DIT Rapid-Fire Facts Flashcards

1
Q

Most common cause of neural tube defects

A

Folate deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Most common cause of congenital malformations

A

Alcohol use during pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Most common cause of congenital mental retardation in the US

A

Fetal Alcohol Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Hyperflexible joints, arachnodactyly, aortic dissection, and lens dislocation

A

Marfan Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Hereditary Nephritis, Cataracts, and sensorineural hearing loss

A

Alport Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Unilateral facial drooping involving the forehead

A

Bells Palsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Ptosis, miosis, and anhidrosis

A

Horner Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Amyloid deposits in gray matter of the brain

A

Senile plaques (Alzheimer Disease)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Drooling farmer

A

Organophosphate poisoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Inability to breastfeed, amenorrhea, cold intolerance

A

Sheehan’s Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Infertility, galactorrhea, and bitemporal hemianopsia

A

Prolactinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

4 most common causes of Cushing Syndrome

A
  1. Exogenous cortisol
  2. Ectopic ACTH
  3. Cushing Disease (Pituitary adenoma)
  4. Adrenal adenoma (very rare)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Most common tumor of the adrenal

A

Benign nonfunctional adrenal adenoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Most common tumor of the adrenal medulla in adults

A

Pheochromocytoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Most common tumor of the adrenal medulla in children

A

Neuroblastoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Most common cause of primary hyperaldosteronism

A

Adrenal adenoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Medical treatment for hyperaldosteronism

A

Spironolactone or Eplerenone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Medical treatment for pheochromocytoma

A

Non-selective alpha-blocker (phenoxybenzamine, phentolamine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Pheochromocytoma, medullary thyroid cancer, and hyperparathyroidism

A

MEN2a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Pheochromocytoma, Medullary thyroid cancer, and mucosal neuromas

A

MEN2b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Adrenal disease associated with skin hyperpigmentation

A

Addison’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

HTN, hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis

A

Conn syndrome (hyperaldosteronism)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Most common thyroid cancer

A

Papillary carcinoma of the thyroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Cold intolerance

A

Hypothyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Enlarged thyroid cells with ground-glass nuclei

A

These are called “Orphan Annie Eye” nuclei. Seen in Papillary carcinoma of thyroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Most common infections seen in chronic granulomatous disease

A

Staph Aureus, E. Coli, Klebsiella, Aspergillus, Candida

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Eczema, recurrent URI, high serum IgE

A

Hyperimmunoglobulin E syndrome (JOB syndrome)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Large lysosomal vesicles in phagocytes

A

Chediak-Higashi disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Dark purple nodules on the skin in an HIV patient

A

Kaposi Sarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Large cells with owl’s eye inclusions

A

CMV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Treatment for CMV

A

Ganciclovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Most common opportunistic infection in HIV patients

A

Pneumocystis jiroveci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Drug used to prevent pneumocystis jiroveci Pneumonia

A

TMP-SMX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Dysphagia, glossitis and iron deficiency anemia

A

Plummer-Vinson Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Hematemesis with retching

A

Usually Mallory Weiss Tear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Mucin-filled cell with a peripheral nucleus

A

Signet-ring cell seen in gastric cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Most common type of stomach cancer

A

Adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Ovarian metastasis from gastric cancer

A

Krukenberg tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Gastric ulcerations and high gastrin levels

A

Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Acute gastric ulcer associated with elevated ICP or head trauma

A

Cushing ulcer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Acute gastric ulcer associated with severe burns

A

Curling ulcer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Painless jaundice

A

Pancreatic cancer (especially in the head of the pancreas)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Most common cause of acute pancreatitis

A

Gallstones & Alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Most common cause of chronic pancreatitis

A

Alcohol abuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Standard treatment for DKA

A

IV fluids, IV insulin, Potassium replacement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Standard treatment for Type I DM

A

Insulin + low glycemic diet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Standard treatment for Type II DM

A

Oral hypoglycemic drugs, possibly insulin, low-sugar diet, weight loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Weight loss, diarrhea, arthritis, fever, adenopathy, and hyperpigmentation

A

Whipple disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Anti-transglutaminase/anti-gliadin/anti-endomysial antibodies

A

Celiac disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Vitamin given to pregnant women to prevent neural tube defects

A

Folate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Triglyceride accumulation in hepatocytes

A

Fatty Liver Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Eosinophilic inclusions in the cytoplasm of hepatocytes

A

Mallory bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Cancer closely linked to cirrhosis

A

Hepatocellular Carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Sever hyperbilirubinemia in a neonate

A

Type I Crigler-Najjar Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Mild, benign hyperbilirubinemia

A

Gilbert Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Hepatomegaly, abdominal pain, ascites

A

Budd-Chiari Syndrome (No JVD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Green/yellow corneal deposits

A

Wilson Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Low serum ceruloplasmin

A

Wilson Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Cirrhosis, diabetes and hyperpigmentation

A

Hemochromatosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Treatment for chronic hepatitis

A

Interferon Alpha

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Preferred anticoagulant for immediate anticoagulation

A

Heparin or Low Molecular Weight Heparin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Preferred anticoagulant for long-term anticoagulation

A

Warfarin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Preferred anticoagulant during pregnancy

A

Heparin or Low Molecular Weight Heparin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

A boy with self-mutilating behavior, mental retardation, and gout

A

Lesch-Nyhan Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Elevated Uric Acid levels

A

Gout
Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
Tumor Lysis syndrome
Loop or thiazide diuretics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Bluish-colored lines on the gingivae

A

These are Burton’s lines, seen in lead poisoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Causes of hypochromic, microcytic anemia

A

Iron deficiency
Thalassemia
Lead poisoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Hypersegmented neutrophils

A

Megaloblastic anemia (Usually B12 or Folate deficiency)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Skull x-ray shows a “hair-on-end” appearance

A

Marrow hyperplasia (Beta Thalassemia or sickle cell anemia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Basophilic stippling of RBCs

A

Lead poisoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Painful cyanosis of the finger and toes, with hemolytic anemia

A

Cold agglutinins (cold autoimmune hemolytic anemia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Red urine in the morning, and fragile RBCs

A

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Basophilic nuclear remnants in RBCs

A

Howell-Jolly bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Autosplenectomy

A

Sickle Cell disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Drug used to treat sickle cell disease

A

Hydroxyurea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Antiplatelet Antibodies

A

Immune Thrombocytopenic Purpura

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Bleeding disorder with gpIb deficiency

A

Bernard-Soulier Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Most common inherited bleeding disorder

A

VwF disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Cancer most commonly associated with a noninfectious fever

A

Hodgkin Lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

“Smudge cells”

A

CLL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

“Punched out” Lytic lesions

A

Multiple Myeloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Sheets of lymphoid cells, with a “Starry sky” appearance

A

Burkitt Lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

RBCs clumped together like a stack of coins

A

Multiple Myeloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Monoclonal antibody spike

A

Multiple Myeloma
MGUS
Waldenstrom Macroglobulinemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Reddish-Pink rods in the cytoplasma of leukemic blasts

A

Auer Rods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Large B cells with bilobed nuclei and prominent “Owl’s eye inclusions”

A

Reed Sternberg Cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Treatment of choice for rickets or osteomalacia

A

Vitamin D supplementation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Swollen gums, poor wound healing, bleeding mucous membranes, and spots on the skin

A

Vitamin C deficiency (Scurvy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Most common vitamin deficiency in the US

A

Folate deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Hypersegmented neutrophils

A

Megaloblastic anemia (B12 or folate deficiency)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Dilated cardiomyopathy, edema, and polyneuropathy

A

Thiamine (Vitamin B1) deficiency
Wet Beriberi sx include the cardiomyopathy and edema
Dry Beriberi sx include the polyneuropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Most common cancer of the appendix

A

Carcinoid tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Most common surgical emergency

A

Appendicitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

GI hamartomas, hyperpigmentation of the mouth and hands

A

Peutz-Jeghers syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Multiple colon polyps, osteomas, soft tissue tumors

A

Gardner syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Severe right lower quadrant pain with rebound tenderness

A

Appendicitis (this is McBurney’s sign)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

“Apple core” lesion on barium enema

A

Colon cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Most common site of colonic diverticula

A

Sigmoid colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

“string sign” on contrast x-ray

A

Crohn’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

“lead pipe” appearance of colon on contrast x-ray

A

Ulcerative colitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Food poisoning due to exotoxin

A

Staph Aureus or Bacillus Cereus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Osteomyelitis in sickle cell disease

A

Salmonella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Ring-enhancing brain lesion in an HIV patient

A

Toxoplasma Gondii

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Treatment for Trichomonas Vaginalis

A

Metronidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Most common protozoal diarrhea

A

Giardia lamblia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Most common helminth infection in the US

A

Enterobius Vermicularis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Second most common helminth infection in the US

A

Ascaris Lumbricoides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Chronic sinusitis, infertility, and situs inversus

A

Kartagener Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Elevated D-dimer

A

DVT +/- Pulmonary embolism

110
Q

Hypercoagulability, endothelial damage, stasis of blood

A

Virchow’s Triad

111
Q

Blue bloater

A

Chronic Bronchitis (Hypoxemia, hypercapnia)

112
Q

Pink puffer

A

Emphysema (dyspnea, hyperventilation)

113
Q

Curschmann’s spirals

A

Shed epithelium from mucus plugs that occur in asthma

114
Q

Most common cause of pulmonary hypertension

A

COPD

115
Q

Bilateral hilar adenopathy, uveitis

A

Sarcoidosis

116
Q

Vasculitis and glomerulonephritis

A

Wegeners Granulomatosis or Goodpastures disease

117
Q

Anti-glomerular basement membrane antibodies

A

Goodpastures disease

118
Q

Honeycomb lung on x-ray

A

Interstitial fibrosis

119
Q

“Tennis Racket” shaped cytoplasmic organelles

A

Birbeck granules (Histiocytosis X)

120
Q

Most common causes of nosocomial pneumonia

A

Klebsiella, E. Coli, Pseudomonas

121
Q

Lung cancer associated with SIADH

A

Small cell lung cancer

122
Q

Iron-containing nodules in the alveolar septum

A

Ferruginous bodies -> Asbestos

123
Q

Most common bacteria implicated in exotoxin-mediated food poisonings

A

Staph Aureus & Bacillus Cereus

124
Q

Branching gram-positive rods with sulfur granules

A

Actinomyces israelii

125
Q

Calcified granuloma in the lung, plus hilar lymphadenopathy

A

Ghon complex

126
Q

Back pain, fever, night sweats, and weight loss

A

Pott’s disease (vertebral TB infection)

127
Q

Standard treatment regimen for TB

A
"RIPE"
Rifampin
Isoniazid (with B6)
Pyrazinamide
Ethambutol
128
Q

Standard treatment for T. Pallidum

A

Penicillin G

129
Q

Cellulitis from a dog or cat bite

A

Pasteurella multocida

130
Q

A non-painful indurated, ulcerated genital lesion

A

Chancre of primary Syphilis

131
Q

Moist, smooth, flat, white genital lesion

A

Condylomata lata of secondary Syphilis

132
Q

Large bull’s-eye rash

A

Erythema Chronicum Migrans seen in Lyme disease

133
Q

Continuous machinery-like heart murmur

A

Patent ductus arteriosus

134
Q

“Boot-shaped heart”

A

Adult: Right ventricular hypertrophy
Child: Tetralogy of Fallot

135
Q

Rib notching

A

Coarctation of the aorta

136
Q

Most common congenital cardiac anomaly

A

Ventricular septal defect

137
Q

Most common congenital cause of early cyanosis

A

Tetralogy of Fallot

138
Q

Cor pulmonale

A

Right heart failure due to pulmonary disease

139
Q

Nutmeg liver

A

Passive congestion due to right heart failure or Budd-chiari syndrome

140
Q

Bounding pulses, head bobbing, diastolic murmur

A

Aortic regurgitation

141
Q

Most common congenital heart murmur

A

Mitral valve prolapse

142
Q

Chest pain, pericardial friction rub, and a persistent fever occuring several weeks after an MI

A

Dressler Syndrome

143
Q

Splinter hemorrhages under the fingernails

A

Bacterial endocarditis

144
Q

Retinal hemorrhages with pale centers

A

Roth spots

145
Q

Heart valve most commonly involved in bacterial endocarditis

A

Mitral valve

146
Q

Heart valve most commonly involved in an IV drug user with bacterial endocarditis

A

Tricuspid valve

147
Q

Granulomatous nodules in the heart

A

Aschoff bodies in Rheumatic heart disease

148
Q

Most common cardiac tumor in adults

A

Metastasis is the most common cardiac tumor in adults but Left atrial myxoma is the most common primary tumor in adults

149
Q

Most common primary cardiac tumor in children

A

Rhabdomyoma

150
Q

Most common cause of constrictive pericarditis

A

United States = Lupus

Developing countries = TB

151
Q

Cold, pale, painful digits

A

Raynaud Phenomenon

152
Q

c-ANCA

A

Wegeners granulomatosis (Granulomatosis with polyangiitis)

153
Q

p-ANCA

A

Microscopic polyangiitis & Churg-Strauss

154
Q

Treatment for Buergers disease

A

Stop smoking

155
Q

Treatment for Temporal (Giant cell) arteritis

A

High-dose steroids

156
Q

“worst headache of my life”

A

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

157
Q

Lucid interval following head trauma

A

Epidural hematoma

158
Q

Bloody CSF on LP

A

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

159
Q

Most common cause of subdural hematoma

A

Rupture of the bridging veins

160
Q

Most common cause of epidural hematoma

A

Rupture of middle meningeal artery

161
Q

Tow extension upon stimulating the sole of the foot with a blunt instrument

A

Positive babinski sign (Up going reflex)

162
Q

Hyperreflexia, increased muscle tone, and a positive babinski sign

A

Upper motor neuron lesion

163
Q

Hyporeflexia, decreased muscle tone, and muscle atrophy

A

Lower motor neuron lesion

164
Q

Depigmentation of the substantia nigra

A

Parkinsons disease

165
Q

Chorea, dementia, and atrophy of the caudate and putamen

A

Huntingtons disease

166
Q

Eosinophilic inclusions in the cytoplasm of neurons

A

Lewy bodies (seen in Parkinsons and Lewy Body Disease)

167
Q

Conjugate lateral gaze palsy, with nystagmus and diplopia during lateral gaze

A

Internuclear opthalmoplegia

168
Q

Degeneration of the dorsal columns

A

Tabes Dorsalis (seen in tertiary Syphilis)

169
Q

Demyelinating disease in a young woman

A

Multiple Sclerosis

170
Q

Mixed upper and lower motor neuron disease

A

ALS

171
Q

Newborn with arm paralysis following a difficult labor

A

Erb-Duchenne Palsy (Damage to superior roots of brachial plexus)

172
Q

Bone enlargement, bone pain, and arthritis

A

Paget disease of the bone

173
Q

Vertebral compression fractures

A

Osteoporosis

174
Q

Most common cause of hypercalcemia

A

Primary hyperparathyroidism

175
Q

Most common cause of primary hyperparathyroidism

A

Parathyroid adenoma

176
Q

Most common cause of secondary hyperparathyroidism

A

Chronic renal failure

177
Q

Most common cause of hypoparathyroidism

A

Accidental parathyroidectomy

178
Q

Facial muscle spasm when tapping on the cheek

A

Chvostek’s sign

179
Q

Parathyroid, pancreatic, and pituitary tumors

A

MEN I

180
Q

Positive anterior drawer sign

A

Torn ACL

181
Q

Swollen, red, acutely painful great toe joint

A

Podagra (Gout)

182
Q

Swollen, hard, painful finger joints

A

Osteoarthritis (Because the joints are hard)

183
Q

Swollen, boggy, painful finger joints

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

184
Q

Arthritis, dry mouth, dry eyes

A

Sjogren syndrome

185
Q

Positively birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals

A

Pseudogout

186
Q

Negatively birefringent needle-shaped crystals

A

Gout

187
Q

Cartilage erosion with polished bone beneath

A

Osteoarthritis

188
Q

Bamboo spine on X-ray

A

Ankylosing Spondylitis

189
Q

HLA-B27

A
Seronegative Spondyloarthropathies
"PAIR"
Psoriatic Arthritis
Ankylosing Spondylitis
Inflammatory Bowel Disease
190
Q

Anti-smith and anti-dsDNA antibodies

A

Drug-induced lupus

191
Q

Anti-centromere antibodies

A

CREST Scleroderma

192
Q

Anti-Topoisomerase antibodies

A

Diffuse Scleroderma

193
Q

Facial rash and Raynaud phenomenon in a young woman

A

Lupus

194
Q

Most common cause of death in SLE

A

Lupus nephritis

195
Q

Most common cardiac manifestation of SLE

A

Libman-Sacks endocarditis

196
Q

Keratin pearls on skin biopsy

A

Saquamous cell carcinoma

197
Q

Most common malignant skin tumor

A

Basal cell carcinoma

198
Q

Most common opportunistic infection in HIV patients

A

Pneumocystis jirovecii

199
Q

Prophylaxis for Cryptococcus in AIDS patients

A

Fluconazole

200
Q

Prophylaxis for PCP in AIDS patients

A

TMP-SMX

201
Q

Treatment for Sporothrix schenckii

A

Oral Potassium iodide
or
Itraconazole

202
Q

Treatment for oral candidiasis

A

Nystatin
Or
Fluconazole

203
Q

Treatment for systemic candidiasis

A

Amphotericin B

204
Q

Pupil that accommodates but does not react to light

A

Argyll-Robertson Pupil (Due to neurosyphilis)

205
Q

Most common medication for ADHD

A

Methylphenidate

206
Q

Most common medication for bulimia nervosa

A

SSRI

207
Q

Medical treatment for alcohol withdrawal

A

Benzodiazepines

208
Q

Most effective treatment for alcohol abuse

A

Alcoholics anonymous

209
Q

Atrophy of the mammillary bodies

A

Wernicke Encephalopathy

210
Q

Most common cause of dementia

A

Alzheimer disease

211
Q

Second most common cause of dementia

A

Multi-infarct dementia

212
Q

Extracellular amyloid deposits in the grey matter

A

Senile plaques in Alzheimer disease

213
Q

Intracellular deposits of hyperphosphorylated tau protein

A

Neurofibrillary tangles (Alzheimer disease)

214
Q

Intracellular sperical aggregates of tau protein, see on silver stain

A

Pick bodies seen in Pick disease

215
Q

Treatment for central DI

A

Desmopressin

216
Q

Treatment for nephrogenic DI

A

Hydrochlorothiazide, Indomethacin, Amiloride

217
Q

Treatmetn for lithium-induced nephrogenic DI

A

Amiloride

218
Q

Nodular hyaline deposits in the glomeruli

A

Kimmelstiel-Wilson Nodules

219
Q

Glomerulonephritis plus pulmonary vasculitis

A

Wegener’s Granulomatosis

220
Q

Red cell casts

A

Acute glomerulonephritis

221
Q

Waxy casts

A

Advanced renal disease/Chronic renal failure

222
Q

Thyroid-like appearance of kidney

A

Chronic pyelonephritis

223
Q

Most common renal tumor

A

Renal cell carcinoma

224
Q

Most common type of renal stone

A

Calcium stone

225
Q

Type of renal stone associated with proteus vulgaris

A

Struvite stone (Ammonium magnesium phosphate) - Can form Staghorn calculi

226
Q

Most common medication used for UTI prophylaxis

A

TMP-SMX

227
Q

Most common bacteria in a patient with Struvite kidney stones

A

Proteus (also Staph)

228
Q

Dark purple nodules on the skin in an HIV patient

A

Kaposi Sarcoma (HHV-8)

229
Q

Temporal lobe encephalitis

A

HSV-1 Encephalitis

230
Q

Owl’s eye inclusions in monocytes

A

CMV infection

231
Q

Intranuclear eosinophilic droplets

A

Type A Cowdry bodies (HSV & CMV)

232
Q

Aplastic anemia in a sickle cell patient

A

Parvovirus B19

233
Q

Child with a fever and “slapped cheek” rash on the face that spreads to his body

A

Fifth disease (Parvovirus B19)

234
Q

Fever, runny nose, cough, conjunctivitis, and diffuse rash

A

Measles (Rubeola)

235
Q

Small irregular blue-gray spots on the buccal mucosa, surrounded by a base of red

A

Koplik spots (Measles)

236
Q

Most common etiology of nosocomial pneumonia

A

Klebsiella, E. Coli, Pseudomonas

237
Q

Most common etiology of bacterial meningitis in neonates

A

Group B strep (Followed by E. Coli and then Listeria)

238
Q

Most common etiology of bacterial meningitis in children

A

Strep pneumoniae (Followed by Neisseria meningitidis)

239
Q

Most common etiology of bacterial meningitis in adults

A

Strep pneumoniae (Followed by Neisseria meningitidis)

240
Q

Osteomyelitis in an IV drug user

A

Staph aureus or Pseudomonas (Staph is overall the most common but they might be hinting at Pseudomonas with the IV drug abuse)

241
Q

Osteomyelitis in a sickle cell patient

A

Salmonella (Staph is actually still more common but salmonella is particularly common in sickle cell patients)

242
Q

Most common reportable STD

A

Chlamydia

243
Q

Non-painful indurated, ulcerated genital lesion

A

Primary Syphillis

244
Q

Painful indurated, ulcerated genital lesion, with exudate

A

Chancroid (Haemophilus ducreyi)

245
Q

Stippled vaginal epithelial cells on a wet prep of vaginal discharge

A

Clue cells (Bacterial vaginosis)

246
Q

Common treatment for Syphillis

A

Penicillin

247
Q

Common treatment for Trichomonas

A

Metronidazole

248
Q

Common treatment for Chlamydia

A

Doxycycline or Azithromycin

249
Q

Common treatment for gonorrhea

A

Ceftriaxone (usually treat Chlamydia also due to common co-infection. Thus Ceftriaxone + Doxycycline or Azithromycin)

250
Q

Most common cancer in men

A

Prostate cancer

251
Q

Most common cause of urinary obstruction in men

A

BPH

252
Q

Most common treatment for erectile dysfunction

A

Phosphodiesterase inhibitors (Sildenafil)

253
Q

Dysplastic cervical cells, with enlarged dark nuclei

A

Koilocyte

254
Q

Diethylstilbestrol (DES) exposure

A

Clear cell adenocarcinoma of the vagina

255
Q

Most common tumor in women

A

Leiomyoma

256
Q

Most common gynecologic malignancy in the US

A

Endometrial carcinoma

257
Q

Most common gynegologic malignancy worldwide

A

Cervical cancer

258
Q

Chocolate cyst of the ovary

A

Endometriosis

259
Q

Most common benign ovarian tumor

A

Serous cystadenoma

260
Q

Most common malignant ovarian tumor

A

Serous cystadenocarcinoma

261
Q

Disarrayed granulosa cells in eosinophilic fluid

A

Call-Exner bodies (Granulosa-Theca cell tumor)

262
Q

Increased AFP on amniocentesis

A

Neural tube defects, anencephaly, incorrect pregnancy dating

263
Q

Most common genetic cause of mental retardation

A

Down syndrome

264
Q

Second most common genetic cause of mental retardation

A

Fragile-X syndrome

265
Q

Horseshoe kidney, congenital heart defects, streak ovaries, and cystic hygroma

A

Turner syndrome

266
Q

Rocker-bottom feet, clenched hands, microcephaly with prominent occiput, small jaw

A

Trisomy 18 (Edward syndrome)

267
Q

Most common cancer in women in the US

A

Breast cancer

268
Q

Most common benign breast tumor

A

Fibroadenoma

269
Q

Most common malignant breast tumor

A

Infiltrating ductal adenocarcinoma

270
Q

Blue dome cyst in the breast

A

Fibrocystic change

271
Q

Treatment for ER(+) breast cancer

A

Tamoxifen

272
Q

Red, itchy, swollen rash on the areola and nipple

A

Paget disease of the breast