Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Microbiology Lecture Slides > Mycoplasma, Spirochetes, Chlamydia, and Rickettsia I > Flashcards

Mycoplasma, Spirochetes, Chlamydia, and Rickettsia I Flashcards

1
Q

Cannot synthesize ATP without host cell instead has a transport system to import into cell

-Obligate intracellular parasites

A

Chlamydia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Has a small genome, in fact Mycoplasma is the only other bacteria with smaller genome; however, mycoplasma can synthesize most of their proteins and RNA

A

Chlamydia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Three species in genus Chlamydia, C. trachomatis, C. pneumoniae, and C. psittaci, are associated with

A

Human disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The extracellular form of chalmydia is

A

Spore-like

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Where do all chalmydia replicate?

A

Cytoplasm of their host

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Serotypes of this one organism cause a wide variety of diseases such as:
• ocular trachoma
• inclusion conjunctivitis-adult/perinatal
• infant pneumonia
• genital tract infections
• lymphogranuloma venereum

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis is the most common cause of preventable

A

Blindness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Natural infection with C. trachomatisappears to confer very little protection against

A

Reinfection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Chronic conjunctivitis, progresses into scarring and blindness

-in endemic areas, usually occurs early in life and persists for several years

A

Ocular Trachoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

An acute infection of the conjunctiva

A

Inclusion conjunctivitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

50% of adults with inclusion conjunctivitis have concurrent

A

Genital tract infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

In infants, usually acquired during passage through infected birth canal

A

Inclusion conjunctivitis from chlamydia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

In the US, all newborns are given prophylactic treatment with

A

Erythromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

10-20% infants born to mothers with genital tract infections develop

A

Infant pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

50% of infants with pneumonia have a history of

A

Conjunctivitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The majority of genital chlamydial infections in both males and females are

A

Asymptomatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

In woman, infection can lead to cervicitis, urethritis, pelvic inflammatory disease; the latter may lead to infertility or ectopic pregnancy

A

Chlamydia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

In woman, infection increases risk of HIV infection up to 5-fold

A

Chlamydia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

In men, chlamydia infection can lead to nongonococcal

A

Urethritis, epididymitis, or proctitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

PCR-based tests from vaginal swab (women) or urine (men) are used to test for

A

Chlamydia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

We can test for cervical cancer and Chlamydia with a single ThinPrep

A

Endocervical specimen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Of the three species of Chlamydia, the most common cause of human infection is

A

Chlamydia pneumoniae (TWAR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The serovar TWAR is only recognized serovar of

A

Chlamydia pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Chlamydia pneumoniae is most common in children ages

A

5-14

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Mostly associated with mild upper respiratory tract infections but can also cause pneumonia or bronchitis

A

Chlamydia pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Cause psittacosis (parrots, parakeets, cockatoos, etc.) or ornithosis (domestic & free living birds); zoonosis contracted through inhalation of respiratory secretions or dust from droppings of infected animals, or through handling of infected tissues

A

Chlamydia psittaci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Category B level bio-terrorism agent because it can be aerosolized

A

Chlamydia psittaci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Occurs in a wide range of avian species, but may infect other animals as well

A

Chlamydia psittaci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Human to human transmission of chlamydia psittaci is

A

Rare

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Produces spectrum of clinical manifestations ranging from severe pneumonia to mild and undetectable infection–hard to diagnose

A

Chlamydia psittaci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The most common symptoms of chlamydia psittaci are

A

Fever, headache, and sore throat

-cough not present initially but is in late disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the general features of spirochetes?

A

Gram negative with coiled cell wall, motile, endoflagella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Depending on the organism, culture is either very difficult or has not yet been demonstrated for

A

Spirochetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the three genera of spirochetes that cause disease in humans and animals?

A

Borrelia, Leptospira, and Treponema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Borrelia burgdorferi is commonly known as the cause of

A

Lyme disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Borrelia recurrentis is commonly known as

A

Relapsing fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Treponema palidum is commonly known as

A

Syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Difficult to culture in the laboratory

-Has very limited biosynthetic capacity and depends on host cell to fulfill nutritional requirements

A

B. burgdorferi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Transmitted by the bite of the small deer tick Ixodes

A

Borrelia burgdorferi (Lyme disease)

40
Q

A living animal or plant on or in which a parasite lives

A

Host

41
Q

An organism in which a parasite that is pathogenic for some other species lives and multiplies without damaging its host

A

Reservoir

42
Q

An organism (as an insect) that transmits a pathogen from one organism or source to another

A

Vector

43
Q

The most common vector borne illness in the US and Europe

A

Lyme disease

44
Q

Is also a vector for other pathogens; therefore, coinfection with B. burgdorferi and another organism is not uncommon (sometimes as high as 40%)

A

Ixodes

45
Q

~80% of coinfections in the East Coast involve Lyme disease and

A

Babesiosis

46
Q

Transmission of lyme disease requires tick attachment for a minimum of

A

24 hours

47
Q

Can be used prophylactically to treat lyme disease from a tick bite

A

Chemoprophylaxis with Doxycycline

48
Q

Surface exposed lipoproteins (OspA-F) are the only known virulence factors of

A

B. burgdorferi

49
Q

A lipoprotein that mediates spirochete attachment to the tick gut, and to each other

A

OspA

50
Q

Infection is highly variable among patients, can be brief or chronic, affect one or multiple systems

A

Lyme disease

51
Q

Early infection stage 1 of lyme disease is a

A

Localized infection

52
Q

This stage is characterized by a slowly expanding erythema migrans within

A

7-10 days after tick bite

53
Q

Hot to the touch and causes a burning sensation; sometimes it itches and is painful

A

Erythema migrans

54
Q

Early infection stage 2 of lyme disease is

A

Disseminated infection

55
Q

Days to weeks after an infected tick bite, we see

A

Flu-like symptoms and multiple skin lesions

56
Q

Weeks to months after an infected tick bite, we see

A

Musculosceletal pain and potentially Bell’s palsy

57
Q

Late infection, i.e. stage 3, occurs months to years after the tick bite and is classified as

A

Persistent infection

58
Q

Presents with chronic nervous system and joint involvement; Lyme arthritis in primarily large joints, especially the knee

A

Late infection (stage 3)

59
Q

What are the three most common clinical manifestations of confirmed lyme disease?

A

Bells palsy, arthritis, and Erythema migrans

60
Q

Presence of EM, clinical presentation and exposure in an endemic area often prompts antibiotic treatment without

A

Serologic confirmation

61
Q

In the absence of EM, the CDC recommends a two-test serological approach. What are the steps

A

1.) EIA first

If positive or ambiguous,

2.) Confirm with western blot

62
Q

What is the criteria for lyme disease in a western blot using

  1. ) IgG
  2. ) IgM
A
  1. ) 5 out of 10 must react

2. ) 2 out of 3 must react

63
Q

How many mycoplasma organisms are definitively associated with human disease?

A

4

64
Q

Which mycoplasma causes upper respiratory infection, bronchitis, and pneumonia

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

65
Q

Which mycoplasma cause

  1. ) In men: nongonococcal urethritis
  2. ) In women: vaginosus, cervicitis, and PID
A

Ureaplasma urealyticum, mycoplasma hominis, and mycoplasma genitalium

66
Q

Smallest free-living organism (size and genome)that can also be cultured on laboratory media

A

Mycoplasma

67
Q

Mycoplasma are highly polymorphic in shape due to

A

Lack of a rigid cell wall (No peptidoglycan)

68
Q

Have no rigid cell wall due to no peptidoglycan. But instead have a three-layered cell membrane

A

Mycoplasma

69
Q

Completely resistant to penicillin and other antibiotics that attack cell wall

A

Mycoplasma

70
Q

Mycoplasma generally stains

A

Poorly or not at all

71
Q

Because they lack a cell wall, the major antigenic determinants of mycoplasmas are

A

Membrane glycolipids and proteins

72
Q

Therefore, antibodies to mycoplasmas cross-react with

A

Human tissues

73
Q

Colonies of the most clinically important mycoplasma species, M. pneumoniae,classically described as having a

A

Dense mulberry shape

-can also be spherical

74
Q

Colonies from the other three species have a characteristic

A

Fried egg appearance

75
Q

What do mycobacteria require in a media in order to grow?

A

A cholesterol source

76
Q

Have sterol-containing membranes

A

Mycobacteria

77
Q

Transmitted from person-to-person by coughing, respiratory secretions

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae and atypical (or walking) pneumonia

78
Q

A prominent causative agent of pneumonia; especially in closed populations (military recruit camps, boarding schools, colleges, summer camps)

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

79
Q

Prospective studies suggest that M. pneumoniae accounts for 15% -20% of adult community-acquired

A

Lower respiratory infections

80
Q

This respiratory pathogenicity is due to the high affinity of M. pneumoniae for

A

Respiratory epithelial cells

81
Q

Attachment occurs at the base of the cilia and is mediated by a terminal organelle composed of adhesins and auxiliary proteins at one end of

A

M. pneumoniae

82
Q

What part of epithelial cells acts as a receptor for M. pneumoniae?

-on cell surface

A

A glycoprotein

83
Q

Adherence-deficient mutants are

A

Avirulent

84
Q

Adherence-deficient mutants are avirulent; adhesins(P1, P30, P65 and P116) and their auxiliary proteins (HMW1, 2, 3) are the primary

A

Pathogenic elements

85
Q

Attachment leads to loss of ciliary action, followed by loss of cilia, then sloughing of the cell into the lumen; this action thought to underlie the hallmark

A

Cough

86
Q

A clinical characteristic of atypical pneumonia is an incubation period of 2-3 weeks. Vs. the 1-3 days seen for

A

Viral respiratory infections

87
Q

Typically a gradual(occurring over several days) onset offever, malaise, headache, cough (slow onset and cough are clinical hallmarks)

A

Atypical pneumonia

88
Q

We primarily see upper respiratory infections with ages

A

3 or less

89
Q

Between ages 5 and 20, we see

A

Bronchitis and pneumonia

90
Q

Mycoplasma infection leads to the formation of cold agglutinins. These are

A

IgM anti-bodies

91
Q

Patients with sickle-cell disease or related diseases are more susceptible to higher disease severity from

A

M. pneumoniae

92
Q

Culturing M. pneumoniae is not practical because it can take up to

A

2 weeks

93
Q

An obsolete test for M. pneumonia; not specific or sensitive enough for diagnostic purposes

A

Cold agglutination

94
Q

The most specific and rapid tests for M. pneumonia

A

PCR-based tests

95
Q

Outpatients presenting with pneumonia are often treated with standard therapy for community acquired pneumonia (CAP), which may not be effective against

A

M. pneumonia

96
Q

This is because M. pneumonia does not respond to

A

B-lactam antibiotics

Microbiology Lecture Slides (24 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions