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BA A350 > Approach > Flashcards

Approach Flashcards

1
Q

What actions are required to cancel an approach mode?

A

Push either the LOC or APP push button.

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2
Q

If the approach is canceled and there is no longer a destination what are the steps to insert a new destination?

A

At the last waypoint on the flight plan make a lateral revision and redefine the destination.

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3
Q

What information does the energy circle provide on the ND?

A

The energy circle shows the required distance to descend, decelerate and land.

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4
Q

When does the energy circle appear on the ND?

A

When in HDG or TRK modes. The aircraft must be within 180 nm of the destination airport.

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5
Q

What is the risk associated with using speed brakes during the approach?

A

With a low speed margin, automatic increase of VLs due to speed brake extension can cause alpha floor to engage.

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6
Q

When is nav accuracy monitoring not required?

A

When NAV PRIMARY is available.

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7
Q

What is the sequencing relationship between Flap 2 and the gear?

A

The gear should be selected down as soon as possible after flap 2 has run so that the landing gear test has time to run.

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8
Q

What is the indication that the gear is down and locked?

A

The green triangle on the slats flaps display of the PFD.

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9
Q

What are the speed tolerances on the approach before a callout is required by the PM?

A

-5kts below speed target or +10 above

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10
Q

What are the tolerances on the approach for pitch before a callout is required?

A

Less than zero degrees or more than 10. 0/10

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11
Q

What is the bank angle limit on approach before a callout is required?

A

Above 6 degrees

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12
Q

What is the descent rate limit on approach before a callout is required?

A

More than 1200fpm ROD

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13
Q

What does this symbol mean?

A

The gear is in transit up.

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14
Q

What does the speed change symbol look like?

A

The speed change symbol is a magenta dot on the track line.

Could be acceleration or deceleration!

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15
Q

When is green dot visible on the speed tape?

A

In clean configuration only.

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16
Q

What does this symbol mean?

When is it displayed?

A

Indicates the point at which the aircraft will reach the altitude selected in the AFS CP during descent.

It is displayed when the aircraft is in NAV mode and a descent mode is armed or active.

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17
Q

What does this symbol mean?

When is it displayed?

A

Indicates the point at which the aircraft will level due to an FMC constraint.

It is displayed when the aircraft is in NAV mode and a descent mode is armed or active.

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18
Q

When is QNH set?

A

When cleared to an altitude.

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19
Q

What are the 10,000ft actions in the descent?

A

Lights

Seat belts

Constraints

LS push button

Nav aidcheck

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20
Q

To monitor the descent the VERT DEV can be used on the PFD.

This is available in NAV, and with up to how much cross track deviation when using other lateral modes?

A

Up to 5nm cross track error

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21
Q

At what point do SOPs require Approach Activation?

A

15nm from touchdown if in HDG or TRK mode.

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22
Q

What are the acceptable parameters for the ILS capture envelope?

A

Within 10nms.

+/- 8° of the centre line of the glide path

+1.75°/-0.3° of the nominal glidepath angle

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23
Q

What is the procedure when cleared for an ILS approach?

A

Press the APP button on the AFS CP.

Engage the second autopilot.

Check the approach capability.

When G/S* is annunciated set the go-around altitude.

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24
Q

What are the factors used by the FMS in calculating the descent profile?

A

Top of descent calculated backwards from a point 1000ft on final approach with speed at Vapp.

It takes into account descent speed and altitude constraints.

The first segment is at idle until reaching the first altitude constraint.

The idle section is flown with idle thrust plus a small amount of thrust to give flexibility to account variable factors.

Subsequent segments are geometric and flown at an angle.

Holds are not taken into account for computation of TOD or fuel.

Ref PR-NP-SOP-170 00009496.0001001

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25
Q

What does the FMA THR DES indicate.

A

Thrust in the descent is idle thrust plus a small amount of thrust.

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26
Q

With which modes is managed thrust available in the descent?

A

Managed thrust is available in both managed and non managed vertical modes.

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27
Q

In which lateral modes is managed descent available.

A

In NAV only.

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28
Q

In which modes is the energy circle displayed?

A

In heading or track mode.

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29
Q

What is the slope angle of a managed descent profile from high altitude?

A

Approximately 2.5°

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30
Q

What rate of descent is achieved in DES mode when an early descent is initiated?

A

Approximately 1000ft/min until the calculated profile is reached.

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31
Q

What is the recommended point for initiating the descent?

A

It is recommended to start the descent a few miles before the TOD point to allow a smooth transition.

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32
Q

What is the recommended technique for managing a delayed descent?

A

Reduce speed (selected) towards green dot when passing the T/D point and then use managed speed once the descent is initiated to recover the profile.

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33
Q

How does the autopilot manage variable factors (wind, speed excursions etc) during the descent to maintain the profile in DES mode?

A

By using a variable 20kt speed range around the target speed before allowing deviations off the profile.

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34
Q

When does a path intercept point appear on the profile on the ND?

A

If the 20kt margin is not sufficient to absorb the speed excursion and maintain the aircraft on the calculated profile.

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35
Q

What assumptions are used in the calculation of the descent profile intercept point during descent?

A

Half speed brake deployed

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36
Q

During a descent, when high on the profile, if it’s not recaptured before the intercept symbol reaches the constraint waypoint, what message is displayed and where?

A

EXTEND SPD BRK appears on the MFD and the PFD.

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37
Q

What is the result of the aircraft using power against speed brake?

A

The message RETRACT SPD BRK is displayed on the MFD and PFD and the Speed Brake symbol turns amber.

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38
Q

What mode changes occur when the aircraft leaves NAV (HDG orTRK) mode in a managed descent?

A

V/S mode engages automatically.

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39
Q

What speed does the FMS schedule for the hold?

A

If the flight crew flies a holding pattern, an automatic speed reduction occurs to reach the maximum endurance speed when entering the holding pattern, provided NAV mode is engaged and the speed/Mach is managed.

The maximum endurance speed is approximately GD +20 kt and provides the lowest fuel consumption.

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40
Q

Which speed provides the lowest fuel consumption?

A

Green dot plus 20.

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41
Q

What speed should be flown in the hold if GD+20 is higher than the max holding speed?

A

Flap 1 should be selected and the S speed should be flown.

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42
Q

When is the holding pattern taken into account by the FMS for predictions?

A

When the holding fix is sequenced as the TO waypoint in the flight plan.

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43
Q

What assumptions are made about the holding pattern when the holding fix is sequenced?

A

That only one pattern will be flown.

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44
Q

What does the VDEV (yo-yo) show in the hold?

A

VDEV shows the deviation between the current aircraft altitude and the altitude at which the aircraft should leave the exit fix to be on the descent profile.

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45
Q

What rate of descent does DES command in the hold?

A

1000 fpm

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46
Q

Upon what is the hold’s last exit time and fuel information based?

A

This time and fuel figure is based upon the required minimum reserve as specified on the fuel and load page (Alt+Final).

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47
Q

What are the three segments of the approach?

A

Initial, intermediate and final.

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48
Q

What is the difference between the a decelerated approach and a stabilized approach?

A

On a stabilized approach the aircraft reaches the FAF in the landing configuration at Vapp.

On a decelerated approach the aircraft reaches 1000 agl in the landing config at Vapp.

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49
Q

What happens to the speed target at activation of the approach?

A

The FMS targets Vapp or the speed constraint at the FAF if inserted but is restricted to the short term speed target, green dot (clean), S speed (Flaps 1) or F speed (Flaps 2, or 3).

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50
Q

What is the managed speed target when the aircraft is clean and the approach has been activated?

A

Green dot for the short term managed target (magenta dot).

VLS or the FAF speed constraint, if inserted, for the normal speed bug (magenta triangle)

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51
Q

During the approach, when flaps are selected to 1, at what speed are trailing edge flaps extended during the deceleration?

A

Two options

FCTM: 203 kts Ref: PR-NP-SOP-190-CONF 00009506.0002001

FCOM; 214 kts Ref: DSC-27-20-20 00013661.0002001

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52
Q

What is the recommended procedure for extending the next configuration of flap with managed speed?

A

The next stage of flap should be extended when reaching the short term managed trend bug +10 kts when decelerating.

e. g. Green dot+10…..Select Flaps 1
e. g. S Speed+10…….Select Flaps 2

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53
Q

What is the sequence of actions for configuring to the next stage of flap in selected speed?

A

Call for the next stage of flap.

Select the speed to the new datum.

There is no need to wait for the flap to run.

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54
Q

What is the speed range of the FMS calculated Vapp?

A

The minimum is VLS+5kts

The maximum is VLS+15kts

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55
Q

Where is VAPP derived and where and when is it displayed?

A

VAPP is provided by the FMS and is displayed on the APPR panel of the ACTIVE/PERF page after the crew has inserted landing wind and configuration data.

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56
Q

What data is used for calculation of VAPP?

A

VLS

Headwind

Weight

Configuration

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57
Q

Can VAPP be a value outside its VLS+5-+15 limits?

A

VAPP can be inserted by the crew to take account of:

Wind conditions,

ECAM procedures,

Technical failures directed by the landing perf. application.

58
Q

What should the reference be for the wind inserted into the APPR panel of the PERF page?

A

It should share the same reference as that used for the runway in the database.

That is to say that if the database is using ‘true’ for the runway data then the wind should be entered as a ‘true’ wind.

59
Q

What wind reference does a TAF use?

A

True.

60
Q

What wind reference does a METAR use?

A

True.

61
Q

What wind reference does an ATIS use?

A

Whatever reference the runway uses.

Usually but not necesarily magnetic!

62
Q

What wind reference does the tower reported wind use?

A

Whatever reference the runway uses.

Usually but not necesarily magnetic!

63
Q

From where does the FMS obtain the aircraft weight used in the VAPP calculation during cruise and descent?

A

The predicted landing weight.

64
Q

Where does the FMS obtain the aircraft weight needed in the VAPP calculation after approach activation?

A

The actual aircraft weight

65
Q

When is it recommended to use managed speed for final approach?

A

Always as it provides ground speed mini

66
Q

For a landing conducted with manual thrust, what is the latest point for autothrust disconnection?

A

1000ft agl on finals.

67
Q

What does the Vertical Display use as a minimum altitude for display during the cruise vs. the approach and when does it change?

A

During cruise - MORA

During approach - MSA

Changes inside 25nm

68
Q

Which waypoint is the last permitted for use as the DIR TO COURSE IN fix?

A

The final descent waypoint.

69
Q

What are the crew actions if NAV ACCUR DOWNGRADED message is displayed on the FMS?

A

The crew will use raw data to check nav accuracy.

70
Q

What checks accompany pushing the LS pushbutton?

A

Check that deviation scales are displayed on the PFD.

Check the ident on the ND.

71
Q

When is the APPR push button pressed?

A

When on an intercept for the final lateral approach and when cleared for the approach.

72
Q

What is the recommended NAV proceedure for managing navigation during final approach.

A

Use the course-in function.

This helps VD calculations and nav sequencing plus interception computation.

73
Q

Why is it a bad idea to sequence the flight plan with a DIR TO when already established on the lateral approach beam?

A

The flight system would drop the engaged modes and revert to NAV.

74
Q

At what point during an approach, using V/S or FPA as the vertical mode, is the G/A altitude set?

A

When the aircraft has descended below the missed approach altitude.

This prevents the aircraft capturing the newly set AFS CP altitude.

75
Q

For a final approach using FPA, when should the FPA mode be activated by pulling the FPA knob?

A

.3nm before the top of descent.

76
Q

Which RNAV approaches can be flown with the FLS system?

A

Those with LNAV or LNAV/VNAV minima.

77
Q

For a LOC only or LOC G/S out approach, what provides the lateral guidance?

A

The LOC radio beam.

78
Q

For a LOC only or LOC G/S out approach, what provides the vertical guidance?

A

FLS vertical can be used for vertical guidance if available.

79
Q

How is the FLS path depicted on the PFD VD and ND?

A

Magenta dotted lines.

80
Q

What does F-APP mean in the approach capability column of the FMA?

A

F-LOC and F-G/S indications are reliable.

81
Q

What does F-APP+RAW mean in the approach capability column of the FMA?

A

Cross check FLS deviations with navaid raw data.

82
Q

What does RAW ONLY mean in the approach capability column of the FMA?

A

Refer only to navaid raw data, disregard FLS indications.

83
Q

What are the implications for RNAV approaches when RAW is seen in the approach capability column of the FMA?

A

They cannot be flown, no navaid data is available for a crosscheck.

84
Q

In F-APP+RAW, where should distance information be derived?

A

Distance should be radio computed, not derived from the FMS.

85
Q

What reference does the FLS G/S beam have?

A

It has a barometric reference.

It is always QNH.

86
Q

If a pressure change occurs when flying an FLS approach what adjustments must be made?

A

The pressure must be adjusted on the EFIS control panel baro ref.

AND

The pressure must be adjusted on the APP panel of the PERF page.

Note: When the altimetry baro ref. is STD the FLS reference is the QNH entered on the APPR panel.

87
Q

What adjustments for temperature are required during an FLS approach?

A

Only minima on the baro altimeter scale.

The FLS beam is adjusted via the temperature on the APP panel of the PERF page.

88
Q

When capturing the G/S from above where should the AFS CP ALT selector be set?

A

Above the altitude of the aircraft.

89
Q

When capturing the G/S from above what initial V/S should be set?

A

An initial rate of 1500 fpm should be set.

Adjust as necessary.

Rates of 2000 fpm or greater will result in a speed increase towards VFE.

90
Q

What does VFE mean?

How is it displayed?

A

The maximum speed with a given flap setting.

91
Q

What kind of landings are performed from CATII and CATIII approaches?

A

Autolands

Autoland with rollout in the case of CATIIIB

92
Q

What are the airport limitations for autoland?

A

Airfield elevation 9200ft max.

Glide slope angle between 2.5° and 3.5°.

93
Q

When a system failure occurs during approach and not all ECAM actions have been

completed before 1000ft agl, what is the required course of action?

A

Go-around!

94
Q

What does the coding ‘NN ARC’ signify on the FMS flight plan?

A

This indicates a radius-to-fix arc leg.

‘NN’ signifies the arc distance rounded.

95
Q

When flying an RF leg, what are the implications of a high groundspeed?

A

The bank angle limit may restrict the ability of the aircraft to follow the track correctly.

Managed speed is recommended.

96
Q

Why is the use of DIR TO towards a waypoint followed by an RF leg not recommended below MSA?

A

There is a risk of overshoot with a direct to a waypoint followed by an RF leg.

DIR TO CRS IN is recommended

97
Q

What is the configuration for flying the instrument portion of a circling approach?

A

Config 3

Gear down

F speed

Checklist complete apart from final config

98
Q

What occurs when G/A engagement happens in the FMS?

A

The missed approach becomes the active flight plan.

The FMS strings in the previous approach as the new approach at the end of the flight plan.

99
Q

During Go-Around what speed is commanded by the SRS?

A

A max speed of VAPP or IAS at time of TOGA limited to VAPP+25-both engines or VAPP+15-engine out.

100
Q

After a Go-Around, what is the speed target when through acceleration altitude?

A

Target speed is CLB speed.

101
Q

After a go-around is flown, what is the risk if a second approach is attempted?

A

That approach activation is forgotten.

That correct waypoint sequencing is not maintained.

102
Q

What happens to lateral navigation modes when the ENABLE ALTN prompt is selected.

A

If NAV was the current lateral mode then it reverts to HDG.

A DIR TO is used to navigate to the first waypoint of the diversion flight plan.

103
Q

At the threshold, one dot below the glide equates to how many feet?

A

7 feet below the glide.

104
Q

What happens to pitch trim at 100ft agl on the approach?

A

At 100ft automatic pitch trim ceases and the pitch law becomes flare law.

105
Q

If the radio altimeters fail, when does flare law become active?

A

When the gear is down.

106
Q

What is flare law?

A

Flare law is a direct law with no autotrim.

Flare law provides conventional aircraft handling to control aircraft vertical speed and touchdown during the flare.

107
Q

What is the implication of not having retarded the thrust levers by touchdown?

A

The spoilers will not deploy.

108
Q

What effect do ground spoilers have on pitch attitude?

A

Ground spoilers cause a nose up pitch.

This is compensated for by the pitch law for the most part but may require some manual correction.

109
Q

How is roll controlled for a cross-wind landing.

A

If necessary some roll input is permitted to prevent drift downwind.

Ailerons should not be used during rollout.

110
Q

What are the actions in the case of a MAX BRAKING warning?

A

Apply and keep max PEDAL braking.

Apply and keep max reverse thrust.

Below 70kts with stop assured reverse thrust may be reduced to idle as long as the red MAX REVERSE message is not displayed.

111
Q

How does the PRIM downgrade the runway condition/braking action?

A

When the antiskid activates the PRIM calculates a runway friction coefficient based on the aircraft deceleration.

This coefficient is compared with the model associated with the selected braking action made by the flight crew.

If the discrepancy is large enough the PRIM downgrades the runway condition.

Runway conditions cannot be upgraded.

112
Q

What is the sequence for spoiler deployment on landing?

A

With one main landing gear compressed and (both thrust levers at idle or one thrust lever in reverse) then partial spoiler deployment occurs to promote landing gear settlement.

Then full spoiler deployment occurs.

113
Q

When is the autobrake system activated?

A

When the ground spoilers are deployed on landing.

114
Q

What does DECEL on the lower part of the speed scale indicate?

A

That 80% of the required deceleration has been acheived.

115
Q

When are the thrust reversers stowed?

A

At taxi speed.

116
Q

When should max reverse thrust be reduced to idle reverse?

A

At 70 kts.

117
Q

What is the SOP for the level of reverse thrust for landing?

A

REV MAX

But consideration should be given using REV IDLE when appropriate.

118
Q

When is it acceptable to use idle reverse when landing on a wet runway?

A

An in-flight landing performance calculation has been carried out for MEDIUM-POOR conditions.

No reverser credit is given.

The result is within the LDA.

119
Q

What is the procedure for dealing with partial stowage of the thrust reverser?

A

The reverser must be recycled through reverse idle to forward idle in less than 10 seconds.

120
Q

What must be avoided with brake temperatures of over 500°C?

A

Park brake application.

121
Q

If the PRIM downgrades the runway braking action, how is this notified to the flight crew?

A

The runway braking action degrade is displayed on the FMA with the message RWY COND DEGRADED.

122
Q

What is the lowest value for VAPP able to be inserted by the flight crew?

A

The flight crew can insert a VAPP down to VLS on the APPR panel of the PERF page if:

A/T off and no wind or downburst.

123
Q

For an FLS approach, what is the maximum acceptable discrepancy between main altimeters?

A

100 feet

124
Q

Are two auto pilots required for an FLS approach?

A

No

125
Q

What is the risk if the approach arm p/b is pushed too far outside the ILS capture envelope?

A

A spurious G/S capture can occur and give erroneous up or down commands.

If this occurs disconnect the autopilot to disengage APP mode and then reselect APP within the normal capture envelope.

126
Q

What check is carried out by both pilots at the FAF?

A

Both pilots should check to make sure that the aircraft is on the correct verticle profile be it glideslope or otherwise.

127
Q

For an FLS approach, when are callouts required from PM with respect to F-glideslope and F-LOC deviation?

A

F-G/S - Half dot

F-LOC - Half dot

128
Q

How many elements are in the Safe Landing Policy and what are they?

A

There are four elements.

  1. Inflight landing performance assesment.
  2. Stable approach criteria.
  3. Safe touchdown criteria.
  4. Safe rollout criteria.
129
Q

What are the stable approach criteria?

A

The aircraft must be stable by 1000ft agl.

The aircraft is considered stable when the following criteria are met:

  • In the planned landing configuration (gear down land flap achieved).
  • Stabilised on the correct vertical profile.
  • Stabilised at the target approach speed
130
Q

What is the speed exception to the stabilized approach criteria?

A

Only in circumstances of rapid wind changes, turbulence or adherence to appropriate ATC speed requirements where the crew has failed to achieve speed stability by the 1000 ft auto-callout and the speed is close to the target approach speed and reducing, can the approach be continued.

If the aircraft is not stable at the target approach speed before the 500 ft auto-callout then a go-around must be flown.

In response to the 1000 auto-callout the P1 will respond with one of the following calls:

  • “Unstable, Go-around”
  • “Stable”, or
  • “Speed” – the subsequent call of “Stable” must occur before the 500 ft auto-callout
131
Q

What are the Safe Touchdown Criteria?

A
  • Main gear touchdown within the Touchdown Zone.
  • Main gear touchdown and trajectory within runway edge is guaranteed.
  • Normal Runway contact within the aircraft geometric landing limits.
132
Q

What is the safe rollout policy?

A

On all rollouts the aircraft must be decelerated in such a manner to assure a safe stop prior to the runway end and to routinely achieve taxi speed by at least 300 m from the runway end.

If at any stage following initial selection of reverse thrust, stopping is not assured, maximum braking and the maximum reverse as permitted by fleet specific guidance shall be used.

133
Q

What is the callout at 1000ft if the speed requirement for the stable landing criteria is not met due to the conditions listed in Part A but it’s close to bug and reducing?

A

‘Speed’

134
Q

What is the formula to find the baseline value of Ground Speed Mini?

A

Ground Speed Mini = VAPP minus Tower Headwind Component

135
Q

What is the formula used by Ground Speed Mini to calculate the speed target on the approach?

A

Managed speed target = VAPP + computed gust

136
Q

What is the maximum computed speed target allowed on the approach by Ground Speed Mini?

A
  • VFE NEXT, in configuration clean, 1, 2, 3, as the maximum value, in the case of very strong gusts
  • VFE -5 kt, in configuration FULL, as the maximum value, in the case of very strong gusts.
137
Q

What is the minimum computed speed target allowed on the approach by Ground Speed Mini?

A

VAPP as the minimum value in the case of tailwind or if the Current Headwind Component is lower than the Tower Headwind Component

138
Q

How is VAPP calculated?

A

VAPP = VLS Landing Conf + ( Wind Correction, min 5kts - max 15kts)

Note:

The Wind Correction is usually 1/3 of the Tower Headwind.

139
Q

When does the short term managed speed target appear?

A

The short-term managed speed appears, when the managed speed/Mach target exceeds the flight envelope limits, or the maneuvering speed of the current slats/flaps configuration

The short-term managed speed only appears, if the difference between the short-term managed speed, and the managed speed/Mach target (i.e. magenta triangle) is equal to, or higher than 2 kt.

140
Q

Where is the baro reference for F-G/S computation obtained?

A

When the baro ref. is STD on the EFIS control panel, the FLS reference is the QNH in the FMS APPR panel.

When the baro ref. is QNH on the EFIS control panel then that is used.

141
Q

What is the standard ‘engine out’ holding speed?

A

Green dot+20 in clean config.

142
Q

When established on the lateral approach beam with waypoints out of sequence what is the recommended technique to resequence?

A

Make a lateral revision from the FROM waypoint and choose ‘Next Waypoint’ and select a point in front of the aircraft.

BA A350 (48 decks)

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