measuring urinary cadmium.

A

False

26
Q 
The most sensitive indicator of chronic alcohol ingestion is
A. GGT.
B. AST.
C. ALT.
D. ALP.
A

A. GGT.

27
Q

Which of the following is true about serum albumin levels?
A. Short half-life allows for rapid response to nutritional changes.
B. Protein status is the only factor that affects serum concentration.
C. Must be measured in the fasting state.
D. Dehydration results in increased serum concentration.

A

D. Dehydration results in increased serum concentration.

28
Q

An expected MCV for pernicious anemia would be
A. Below normal.
B. Normal.
C. Above normal.

A

C. Above normal.

29
Q

When jaundice is observed in an individual, it is important to differentiate whether the jaundice is primarily a result of direct (conjugated) or indirect (unconjugated) bilirubin. The best explanation for this is:
A. When liver cells are damaged, they lose the ability to conjugate.
B. When unconjugated bilirubin is increased, this rules out red blood cell damage.
C. When unconjugated bilirubin is increased, this confirms obstruction of the extrahepatic ducts.
D. Only cirrhosis causes an increase in unconjugated bilirubin.

A

A. When liver cells are damaged, they lose the ability to conjugate.

30
Q

Which of the following conditions or diseases are known to be caused by a deficiency of the same nutrient?
A. Osteomalacia and rickets.
B. Xerophthalmia and breath pentane release.
C. Kwashiorkor and fibrocystic breast disease.
D. Hemolytic anemia and megaloblastic anemia

A

A. Osteomalacia and rickets.

31
Q

The level of serum vitamin A
A. Is never measured.
B. Is never an accurate reflection of A status.
C. Is an accurate reflection of a toxic excess of vitamin A.
D. Is only accurate when performed on a fasting specimen.

A

C. Is an accurate reflection of a toxic excess of vitamin A.

32
Q 
Morphological changes in epithelial cells would most likely indicate a deficiency of vitamin
A. A.
B. D.
C. E.
D. K.
A

A. A.

33
Q 
Which of the following compounds provides a major storage reservoir for iron?
A. Ferritin.
B. Myoglobin.
C. Transferrin.
D. Hemoglobin.
A

A. Ferritin.

34
Q 
The lack of insulin in Type 1 diabetes is associated with all of the following except
A. Increased protein catabolism.
B. Glycosuria.
C. Increased glucose use.
D. Dehydration.
A

C. Increased glucose use.

35
Q 
An increase in expired hydrogen after an oral dose of lactose indicates
A. Lack of pancreatic lipase.
B. Lack of intrinsic factor.
C. Lack of intestinal lactase.
D. Lack of intestinal peptidase.
A

C. Lack of intestinal lactase.

36
Q 
A decreased fecal elastase is most strongly correlated with
A. Celiac disease.
B. Lactose intolerance.
C. Pernicious anemia.
D. Pancreatic insufficiency.
A

D. Pancreatic insufficiency.

37
Q

Cirrhosis of the liver can cause an increased APTT because
A. Cirrhosis causes an increased production of heparin.
B. Cirrhosis causes decreased absorption of vitamin K.
C. Cirrhosis causes decreased platelet production.
D. Cirrhosis causes decreased production of coagulation factors.

A

D. Cirrhosis causes decreased production of coagulation factors.

38
Q 
Elevated pyroglutamate in urine may indicate depletion of
A. Vitamin K.
B. Phase I activity.
C. Glutathione.
D. Glucaric acid.
A

C. Glutathione.

39
Q 
Which of the following disorders is strongly correlated with the presence of high blood iron?
A. Dermatitis.
B. Heart disease.
C. Diverticulosis.
D. Neural tube defects.
A

B. Heart disease.

COMP EXAM 2022 (15 decks)

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