GI Flashcards

1
Q

What are the segments of the GI tract?

A

Mouth, pharynx,esophagus, stomach, SI, LI, anus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the layers of the GI tract?

A
  1. serosa 2. longitudinal muscle 3. myenteric (auerbach’s) nerve plexus 4. circular muscle 5. submucosa 6. submucisal (Meissner’s) nerve plexus 7. muscularis mucosae 8. mucosa 9. epithelial lining
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the primary control over the intrinsic control of the GI tract?

A

ENS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the primary control over the extrinsic control of the GI tract?

A

ANS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe the intrinsic control of the GI tract.

A

via the myenteric plexus: in the longitudinal and circular SM layers: functions to control motility by controling the tonic contraction and frequency/intensity and sphincter tone
Submucosal plexus: local control of secretion,absorption, and contraction of muscularis (helps control SA of the epithelium)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which component of the ANS stimulates extrinsic control? inhibits?

A

PNS thru vagal nerves and pelvic nerves, SNS via ganglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

All of the blood that flows through the gut, spleen, and pancreas flows to the liver via what?

A

portal vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Blood passes through minute liver sinusoids and leave via what?

A

hepatic veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What does the blood flow through the liver allow?

A

reticuloendothelial cells to remove bacteria and other particulate matter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the main controllers of blood flow?

A

Local activity, induced by activity, and Nervous control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Briefly describe the local control of blood flow.

A

based on demand - if eat = increased blood flow for 3-6 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Briefly describe the nervoue control of blood flow.

A

The PNS increases gut activity which increases blood flow (by vasoconstriction) and the SNS directly decreases blood flow (for things like exercise, shock, and autoregulatory escape)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the causes of activity-induced blood flow?

A

vasodilator hormones (gastrin, secretin, CCK), vasodilator kinins, low O2 (high adenosine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

True/False: Due to the opposite flow of veins and arteries, O2 diffuses out of the arterioles directly into the adjacent venules without being carried to the tips of the villi.

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

In diseases conditions (such as shock), what happens to the blood flow and O2?

A

blood flow to the gut becomes curtailed and O2 deficiency in the tips of the villi develops -> ischemic death and disintegration = diminished absorptive capacity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the types of GI regulatory substances?

A

endocrines (hormones), neurocrines (neurotransmitters), and paracrines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Describe the MOA of endocrines.

A

released into blood to act on distant target cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Describe the MOA of neurocrines.

A

released via nerves to diffuse to target cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Describe the MOA for paracrines.

A

endocrine cells release for diffusion to local target cells (not released in circulation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the main GI hormones?

A

Gastrin, secretin, CCK, GIP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the function of gastrin?

A

Promotes H+ secretion by gastric parietal cells, stimulates growth of mucosi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What releases gastrin?

A

G cells in antrum and duodenum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Surgical removal of the antrum of the stomach causes what?

A

atrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What stimulates gastrin release?

A

protein digestion products, nervous, physical distention, Ca2+, decaf coffee, wine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What inhibits gastrin release?

A

acidification of antrum (negative feedback: G cells stimulated by high pH release gastrin which will then release H+ to lower pH which will stop releasing gastrin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Gastrinoma/Zollinger-Ellison Sydrome cause what to happen with gastrin secretion?

A

continuous secretion of gastin into blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What does hypergastrinemia cause?

A

hypersecretion of acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the effects of hyper secretion of acid?

A

increased parietal cell mass, constant stimulation of hyperplastic muscosa, hypertrophy of gastric mucosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are symptoms of Gastrinoma/ZES?

A

peptic ulcers, diarrhea, steatorrhea (fat in feces), hypokalemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the function of CCK?

A

promote fat digestion and absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What release CCK and in response to what?

A

I-cells in duodenum and jejunum in response to MG or FA, peptides and single AA, acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the major actions of CCK?

A

empty gallbladder (contracts it and relaxes the sphincter or Oddi), secrete pancreatic enzymes and HCo3- 3. inhibits gastric emptying 4. growth of exocrine pancreas and GB mucosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the function of secretin?

A

counteract acidity - inhibit gastric acid secretion, stimulates pancreatic and bile bicarbonate secretion for fat digestion, and growth of exocrine pancreas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What releases secretin and what stimulates its release?

A

S-cells of duodenal muscosa,

acid in dudoenum (pH <4.5), FAs in duodenum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the effects of GIP?

A

Glucose-dependent Insulinotropic peptide = stimulates insulin release also called “Gastric inhibitory peptide” = inhibits gastric acid secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Describe the release and stimuli of GIP.

A

released from K cells of duodenum and proximal jejunum, released in response to all major nutrients (CHO, AA, fat), oral glucose (incretin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the candidate hormones?

A

motilin, pancreatic polypeptide, enteroglucagon, Glucagon-like peptide (GLP-1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is motilin and when/where is it secreted from?

A

secreted from upper duodenum during fasting states, increases GI motility by inititating myoelectric complexes at 90 minute intervals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is Pancreatic Polypeptide and when/where is it secreted from?

A

secreted by the pancreas in response to ingestion of CHO, proteins, or lipids. inhibits pancreatic secretion of HCO3 and enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is enteroglucagon and when/where is it secreted from?

A

released fro intestinal cells in response to a decrease in blood glucose concentration, stimulates the liver to increase glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is GLP1 and when/where is it secreted from?

A

Produced from proglucagon, secreted by L cells of the S1, is classified as an incretin becise it stimulates insulin secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are treatments of ZES?

A

administration of H2 receptor-blocking drugs (cimetidine), admin of H+ pump inhibitors (omeprazole), removal of tumor, gastric resection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are the two paracrines discussed for the GI tract?

A

somatostatin and histamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the function of somatostatin?

A

inhibit secretion of other GI hormines, inhibits gastric H+ secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the function of histamine?

A

along with gastrin and Ach, stimulate H+ secretion by gastric parietal cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are the neurocrines of the GI tract?

A

ACh, NE, Vasoactive Intestinal Peptide, Gastrin-Releasing Peptide/Bombesin, Enkephalins (opiates), Neuropeptide Y, and substance P

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What effect does ACh have on GI?

A

contraction of SM in wall, relaxation of sphincters, increase salivation, increase gastric and pancreatic secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What effect does NE have on GI?

A

Relaxation of SM in wall, contraction of sphincters, increase salivation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What effect does VIP have on GI?

A

Relaxation of SM, increase intestinal secretion, pancreatic secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What effect does enkephalins have on GI?

A

contract SM, decrease intestinal secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What effect does neuropeptide Y have on GI?

A

Relax SM, decrease intestinal secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What effect does Substance P have on GI?

A

contraction of smooth muscle, increase salivary secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What does circular muscle contractions do?

A

shorten lumen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What does longitudinal muscle contractions do?

A

decrease the length of the segment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What are the types of contractions?

A

phasic, tonic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What are phasic contractions?

A

periodic, followed by relaxations

57
Q

What are tonic contractions?

A

maintain a constant tone without regular periods of relaxations

58
Q

True/False: slow waves are action potentials.

A

false.

59
Q

What are the slow waves?

A

oscillating depolarizations (rhythmical changes in MP caused by variations in sodium conductance)

60
Q

What is the frequency of the slow waves?

A

3-12 waves/min, dependent of which portion

61
Q

What are the true action potentials?

A

spike potentials

62
Q

When do the spike potentials occur?

A

when slow waves reach threshold (~-40 mV)

63
Q

What happens when spike potentials occur?

A

cause SM contraction and Ca2+ entry by voltage gated Ca2+ channels

64
Q

The stomach has closer to _ waves/min, while the duodenum is closer to _.

A

3-5, 12

65
Q

What is the purpose of chewing?

A

to break apart indigestible cellulose, increase surface area by decreasing the size of the particles, and mix with saliva to begin digestion and lubricate for swallowing

66
Q

What are the stages of swallowing?

A

Oral phase (initiates swallowing process), pharyngeal phase (involuntary - food thru pharynx to esophagus), esophageal phase (involuntary - eso to stomach)

67
Q

What are the steps of the esophageal phase?

A
  1. UES opens to allow the bolus to go from pharynx to eso
  2. primary peristaltic contraction (swallowing reflex)
  3. LES opens and orad region of stomach relaxes for movement into stomach
  4. secondary peristaltic wave (if the first does not clear the bolus)
68
Q

Which peristalsis can still occur after a vagotomy?

A

secondary

69
Q

What are some disorders of swallowing (dysphagia)?

A
  1. CVA/cranial nerve damage
  2. muscular diseases (myasthenia gravis,, polio, botulism)
  3. anesthetia
70
Q

What are the functional areas of the stomach?

A

orad, caudad

71
Q

Which stomach area relaxes to accomodate food?

A

orad area (receptive relaxation)

72
Q

In which stomach area does food mix with gastric juice?

A

caudad (retropulsion)

73
Q

In which stomach area is chyme propelled into the duodenum?

A

caudad area

74
Q

What part of the stomach churns the trapped material?

A

antrum

75
Q

By what mechanism does the stomach receive receptive relaxation?

A

Vagovagal reflex - vagal aff. carry impulses to CNS and vagal eff. carry impulses from CNS to stomach

76
Q

What abolishes receptive relaxation?

A

vagotomy

77
Q

What increases gastric distensibility and how?

A

CCK by decreasing gastric emptying

78
Q

What factors increase gastric emptying?

A

increased tone of the orad, forceful peristaltic contractions, decreased tone of the pylorus, absence of segmental contractions in the intestine

79
Q

What factors decrease gastric emptying?

A

activation of receptors in intestinal mucosa initiates enterogastric reflexes to inhibit by relaxation of the orad, decreased force of peristaltic contraction, increased tone of pylorus, and segmental contractions in intestine

80
Q

What are the receptor triggered enterogastric reflexes discussed?

A

Fat/proteins stimulate CCK release which increases gastric distensibility - decreases gastric emptying

Acid decreases gastric emptying via intrinsic neural reflex

81
Q

How does small intestinal motility contribute to digestion and absorption?

A
  1. mixes chyme with digestive enzymes and other secretions
  2. circulation of chyme to achieve optima exposure to mucosa
  3. propulsion of chyme
82
Q

What are the two types of contractions?

A

segmental and peristaltic

83
Q

What type of SI contraction propels the chyme?

A

peristaltic

84
Q

What type of SI contraction mixes the chyme?

A

Segmental

85
Q

What are the contents called once they reach the LI?

A

feces

86
Q

What are the functions of LI SM?

A

mix chyme to enhance fluid/electrolyte absorption (haustral contractions),
propels fecal material (mass movements)

87
Q

What occurs in the colon to move feces for bowel movement to occur from the difficulty created by the contents becoming semi-solid from water absorption?

A

Mass movements

88
Q

Poor motility causes greater absorption, and hard feces in the colon can cause what?

A

constipation

89
Q

Excess motility that causes less absorption can cause what?

A

diarrhea/loose feces

90
Q

As the rectum fills with feces, what works to contract the wall and relax the internal anal sphincter?

A

Rectosphoncteric reflex

91
Q

Defecation will not occur until what other anal sphincter relaxes?

A

external (under voluntary control)

92
Q

At what percentage of filled capacity does the urge to defecate arise?

A

25%

93
Q

What is the term given to the distension of the stomach by food ingestion which increases the motility of the colon and frequency of mass movements?

A

gastrocolic reflex

94
Q

How much saliva is produced by the salivary glands per day?

A

1L

95
Q

Which cells produce the primary secretion?

A

acinar cells

96
Q

Which cells modify the primary secretion?

A

ductal cells

97
Q

What factors stimulate saliva secretion?

A

conditioning, food, nausea, smell

98
Q

What factors inhibit saliva secretion?

A

dehydration, fear, sleep

99
Q

What do the stimulating and inhibiting factors act on to regulate the saliva production?

A

PNS

100
Q

True/False: Regulation of saliva secretion is under the control of the PNS.

A

False, it is by both the PNS and SNS

101
Q

Describe the mechanism behind PNS control of saliva secretion.

A

the input is carried on the CN VIi and CN IX to release ACh to interact with muscarinic receptors on the acinar and ductal cells. Activation of these receptors produces IP3 and increased intracellular Ca2+ which produce the physiologic action of increased saliva secretion, primarily by increasing the volume of saliva and the enzymatic component

102
Q

Describe the mechanism behind SNS control of saliva secretion.

A

input sent to T1-T3 preganglionic nerves, the postganglionic SNS neurons release NE which interacts with Beta adrenergic receptors to stimulate adenyly cyclase and produce cAMP which increase saliva secretion.

103
Q

Cells of the gastric mucosa secrete what?

A

gastric juice

104
Q

What are the components of gastric juice?

A

HCL, pepsinogen, intrinsic factor (vit B12 absorption), mucus

105
Q

The body of the stomach contains what type of glands?

A

oxyntic glands

106
Q

What do these oxyntic glands of the body of the stomach contain?

A

parietal cells and chief cells

107
Q

What do the parietal cells of the oxyntic glands do?

A

secrete HCL and IF

108
Q

What do the chief cells of the oxyntic glands do?

A

secrete pepsinogen

109
Q

The antrum of the stomach contain what type of glands?

A

pyloric glands

110
Q

What do the pyloric glands of the antrum contain?

A

G cells and mucus neck cells

111
Q

What do the G cells of the pyloric glands do?

A

secrete gastrin

112
Q

What do the mucus neck cells of the pyloric glands do?

A

secrete mucus, HCO3, and pepsinogen

113
Q

What are the phases of gastric secretion?

A

Cephalic phase, gastric phase, and intestinal phase

114
Q

Briefly describe the cephalic phase of Gastric secretion.

A

the anticipatory response (from smelling, tasting, chewing, swallowing, conditioned reflexes) - secrete HCl by direct stimulation of the parietal cells via vagus nerve (releasing ACh) and indirect stimulation of the parietal cells by gastrin (go to circulation to increase HCl secretion)

115
Q

Briefly describe the gastric phase of gastric secretion.

A

distension of the stomach and presence of AA and small peptides stimulate HCl secretion. (four mechanisms: 2 = distension = vagal stimulation of parietal cells and indirect stimulation of parietal cells by gastrin, distension of the stomach antrum causes local reflexes to stimulate gastrin release, and AA and small peptides on the G cells stimulate gastin release)

116
Q

Name two “food-like” substances that also stimulate gastric HCl secretion.

A

alcohol and caffiene

117
Q

Briefly describe the intestinal phase of gastric secretion.

A

mediated by the products of protein digestion (by nervous and hormonal mechanisms)

118
Q

What percentage of HCl is secreted from the cephalic phase?

A

30%

119
Q

What percentage of HCl is secreted from the gastric phase?

A

60%

120
Q

What percentage of HCl is secreted from the intestinal phase?

A

10%

121
Q

What are some things that inhibit H+ secretion?

A

decreased pH of the gastric contents, somatostatin, prostaglandins

122
Q

What are some things that stimulate H+ secretion?

A

Ach, Gastrin, Histamine

123
Q

What medication blocks H2 receptors and the action of histamine on parietal cells?

A

cimetidine

124
Q

What are the protective factors inhibiting the gastric contents from eroding and digesting the mucosal epithelial cells?

A
  1. mucus neck glands secrete mucus to form a barrier between cells and lumen
  2. cells secrete HCO3- which would neutralize any H+ that got past the barrier
  3. prostaglandins maintain the barrier and stimulates HCO3- secretion to protect the gastric mucosa
  4. growth factors
125
Q

What are some damaging factors that could cause damage to the protective factors, increasing the likelihood of gastric contents eroding the cells?

A

H+ and pepsin, H pylori, NSAIDs, Stress, smoking, alcohol

126
Q

What are some disorders of Gastric H+ secretion?

A

gastric ulcer, duodenal ulcer, ZES

127
Q

What is peptic ulcer disease?

A

ulcerative lesion of the gastric or duodenal mucosa

128
Q

What is the primary reason gastric ulcers form?

A

defective mucosal barrier allowing H+ and pepsin to digest a portion of it (H. pylori is a cause)

129
Q

What is the primary reason duodenal ulcers form?

A

H+ secretory rates are higher than normal which could overwhelm the HCO3- buffering capacity, acting with pepsin, could erode the mucosa

130
Q

When is pepsinogen utilized?

A

when the pH of gastric contents is lowered by H+ secretion, pepsinogen is converted to pepsin, beginning the process of protein digestion.

131
Q

The absence of Intrinsic Factor has what effect?

A

causes pernicious anemia due to lack of absorption of B12

132
Q

Describe pancreatic secretion.

A
  1. acid of the stomach releases secretin from the duodenum, fats and AAs cause release of CCK
  2. Secretin and CCK are absorbed into the bloodstream
  3. Secretin causes copious secretion of pancreatic fluid and HCO3-, CCK causes secretion of enzuymes
  4. vagal stimulation releases enzymes into acini
133
Q

Describe the process of bile secretion.

A

Bile is produced in the liver, flows out via bile duct to be stored in the gallbladder, and ejected into the lumen of the GI when the GB is stimulated to contract.

134
Q

What do bile salts function to do?

A

breakdown lipids to prepare them for digestion and then solubilize the products of lipid digestion into micelles

135
Q

What are the components of bile?

A

bile salts, cholesterol, phospholipids, bile pigments (bilirubin)tgf, ions, and water.

136
Q

What is secreted when chyme reaches the SI?

A

CCK

137
Q

Why is CCK important for the bile system?

A

it stimulated contraction of the sphincter of Oddi causing stored bile to flow from GB into lumen

138
Q

What happens once bile salts are used?

A

recirculated to the liver via enterohepatic circulation

139
Q

What causes gallstones?

A

too much absorption of water forom bile, too much absorption of bile acids from bile, too much cholesterol in bile, inflammation of the epithelium