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Medicine Phase One > Phase One - Second > Flashcards

Phase One - Second Flashcards

1
Q

What does Farnelysation do?

A

Target proteins to the cytoplasmic face

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2
Q

Which pathway are membrane proteins and extracellular proteins degraded by?

A

Lysosomal Pathway

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3
Q

Is Haematoxylin acidophilic or basophilic?

A

Acidophilic = Blue

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4
Q

Is eosin acidophilic or basophilic?

A

Basophilic = Pink

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5
Q

what do tonofilaments loop through?

A

Desmosomes

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6
Q

Explain the process of gram staining

A

The bacteria are flooded with crystal violet and iodine is added to help the bacteria retain their colour. Gram positive retain their colour due to their thick peptidoglycan wall and appear purple. The colour in gram negative is drained off and hence it is restained with safranin. Gram negative appear pink.

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7
Q

Is it true that monocytes gives rise to macrophages?

A

Yes

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8
Q

What is the correct order of the Gibb’s reflection model

A

Description - feelings - evaluation - analysis - conclusion -action plan

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9
Q

What cells at not somatic cells?

A

Reproductive cells

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10
Q

Describe hypovolemic shock

A

There is a low blood volume. This is can be non-haemorrhage for example sweating (not through bleeding) or haemorrhage for example ruptured blood vessels (bleeding). As little as 20% of the blood volume is able to induce this shock. Blood pressure will go down. There is reduced mixed venous oxygen saturation. The skin will appear cold and clammy as there is less blood flow to the tissues.

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11
Q

Describe cardiogenic shock

A

This is where the left ventricle fails to pump a sufficient amount of blood around the body. This is common after a heart attack. There is reduced mixed venous oxygen saturation and reduced blood pressure. Due to the reduced blood flow to the tissues, the skin will appear cold and clammy.

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12
Q

Why is hypovolemic and cardiogenic shock also known as ‘cold shock’?

A

There is reduced blood flow to the tissues creating a cold feeling.

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13
Q

Which types of shock are described as distributive?

A

Septic, Neurogenic and Anaphylactic

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14
Q

What happens to the blood vessels during distributive shock?

A

Excessive dilation and they become leaky.

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15
Q

During distributive shock, what causes the perfusion to vital organs to decrease?

A

Increased vasodilation, Increased permeability and increased microvascular clotting

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16
Q

Why does distributive shock lead to warm and flushed skin?

A

There is increased blood supply to the peripheral vessels

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17
Q

Why is the mixed venous oxygen saturation normal or increased with distributive shock?

A

Due to widespread vasodilation, there is very low vascular resistance. The blood flow is too fast to unload oxygen into the tissues

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18
Q

Describe Septic shock

A

This is caused by a bacterial infection.
The endotoxins (lipopolysaccharides) present on the cell membrane of gram negative bacteria cause many effects.
- they break down the endothelium and cause the release of vasodilators (nitric oxide)
- they activate complement which causes mast cells to release histamine (vasodilator)
- they activate macrophages and neutrophils and they release pro-inflammatory cytokines for example IL-1 and TNF
- the endothelium will release tissue factor and this, in combination with a decrease in anti-coagulants, will cause an increase in blood clotting
The inflammatory molecules will cause breakdown of the vessel wall and this will lead to leaky vessels.

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19
Q

Describe Anaphylactic shock

A

This is a severe allergic reaction and where there is a dangerously low blood pressure.

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20
Q

Describe Neurogenic shock

A

This is where there is a failure of the CNS and it is unable to control the blood pressure and hence it is very low.

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21
Q

Describe four things that happen when platelets become activated i.e when they bind to collagen on the vessel wall

A
  • they change shape from sphere to cylindrical
  • they change the gIIb/IIIa receptor which increase the affinity for fibrinogen and this allows a fibrin mesh to form
  • they release negative molecules for example phosphatidylserine which binds to calcium and causes a negative surface to be formed to allow clotting factors to bind
  • they release thromboxane A2 which allows platelet aggregation
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22
Q

What does the APTT test ?

A

Intrinsic pathway and common pathway

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23
Q

The trophoblasts is the first to implant and this forms what two layers?

A

syncytiotrophoblasts and cytothroblast.

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24
Q

What are the two layers of the bilaminar disc?

A

Epiblast (ectoderm - columnar) and hypoblast (endoderm - cuboidal)

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25
Q

What happens during interphase?

A

The chromosomes divide

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26
Q

What happens during prophase?

A

Chromosomes condense and spindle forms

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27
Q

What happens during metaphase?

A

Pro-metaphase: nuclear membrane break

Metaphase: copied chromosomes align

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28
Q

What happens anaphase?

A

Chromosomes separate

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29
Q

What happens during telophase?

A

Nuclear membrane forms

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30
Q

What mutation occurs in Burkitt lymphoma?

A

Myc

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31
Q

What causes chronic myelogenous leukaemia?

A

Bcr-abl translation. This is located on chromosomes 8 and 22. This is known as the Philadelphia translation.

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32
Q

What is the meaning of anaplasia?

A

Poor cellular differentiation

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33
Q

What is the meaning of metaplasia?

A

Change from one cell type to another

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34
Q

What is the meaning of dysplasia?

A

Abnormal growth

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35
Q

What does a malignant epithelial tumour end in?

A

Carcinoma

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36
Q

What does a malignant connective tissue tumour end in?

A

Sarcoma

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37
Q

What is the difference between tumour suppressor genes and oncogene’s activity during cancer?

A

Tumour repressor genes are inactive and oncogenes are active.

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38
Q

What are the six hallmarks of cancer?

A
  • avoiding apoptosis
  • self sufficiency for cell signals
  • able to metastases
  • angiogenesis
  • unlimited potential to divide
  • insensitivity to inhibitory growth
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39
Q

What type of collagen is found in liver, lymphoid organs and granulation tissue?

A

Type III

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40
Q

What assembles elastin?

A

Fibrilin

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41
Q

What is the effects of Diabetes mellutis on the basement membrane?

A

Basement membrane thickening

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42
Q

Goodpastures syndrome is a primary autoimmune disease. What is the disorder?

A

Type IV collagen. There is BM destruction.

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43
Q

What is defective in Marfan’s syndrome?

A

Fibrilin-1

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44
Q

What type of cartilage does not have a perichondrium?

A

Fibrocartilage and articular hyaline cartilage

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45
Q

What word describes no joint movement?

A

Synarthrosis

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46
Q

What word describes little joint movement?

A

Amphiarthrosis

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47
Q

What word describes free joint movement?

A

Diarthrosis

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48
Q

What are the three fibrous joints?

A

Sutures
Gomphosis
Syndesmosis

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49
Q

What is the difference between primary and secondary cartilaginous joints?

A

Primary: these are Synarthrosis and separated by hyaline cartilage
Secondary: these are separated by fibrocartilage and are amphiarthrotic

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50
Q

What covers a nerve fibre?

A

Endoneurium

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51
Q

What covers a nerve fascicle?

A

Perineurum

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52
Q

Which cranial nerve is responsible for speech?

A

Glossopharyngeal

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53
Q

Which cranial nerve is responsible for smiling?

A

Facial

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54
Q

What is the role of the Alpha-one receptor?

This is a adrenergic receptor meaning that noradrenaline binds

A

Alpha one is found one smooth muslce on vessels and causes contraction.

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55
Q

What is the role of the Alpha-two receptor?

This is a adrenergic receptor meaning that noradrenaline binds

A

These are located on smooth muscle on blood vessels and cause vasodilation. They are also found on neuromuscular junctions and inhibits the release of norepinephrine.

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56
Q

What is the role of the Beta-one receptor?

This is a adrenergic receptor meaning that noradrenaline binds

A

These are located in the kidney and heart. They causes an increase in contraction and rate.

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57
Q

What is the role of the Beta-two receptor?

This is a adrenergic receptor meaning that noradrenaline binds

A

These are found within bronchioles of the lungs and the arteries of the skeletal muscles. They cause relaxation.

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58
Q

What is the role of the Beta-three receptor?

This is a adrenergic receptor meaning that noradrenaline binds

A

These are found within adipose tissue and cause lipolysis.

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59
Q

What are the two acetylcholine recepotrs called?

A

Nictonic and Muscarinic

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60
Q

What are the effects of the sympathetic response?

A
  1. Pupil dilation
  2. Increased heart rate
  3. Decreased saliva
  4. Internal sphincter contraction
  5. Smooth muscle contraction
  6. Mucus reduction
  7. Increased sweat
  8. Decreased urine production
  9. Glucose increased
  10. Bronchial relaxation
  11. Decreased GI tract activity
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61
Q

What is the effect on the lungs from the sympathetic response?

A

Bronchiole dilation

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62
Q

What is the effect on the body on the parasympathetic response?

A
  1. Pupil constriction
  2. Increased urine production
  3. Increased salvia production
  4. Increased mucus production
  5. No change in sweat production
  6. Sphincter relaxation
  7. Increased GI activity
  8. Liver increase glucagon synthesis
  9. Decreased heart rate
  10. Bronchiole constriction
  11. Dilation of arteries
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63
Q

What is the epithelium in the nasal cavity?

A

Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium

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64
Q

Describe the cough reflex

A

Inspiratory: a big breath taken in, pressure in lung increases, muscles stretch and vocal cords open
Compression: the glottis closed, muslces contract and pressure increase
Expiratory: the glottis closes and air is forced out due t the high pressure

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65
Q

During asthma, which part of the IgE binds to the mast cell?

A

Fc portion

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66
Q

What cytokines will Th2 cells release once they become activated during asthma? What are the effects of these cytokines?

A

IL-4, IL-13 and IL-5
IL-4: causes class switching from IgM to IgE
IL-5 recruits eosinophils
IL-13 helps class switching and mucous secretion

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67
Q

What are the three effects that occur during re-exposure to an allergen during asthma?

A
  • the degranulation of mast cell complex causing histamine release, protease, eosinophil chemotaxic factor and neutrophil-chemotactic factor
  • activation of arachidonic pathway which causes release of prostaglandins and leukotrienes
  • activation of genes that stimulate cytokines
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68
Q

What are the four main signs in early asthma?

A

Bronchoconstriction, Bronchospasm, leaky vessels and vasodilation.

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69
Q

Give some examples of drugs for asthma

A

Beta-2-agonits short: salbutamol, terbutaline
Beta-2-agonits long: salmeterol
Anticholinergic short-acting: ipratropium bromide Anticholinergic long-acting: tiotropium bromide
Montelukast
Theophylline

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70
Q

What is theophylline used in the treatment for?

A

Asthma: it blocks the enzyme that degrade cAMP

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71
Q

What is Montelukast?

A

A leukotriene antagonist used to treat asthma

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72
Q

What type of epithelium is located in the mouth, anus and oesophagus?

A

Stratified squamous epithelium

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73
Q

What are the four layers of the stomach?

A

Mucosa: epithelium, lamina propria, muscularis mucosa
Submucosa: blood vessels
Muscularis: oblique, longitudinal, circular
Serosa: connective tissue

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74
Q

What two enzyme present in the mouth are involved in carbohydrate digestion?

A

Alpha-amylose and Amylopectin

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75
Q

What are some requirements for a screening programme?

A
  1. There must be a latent stage to the disease
  2. Natural history of the disease must be known
  3. There must be treatment available
  4. There must be suitable test and examination
  5. There must be agreed process on who to treat as patients
  6. Must be a continuous process
  7. Economical balance
  8. The disease should be an important problem in the community
76
Q

Describe the M3 receptor located in the bladder

A

This is innervated by the pelvic nerve. This is a parasympathetic nerve and ,when activated, releases acetylcholine and causes contraction. This results i urination.

77
Q

Describe the Beta-3 receptor located in the bladder

A

This is innervated by the hypogastric nerve. This is sympathetic an, when activated, releases noradrenaline and cases detrusor relaxation. This means there is no urination.

78
Q

Describe the alpha-one receptor located in the internal sphincter

A

This is innervated by the hypogastric nerve. This is sympathetic and , when activated, released noradrenaline and causes contraction. This means there is no urination.

79
Q

Describe the Nictonic receptor located on the external sphincter

A

This is innervated by the pudendal nerve and this is somatic (voluntary). This releases acetylcholine and this causes contraction, allowing us to hold in urine.

80
Q

Describe what happens during an empty bladder

A

There is less stretching and the sensory pelvis nerve only sends out slow impulses to sacral region. This will stimulate the hypogastric nerve to causes detrusor relaxation and internal sphincter contraction. The pons helps to maintain the hypogastric nerve. The pudendal nerve is activated so urine can be held in.

81
Q

Describe what happens during an full bladder

A

There is increased stretching of the detrusor muscle. The pelvic nerve will therefore increase the rate of fast-firing neurons to the sacral region. The signals go to the pons area and this causes:

  • inhibition of the sympathetic hypogastric nerve (there is no relaxation of detrusor and internal sphincter relaxation)
  • the pelvis efferent nerves are stimulated and this causes contraction
  • there is inhibition of the pudendal nerve and this causes relaxation of the external sphincter
82
Q

Describe the process of hearing

A
  • Waves are transported trough the external and middle ear to the auditory recepotrs
  • Waves are directed by the auricle through he external acoustic meatus to the tympanic membrane
  • Ossicles transmit the vibration. This magnifies up to x22 due to the size difference.
  • The stapes is connected to the oval window and this causes the perilymph to vibrate.
  • The tectorial membrane will start to move and this is transmitted through to the basilar membrane
  • The sterocilia start to move
  • The mechanically-gated channels are connected by tip-link proteins. Potassium channels open and this causes depolarization. This causes calcium release and this forms a neurotransmitter.
  • This travels via the cochlear nerve to the cochlear nucleus in the medulla oblongata. This will then reach the thalamus and then to the primary auditory centre in the temporal lobes.
83
Q

Describe the arachidonic pathway

A

The phospholipid membrane is converted into arachidonic acid by phospholipase A2.

  • Cyclooxygenase will convert this into thromboxane of prostaglandins
  • lipoxygenase will convert leukotriene A2 into leukotrienes
84
Q

Why is there a 25dB sound gain?

A

There ear drum is 55mm^2 and the footplate is 3.2mm^2

85
Q

What happens when there is a loss of the outer hair cells?

A

Decrease in amplification

86
Q

What class of MHC tells killer T cells to kill them?

A

Class one

87
Q

What part of the pathogen do antibodies bind to?

A

The epitope

88
Q

Is the variable region the light or heavy chain?

A

Light

89
Q

What part of the antibody determines its class?

A

The constant region

90
Q

What is the purpose of oil staining?

A

Refract light

91
Q

What is the function of the lens?

A

To focus light onto the retina

92
Q

What two parts of the eye form the fibrous layer?

A

Sclera and cornea

93
Q

What parts of the eye from the vascular layer?

A

Choroid, ciliary body, iris

94
Q

What are the two areas of the intervertebral disc called?

A

Annulus fibrosis and nucleus pulposes

95
Q

What tow muscles of the eye are not supplied by the oculomotor nerve?

A

LR6SO4

  • Lateral rectus: Abducens
  • Superior oblique- trochlear
96
Q

During embryological development, the brain is split into the forebrain, midbrain and hindbrain. What forms the forebrain?

A

Telencephalon and Diencephalon

97
Q

During embryological development, the brain is split into the forebrain, midbrain and hindbrain. What forms the midbrain?

A

Mesencephalon

98
Q

During embryological development, the brain is split into the forebrain, midbrain and hindbrain. What forms the hindbrain?

A

Metencephalon and Myelencephalon

99
Q

How many genes of tumour suppressor have to mutated in order to causes a tumour?

A

Two. This is recessive.

100
Q

What transcription factor is bound to Rb?

A

E2F

101
Q

What is li-Fraumeni syndrome a result of?

A

Mutation in P53

102
Q

What two substances are not present in the ground substance?

A

Collagen and elastin

103
Q

What do nutrient arteries of the bone supply?

A

Nutrient arteries enter through the nutrient foramen of long bones to supply the compact bone of the diaphyses and red marrow.

104
Q

What do metaphyseal arteries of the bone supply?

A

Metaphyseal artery supplies the bone marrow of the metaphysis

105
Q

What do epiphyseal arteries of the bone supply?

A

Epiphyseal artery supplies the bone marrow and bone tissue of the epiphyses

106
Q

What do periosteal arteries of the bone supply?

A

Periosteal arteries enter through the Volkmann’s canal to supply the outer part of compact bone and the periosteum

107
Q

Describe the cAMP pathway

A

Adenylyl cyclase is activated by the active alpha-GTP subunit. This result in the conversion of ATP to cAMP. In most cases, cAMP activates PKA. In its inactive form, PKA has two catalytic subunits and two regulator subunits. cAMP binding causes catalysis subunits to dissociate and phosphorylate others.

108
Q

What are the main affects from angiotensin II?

A

Angiotensin II (part of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system) has 4 main effects via which it increases blood pressure - vasoconstriction (causes increase in TPR), secretion of aldosterone (causes increased retention of Na+, thus water, thus increased blood volume), secretion of ADH (causes vasoconstriction, thus increases TPR and increased retention of water, thus increased blood volume) and thirst (causes increased water intake, thus blood volume).

109
Q

Where is aldosterone secreted?

A

Adrenal cortex

110
Q

How can markers of cellular function be described?

A

As proteins expressed on the surface of cells which serve as markers of specific cell types

111
Q

Proteins created at free-floating ribosomes may be destined for the nucleus. What best describes the locator sequence that allows the protein to enter the nucleus?

A

The locator sequence can be anywhere on the protein chain.

112
Q

Proteins created at free-floating ribosomes may be destined for the cytoplasm. What best describes the locator sequence that allows the protein to enter the nucleus?

A

It has no locator sequence.

113
Q

Proteins created at free-floating ribosomes may be destined for the peroxisome . What best describes the locator sequence that allows the protein to enter the nucleus?

A

It is a c-terminal tripeptide.

114
Q

Which type of stem cell is found in the inner cell mass (ICM) of a human embryo?

A

Pluripotent

115
Q

Which component of the cytoskeleton will play a key role in the development of cell projections such as filopodia and lamellipodia?

A

Microfilaments

116
Q

What does the superior mesenteric artery supply?

A

Midgut

117
Q

What does the inferior mesenteric artery supply?

A

Hindgut

118
Q

What is the foregut supplied by?

A

Celiac trunk

119
Q

In what stage of pregnancy does epithelial stratification and the appearance of melanocytes, Langerhans cells, Merkle cells and skin appendages begin?

A

3 months

120
Q

What are the 2 domains in an epithelial cell?

A

Apical and Basolateral

121
Q

In microtubules, which structure will move cargo away from the centrosome and towards the periphery?

A

Kinesins

122
Q

In microtubules, which structure will move cargo towards the centrosome from the periphery?

A

Dyneins

123
Q

Can respiratory diseases arise as a result of vitamin D deficiency?

A

No.

Cardiovascular, common cancers, infectious diseases and autoimmune diseases can.

124
Q

What is the difference between lamin and Laminin?

A

Lamin, made up of intermediate filament, and is a fibrous protein that forms the nuclear lamina in the nuclear envelope.
The laminin family of glycoproteins are an integral part of the structural scaffolding in almost every tissue of an organism.

125
Q

What are leydig cells?

A

Leydig cells are responsible for steroid hormone biosynthesis and so would be expected to contain a high amount of smooth ER.

126
Q

Which of the three capillary types is characterised by a large diameter, large intercellular clefts, large fenestrae, incomplete or absent basement membrane and a layer of specialised cells lining them?

A

Sinusoids.
The three capillary types are: continuous, fenestrated and sinusoids.
Continuous capillaries have small intercellular clefts, no fenestrae and a complete basement membrane. Fenestrated capillaries have small intercellular clefts, small fenestrae and a complete basement membrane.

127
Q

What is the function of pilli in bacteria?

A

Assist in attaching to cells and surfaces

128
Q

What are the main aims of costicosteroid intra-articular (joint) injections?

A

Corticosteroids are injected in the joint to reduce the inflammatory response present in patients with osteoarthritis. Viscous supplementation, on the other hand, is used to increase synovial fluid elasticity and viscosity, which are reduced in patients with osteoarthritis.

129
Q

How is sound produced by the larynx?

A

Air rushing past the closed vocal folds causes them to vibrate, thus producing sound. The vestibular folds are not involved in sound production.

130
Q

What is the origin for the lumbar plexus?

A

L1-L4

131
Q

Which WBC can cause a local inflammatory response by secreting histamine and/or heparin?

A

Basophils excrete histamine and heparin after interacting with IgE antibodies

132
Q

What is the difference between outer and inner hair cell function and innervation?

A

There are several differences between inner and outer hair cells, but the two primary ones are their function and their innervation. Inner hair cells are innervated primarily by afferent fibres and are vital for feeding sensory information to the brain. Outer hair cells are innervated primarily by efferent fibres. Normally outer hair cells function to amplify basilar membrane vibration, but efferent fibre stimulation of outer hair cells inhibits this amplification.

133
Q

In what type of junctions are there functions that work as ‘gates’ and ‘fences’?

A

Tight Junctions have functions that act as, ‘gates’ which regulate paracellular permeability, and ‘fences’ which forms an intramembrane diffusion barrier.

134
Q

Is the trapezoid an anatomical identification of the palmar (ventral) view of the hand?

A

No. In the palmar view, the hook of hamate, pisiform, distal scaphoid and trapezoid are all ventral.

135
Q

What is the name of the horizontal gene transfer process by which a bacterium can transfer its free DNA to another bacterium without being in contact?

A

Transformation.
Transduction: horizontal gene transfer by viral delivery (through a virus)
Conjugation: the bacteria have to be in direct contact to have gene transfer

136
Q

Which nerve supplies the external sphincter (of bladder) and is it sympathetic, parasympathetic or somatic?

A

This is the pudendal nerve which is somatic.

137
Q

What three muscles attach to the coracoid process of the Scapula?

A

The short head of the biceps brachii
The pectoralis minor
The Coracobrachialis

138
Q

What has to happen to mass and stiffness in order to increase resonance frequency?

A

Increase in stiffness and decrease in mass

139
Q

What is meant be tumour metastases through Transcoelomic spread?

A

Cells will secrete digestive enzymes to degrade proteins in the basal lamina then pass through and spread through body cavities

140
Q

What nerve supplies the adductor pollicis?

A

Ulna

141
Q

What muslces in the head does the median nerve serve?

A

The medial nerve supplies the LOAF muscle, namely: Lateral two lumbricals, Opponens pollicis, Abductor pollicis brevis, Flexor pollicis brevis

142
Q

At what vertebral level does the superior mesenteric artery originate?

A

L1

143
Q

At what vertebral level does the inferior mesenteric artery originate?

A

L3

144
Q

At what vertebral level does the coeliac trunk artery originate?

A

T12

145
Q

What three layers compose the basement membrane?

A

Basement membrane is composed of 3 layers: lamina lucida, lamina densa and lamina fibroreticularis

146
Q

Where is the Lamina propria found?

A

GI tract

147
Q

Is the silverskold test positive or negative in cerebral palsy?

A

Positive

148
Q

What is the tip-toe stance test?

A

The tip-toe stance test tests the integrity of the tibialis posterior tendon which is important in aetiology of adult acquired flatfoot deformity.

149
Q

Which factor directs the dermatome to become dermis?

A

Neurotrophin-3

150
Q

What order to the limbs develop?

A

The limbs develop in a proximal-distal sequence, the stylopod developing first as it will form the humerus and the femur, then the zeugopod which forms the radius and ulna or tibia and fibula and then the autopod which forms the digits, carpals, metacarpals, tarsals and metatarsals

151
Q

By which week in development are the primary centres of ossification present in all long bones?

A

Week 12

152
Q

What is the mutation in achondroplasia?

A

The switch from the amino acid glycine to the amino acid arginine of the 380th amino acid of FGFR3 causes the receptor to be constitutively active which results in achondroplasia

153
Q

What is the pes anserine?

A

The Pes Anserine, also called the ‘Goose Foot’ is the insertion of the sartorius, gracilis and semitendinosus muscles, which are conjoined proximally on the medial side of the Tibia. The three tendons of the Pes Anserine are located superficial to the medial collateral ligament (MCL) of the knee.

154
Q

What three muslces make up the pes anserine?

A

Graciilis, Sartorius and Semitendinosus. These muscles all insert on the medial tibial tuberosity and are important in extending the knee.

155
Q

What is the mnemonic for the pes anserine?

A

Say Grace before Tea.

This is the tendons anterior to posterior: Graciilis, Sartorius and Semitendinosus

156
Q

Epaxial muscles are innervated by…?

A

Dorsal Primary Rami

157
Q

In which week of development is limb development normally complete?

A

Week 8

158
Q

At what week in development does the terminal portion of the limb buds become flattened into handplates and footplates?

A

Week 6

159
Q

What is the function of bradykinin during wound healing?

A

Bradykinin is released by damaged tissues and loosens tight junctions between adjacent endothelial cells to allow neutrophils to squeeze through the gaps between endothelial cells and migrate towards the wound site.

160
Q

What is the contractive unit of a muslce?

A

Myofibre

161
Q

What is reticulin and what collagen does it have?

A

Reticulin is made up of collagen type III.

It forms a fine mesh which acts as a support in tissues such as the liver, bone marrow and lymphoid organs.

162
Q

Which part of the mesoderm are tendons formed from?

A

Tendons are derived from the sclerotome of the paraxial mesoderm, under the influence of transcription factor scleraxis.

163
Q

What is heparin sulphate component of?

A

Basement membrane

164
Q

How many arteries and veins does the umbilical cord contain?

A

2 arteries and 1 vein

165
Q

Explain the physiology o hearing, starting from the movement of stereo cilia

A

The movement of stereo cilia against the tectorial membrane, increases the tension in tip-link proteins, opening mechanically gated potassium ion channels, which depolarises the cell, opening voltage gated calcium ion channels so that a neurotransmitter is released from the base of the hair cell onto a nerve fibre

166
Q

What does the first triple pregnancy test measure?

A

ATP, Beta-hCG and Estroil

167
Q

What does the second quadruple pregnancy test measure?

A

ATP, Beta-hCG, Inhibin A and Estroil

168
Q

Which type of anti-hypertensive drug often causes a very sudden fall of blood pressure with the first dose?

A

ACE inhibitors

169
Q

Describe some changes of the cardiovascular system that occurs dirge exercise

A

Overall, the vasodilation of the skeletal muscles, heart and skin with exercise overrides the vasoconstriction of the kidneys and gastrointestinal organs to give an overall decrease in total peripheral resistance. MAP is a product of cardiac output and total peripheral resistance. Although total peripheral resistance has decreased, cardiac output increases to a greater extent so this has the effect of increasing MAP (but only by a small amount). Pulse pressure, however, increases significantly because an increase in both stroke volume and the speed at which the stroke volume is ejected result in a significant increase in systolic pressure.

170
Q

The stomach has an additional layer of muscle compared to the other parts of the digestive tract which aids in mechanical digestion. What is the order of these three muscular layers from most deep to most superficial?

A

Oblique, Circular, Longitudinal

171
Q

What factor does plasminogen deactivate?

A

Deactivates factors I, II, V and XII.

172
Q

On the antibody, which part is the variable region and what part is the constant region?

A

Constant: heavy
Variable: light

173
Q

What part of the antibody recognizes the epitope?

A

Variable

174
Q

Why is oil staining used?

A

To refract light

175
Q

What is the Lambdoid sutures between?

A

Occipital and Parietal

176
Q

What condition is common with P53?

A

Li-Fraumeni

177
Q

What are the three right division of the abdomen?

A

Right hypochondrium
Right Lumbar
Right Iliac

178
Q

What are the three middle divisions of the abdomen. top to bottom?

A

Epigastric
Umbilical
Hypogastric

179
Q

What are the three left division of the abdomen?

A

Left hypochondrium
Left Lumbar
Left Iliac

180
Q

What factors does warfarin inhibit?

A

Factors 2, 7, 9, 10

181
Q

What is the normal adult blood pressure?

A

120/80

182
Q

What are the five places for intramuscular injection site?

A
  • deltoid
  • gluteus maximus ( upper right quadrant)
  • rectus femoris
  • vastus lateralis
  • hip (ventrogluteal)
183
Q

What five things need to be checked before medication is given?

A
  • Right time
  • Right patient
  • Right medication
  • Right dose
  • Right route
184
Q

Where are muscle spindles found?

A

Muscle belly

185
Q

What are muscle spindles?

A

Sensory receptors found in the belly of the muscle

186
Q

What is the role of muslce spindles?

A

They detect changes in length about the muscle

Medicine Phase One (44 decks)

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