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Physiology > 8th Physiology Lecture Exam - Nervous System (Batch 2024) > Flashcards

8th Physiology Lecture Exam - Nervous System (Batch 2024) Flashcards

1
Q

1.Which of the following sensations would be perceived when the pulse frequency of SA fibers is increased?
- steady pressure
- increased pressure
-tapping sensation
- vibration

A
  • steady pressure
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2
Q

2.Which of the following structures is responsible for detecting head rotation?
- Utricle and Saccule
- Semicircular canals
- Organ of Corti
- Cochlear

A
  • Semicircular canals
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3
Q

3.Which of the following refers to the ability of the eye to adjusts to different distances of light source while maintaining focal length?
- Adaptation
- Accommodation
- Transduction
- Translocation

A
  • Accommodation
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4
Q

4.Which of the following response patterns is associated with Ruffini Endings?
- FA1
- FA2
- SA1
- SA2

A
  • SA2
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5
Q

5.Which of the following tracts is involved in the sensation of temperature and pain?
- Lateral Corticospinal Tract
- Posterolateral Tract
- Anterior Spinothalamic Tract
- Lateral Spinothalamic Tract

A
  • Lateral Spinothalamic Tract
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6
Q

6.Which of the following tracts is involved in the sensation of crude touch and pressure?
- Lateral Corticospinal Tract
- Posterolateral Tract
- Anterior Spinothalamic Tract
- Lateral Spinothalamic Tract

A
  • Anterior Spinothalamic Tract
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7
Q

7.Which of the following transports requires
kinesin?
- Fast Axonal Transport
- Slow Axonal Transport
- Retrograde Axonal Transport
- Anterograde Axonal Transport

A
  • Anterograde Axonal Transport
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8
Q

8.Which of the following statements is true of the focal point in myopia?
- posterior to retina
- in front of retina
- always focused on the retina
- in front of the optic disc

A
  • in front of retina
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9
Q
  1. Which of the following response patterns is
    associated with Meissner’s Corpuscle?
    - FA1
    - FA2
    - SA1
    - SA2
A
  • FA1
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10
Q

10.Which of the following is true of taste perception?
- Type of taste is determined by type of receptor protein
- Salty and sour taste is activated by second messenger substances
- Sweet and bitter taste is activated by ion channels
- Chemoreceptors are specialized for several types of taste stimulus

A
  • Type of taste is determined by type of receptor protein
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11
Q

11.Which of the following structures are stacks of rough endoplasmic reticulum that is included in the neuronal biosynthetic apparatus?
- Soma
- Schwann Cell
- Golgi apparatus
- Nissl Bodies

A
  • Nissl Bodies
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12
Q

12.Which of the following statements about
Nociceptors is NOT correct?
- has the ability to sense tissue-damaging stimuli
- it originates mostly as free nerve endings
- it has distinct morphological specialization has the ability to become sensitized

A
  • it has distinct morphological specialization has the ability to become sensitized
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13
Q

14.Which of the following responses in sensory afferrents will start firing action potentials at the onset of the stimulus and continue to fire until the stimulus ends?
- Fast-Adapting Fibers
- Slow-Adapting Fibers
- Type 1 units
- Type 2 units

A

???

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14
Q

13.Which of the following is not a primary taste sensation?
- sweet
- bitter
- fruity
- umami

A
  • fruity
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15
Q

15.Which of the following structures represents the main termination site for ascending somatosensory information in the diencephalon?
- Dorsal Column–Medial Lemniscus Pathway
- Trigeminal Nuclear Complex
- Anteroposterior Nuclear Complex
- Ventroposterior Nuclear Complex

A
  • Ventroposterior Nuclear Complex
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16
Q

16.Which neural apparatus is responsible for the transduction of sound?
- Basilar membrane
- Resissner’s membrane
- Tympanic membrane
- Organ of Corti

A
  • Organ of Corti
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17
Q

17.Which of the following structures is involved in reflex responses to the appearance of a threatening object in the visual field?
- Edinger-Westphal nucleus
- lateral geniculate nucleus
- inferior colliculi
- superior colliculi

A
  • superior colliculi
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18
Q

18.Which of the following structures is responsible for adjusting the optical focus of the eye?
- Lens
- Cornea
- Iris
- Pupils

A
  • Lens
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19
Q

19.Which of the following is true of the relationship between the ciliary body and the lens?
- When relaxed the lens flattens
- When relaxed the lens assumes a spherical shape
- When relaxed tension exerted on the lens decreases
- When constricted tension on the lens increases

A
  • When relaxed the lens flattens
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20
Q

20.Which of the following pain sensations is a phenomenon that occurs when the brain misidentifies the source of the pain?

Neuropathic pain

Referred pain

Phantom limb pain

Radiating pain

A

Referred pain

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21
Q

21.Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding dermatomes?

The pattern of innervation is determined
during embryological development.

Receives its densest innervation from the corresponding spinal cord segment.

A given dorsal root ganglion supplies a specific cutaneous region

Transection of a single dorsal root causes liberal sensory loss in the corresponding dermatome

A

Transection of a single dorsal root causes liberal sensory loss in the corresponding dermatome

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22
Q

22.Which of the following muscles is innervated by cranial nerve IV?

inferior oblique

superior oblique

lateral rectus

medial rectus

A

superior oblique

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23
Q

23.Which of the following division of dendrites that have daughter branches extending from a more proximal branch?

Primary Dendrites

Secondary Dendrites

Higher-order Dendrites

Lower-order Dendrites

A

Higher-order Dendrites

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24
Q

24.Which of the following statements is TRUE of the divisions of the trigeminal nuclear complex?

This complex is composed of 4 sensory divisions.

Motor neurons project to skeletal muscles of the head via the trigeminal nerve.

Proprioceptive information is not conveyed via the trigeminal nerve.

The mesencephalic nucleus contains third-order neurons.

A

???

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25
Q

25.Which of the following layers of the retina is hit first by light?

inner limiting membrane

outer limiting membrane

inner nuclear

outer nuclear

A

inner limiting membrane

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26
Q

26.Which of the following major tracts is responsible for motor communication to the brain?

Dorsal Column-Medial Lemniscus Pathway

Spinothalamic Tract

Lateral Corticospinal Tract

Posterolateral Tract

A

Lateral Corticospinal Tract

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27
Q

27.Which of the following structures is responsible for determining the orientation of the head to gravity?

Utricle and Saccule

Semicircular canals

Organ of Corti

Cochlea

A

Utricle and Saccule

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28
Q

28.Which statement CORRECTLY describes the C axons?

responsible for first pain

produce a dull, diffuse and burning sensation

conduct signals faster than Aδ fibers do

heat-sensitive

A

produce a dull, diffuse and burning sensation

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29
Q

29.Which of the following statements is true of presbyopia?

lens becomes thinner

corrected by bifocal lens

there is increased ability of the lens to bend light

it is due to increased elasticity of the lens

A

lens becomes thinner

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30
Q

30.Which of the following transports require dynein?
- Fast Axonal Transport
- Slow Axonal Transport
- Retrograde Axonal Transport
- Anterograde Axonal Transport

A
  • Retrograde Axonal Transport
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31
Q

31.Which of the following cells are derived from erythromyeloid stem cells and play an important role in immune responses within the CNS?
- Microglia
- Satellite cells
- Ependymal cells
- Astrocytes

A

???

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32
Q

32.Which of the following divisions of the somatosensory provides information about contact of the skin with objects in the external world?
- Exteroceptive Division
- Proprioceptive Division
- Enteroceptive Division
- Trigeminal Division

A
  • Exteroceptive Division
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33
Q

33.Which of the following prevents solutes in the circulating blood from non-selectively crossing into the ECF of the CNS?
- Choroid Plexus
- Blood Brain Barrier
- Blood Retinal Barrier
- Blood Cerebrospinal Fluid Barrier

A
  • Blood Brain Barrier
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34
Q

34.Which area in the olfactory system is responsible for the primitive response to olfaction?
- Medial
- Lateral
- Inferior
- Superior

A
  • Medial
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35
Q

35.Which of the following structures serve as a storage site for synaptic strength and help transmit electrical signals to the neuron’s cell body?
- Dendritic Spines
- Neurofilaments
- Microtubules
- Golgi apparatus

A
  • Dendritic Spines
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36
Q

36.Which of the following response patterns is associated with Pacinian Corpuscles?
- FA1
- FA2
- SA1
- SA2

A
  • FA2
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37
Q

37.Which of the following pathways respond to noxious stimuli?
- Spinothalamic tract
- Spinoreticular tract
- Spinomesenphalic tract
- Cosrticospinal tract

A
  • Spinomesenphalic tract
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38
Q

38.Which of the following protects the ear from damaging loud sounds?
- vestibular reflex
- impedance matching
- attenuation reflex
- sound transduction

A
  • attenuation reflex
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39
Q

39.Which of the following is a function of the less old olfactory system?
- licking of lips
- salivation
- liking the smell of fried chicken
- feeling happy at the smell of fried chicken

A
  • liking the smell of fried chicken
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40
Q

40.Which of the following divisions of the somatosensory system has receptors for monitoring the internal state of the body?
- Exteroceptive Division
- Proprioceptive Division
- Enteroceptive Division
- Trigeminal Division

A
  • Enteroceptive Division
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41
Q

41.Which of the following pathways is the most important sensory pathway for somatic pain and thermal sensations from the body?
- Spinothalamic tract
- Spinoreticular tract
- Spinomesenphalic tract
- Corticospinal tract

A
  • Spinothalamic tract
42
Q

42.Which of the following abilities would lost if damage to DC-ML pathway is located above the dorsal column nuclei in the medulla?

ipsilateral loss of fine somatosensory discriminatory abilities

contralateral loss of fine somatosensory discriminatory abilities

ipsilateral loss of pain and temperature

contralateral loss of pain and temperature

A

???

43
Q

43.Which visual field disturbance do you expect in a patient with a lesion in the optic tract?

homonymous hemianopsia

quadrantic hemianopsia

cortical blindness

bitemporal hemianopsia

A

homonymous hemianopsia

44
Q

44.Which of the following statements regarding Nucleus Z is not TRUE?
- form part of the internal arcuate fibers
- form part of the medial lemniscus
- ascend to the VPL nucleus of the thalamus
- ascend to the VPI nucleus of the thalamus

A

???

45
Q

45.Which of the following is the point where specific neuron-to-neuron communication occurs?
- Node of Ranvier
- Synapse
- Soma
- Dendritic spines

A
  • Synapse
46
Q

46.Which of the following response patterns is associated with Merkel’s disks?
- FA1
- FA2
- SA1
- SA2

A
  • SA1
47
Q

47.Which of the following pathways is responsible for controlling the functioning of organs, smooth muscle, and glands?
- Somatic Motor Neuron Pathway
- Autonomic Motor Pathway
- Spinocerebellar Pathway
- Dorsal Column–Medial Lemniscus Pathway

A
  • Autonomic Motor Pathway
48
Q

48.Which of the following are the main cytoplasmic organelles in dendrites?
- Microtubules and Microfilaments
- Nissl Bodies and Golgi Apparatus
- Micrtotubules and Nissl Bodies
- Microfilaments and Golgi Apparatus

A
  • Microtubules and Microfilaments
49
Q

49.Which of the following cranial nerves is stimulated by the odor of noxious substances like alcohol and ammonia?
- CN I
- CN IV
- CN V
- CN VII

A
  • CN V
50
Q

50.Which of the following locations contain the somatosensory I cortex (S-I cortex)?
- Superior bank of the lateral fissure
- Central Sulcus
- Postcentral gyrus

A
  • Postcentral gyrus
51
Q

51.Which of the following nuclei in the DC-ML pathway receives information from the lower part of the body and leg?
- Nucleus gracilis
- Internal Arcuate fibers
- Nucleus cuneatus
- Medial Lemniscus

A
  • Nucleus
52
Q

52.Which of the following is called the blind spot of the eye?
- Fovea centralis
- Optic disc
- Macula densa
- Macula lutea

A
  • Optic disc
53
Q

53.Which of the following is not true of the very old olfactory system?
- projections to basal forebrain
- liking the smell of fried chicken
- feeling happy at the smell of fried chicken
- projections to the amygdala

A
  • liking the smell of fried chicken
54
Q

54.Which of the following structures regulate the microenvironment of the CNS?
- Astrocytes
- Oligodendrocytes
- Microglia
- Ependymal Cells

A
  • Astrocytes
55
Q

55.Which of the following conveys the output of a neuron to other neurons or to muscle cells?
- Dendrite
- Soma
- Axon
- Schwann Cell

A
  • Axon
56
Q

56.Which of the following is true of hyperopia?
- Near-sightedness
- Too long eyeball
- high refractive power of the lens system
- corrected with the use of concave lens

A
  • high refractive power of the lens system
57
Q

57.Which of the following is not true of the vestibular apparatus?
- an ampulla is found in each semicircular canal
- Semicircular canals all join with the utricle
- Utricle oriented vertically
- Saccule connects with the cochlea

A
  • Utricle oriented vertically
58
Q

58.Which of the following neurotransmitters is NOT released by nociceptive afferents?
- Glutamate
- SP
- CGRP
- Acetylcholine

A
  • Acetylcholine
59
Q

59.Which of the following locations contain the somatosensory II cortex (S-II cortex)?
- Superior bank of the lateral fissure
- Central Sulcus
- Postcentral gyrus
- Insular Cortex

A

???

60
Q

60.Which of the following nuclei in the DC-ML pathway receives information from the upper part of the body and arm?
- Nucleus gracilis
- Internal Arcuate fibers
- Nucleus cuneatus
- Medial Lemniscus

A
  • Nucleus cuneatus
61
Q

61.The motor cortex of the frontal lobe is comprised of which of the structures?

  • Primary motor cortex, Substantia nigra, Globus pallidus
  • Premotor cortex, Basal ganglia and Descending pathways
  • Basal ganglia, Substantia nigra, Primary motor cortex
  • Primary motor cortex, premotor cortex and supplementary motor cortex
  • Supplementary cortex and Premotor cortex
A
  • Primary motor cortex, premotor cortex and supplementary motor cortex
62
Q

63.Which of these areas of the cerebral cortex is involved in providing the motivation and foresight to plan and initiate movements?
- premotor area
- primary somatic sensory cortex
- prefrontal area
- basal nuclei
- Primary motor cortex

A
  • prefrontal area
63
Q

64.Which of these pathways is not an ascending (sensory) pathway?
- trigeminothalamic tract
- spinothalamic tract
- dorsal-column/medial-lemniscal system
- corticospinal tract
- spinocerebellar tract

A
  • corticospinal tract
64
Q

65.Which of the following statements best describes dysmetria?

  • Difficulty in gauging distance in space
  • In coordination of movement or gait with the
    tendency to fall on one side
  • Overshooting or undershooting a target during coordination testing
  • The inability to perform successive pronation and supination movements of the forelimbs
  • Increased in swaying of the body when ocular cues are occluded
A
  • Overshooting or undershooting a target during coordination testing
65
Q

66.Which part of the cerebellum is correctly matched with its function?

Vestibulocerebellum—planning and learning rapid, complex movements

Substantia nigra pars compacta – regulation of basal nuclei pathways

Spinocerebellum—comparator function

Cerebrocerebellum—balance

Globus pallidus externa – inhibition of thalamic activity

A

Spinocerebellum—comparator function

66
Q

67.Which of the following is the net function of the basal nuclei?

Controls truncal tone for maintenance of posture

Modulates pain sensation

Decreases muscle tone and inhibit unwanted muscular activity

Acts as a comparator for motor coordination

Affects emotions and emotional responses to odors

A

Decreases muscle tone and inhibit unwanted muscular activity

67
Q

68.Wthich of the following structure/s are responsible for granting “permission” to a planned movement?

Supplemental Motor area

Premotor cortex and Primary motor cortex

Alpha motor neurons

Cerebrocerebellum and Spinocerebellum

Basal ganglia and Thalamus

A

Basal ganglia and Thalamus

68
Q

69.Which of the following terms refer to the inability to coordinate rapidly alternating limb movements during testing for cerebellar lesions?

Dysarthria

Dystonia

Dysdiadochokinesia

Dysmetria

Bradykinesia

A

Dysdiadochokinesia

69
Q

70.Which division of the cerebellum is responsible for smooth coordination of movements of the distal limbs for the performance of precise and purposeful movements?

Cerebrocerebellum

Vestibulocerebellum

Archicerebellum

Paleocerebellum

Spinocerebellum

A

Cerebrocerebellum

70
Q

71.What is the net effect of disinhibition of the thalamus by activation of the direct pathway of the basal ganglia?

Generation of unintentional movement

Difficulty initiating movement

Inhibition of movement

Stimulation of spontaneous movement

Promotion of movement

A

Promotion of movement

71
Q

72.A 29-year-old man has a father who died from Huntington’s disease. The son was tested and is positive for Huntington’s disease. Which of the following is true regarding the offspring of those with Huntington’s disease?

Half the offspring are at risk only if the affected parent is male

Half the offspring are at risk if either parent is symptomatic for the disease before the age of 30

Half the offspring are at risk only if the affected parent is female

Half the offspring are at risk for the disease

One out of four children is at risk for the disease

A

Half the offspring are at risk for the disease

72
Q

73.A 64 year-old right-handed man presents with involuntary twitches of his left hand. He first noticed between 6 months and 1 year ago that when he is at rest, his left hand shakes. He has bilateral cogwheel rigidity with contralateral activation, which is worse on the left. His rapid alternating movements are bradykinetic on the left. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Parkinson disease

Dysdiadochokinesia

Huntington disease

Cerebellar ataxia

Chorea

A

Parkinson disease

73
Q

74.Which of the following is the primary efferent neurotransmitter from the substantia nigra?

Acetylcholine

Dopamine

Gamma amino butyric acid

Tyrosine

Epinephrine

A

Dopamine

74
Q

75.What is the globular mass located in the ventral portion of the tegmentum of the midbrain which serves as a relay center for many of the efferent cerebellar tracts?

Globus pallidus externa

Caudate nucleus

Red nucleus

Substantia nigra

Basal ganglia

A

Red nucleus

75
Q

76.Which of the following best describes the function of the primary motor cortex?

Stimulation results in complex, patterned movement

Stimulation results in discrete movements of the contralateral muscles

Stimulation results in inhibition of the thalamus

Stimulation results in disinhibition of the basal ganglia direct pathway

Stimulation enables maintenance of balance and proper gait

A

Stimulation results in discrete movements of the contralateral muscles

76
Q

77.The overall effect of proper function of the basal nuclei is best described by which of the following statements?

Act as a comparator for motor coordination

Decrease muscle tone and inhibit unwanted
muscular activity

Maintain balance and posture

Affect emotions and emotional responses to odors

Modulate pain sensation

A

Decrease muscle tone and inhibit unwanted
muscular activity

77
Q

78.In the initial phase of spinal shock, are flexia occurs due to:

Sudden loss of signal from the sympathetic nervous system

Attempt of the nervous system to re-establish synapses

Concussion which causes hyperpolarization of the reflex arc

Hypersensitivity of reflex muscles following denervation

Overactivation of the parasympathetic division of the nervous system

A

Concussion which causes hyperpolarization of the reflex arc

78
Q

79.Abnormal posture of the body that involves the arms and legs being held straight out, toes pointed downward and the head and neck being arched backward best describes which of the following?

Flexor posturing

Acute Spinal shock

Decorticate posturing

Decerebrate posturing

Tonic neck reflex

A

Decerebrate posturing

79
Q

80.Huntington disease results from genetic preferential loss of striatal neurons that project to which part of the brain?

Internal globus pallidus

Corpus striatum

External globus pallidus

Substantia nigra pars compacta

Subthalamic nucleus

A

External globus pallidus

80
Q

81.Which of the following is an accurate statement on the function of the substantia nigra?

Releases GABA which causes disinhibition of the thalamus

Releases dopamine which is excitatory to the indirect pathway of the cortical motor area

Releases dopamine which is directly inhibitory to the cortical motor areas

Releases dopamine which is inhibitory to the cortical motor areas by excitation of the direct pathway of the corpus striatum

Releases GABA which is directly inhibitory to the cortical motor areas

A

Releases dopamine which is inhibitory to the cortical motor areas by excitation of the direct pathway of the corpus striatum

81
Q

82.Major spinocerebellar tracts carry which type/s of information to the cerebellum from the upper and lower parts of the body to aid in motor planning mediates which type of sensory feedback?

balance

2 point discrimination

proprioception

nociception

muscle tension

A

proprioception

82
Q

83.Initial inhibition of the corpus striatal function is mediated by which of the following mechanisms?

Binding of Dopamine on D2 receptors of the direct pathway

Binding of Dopamine on D1 receptors of the
indirect pathway

Binding of Dopamine on D1 receptors of the
thalamus

Binding of Dopamine on D2 receptors of the subthalamic nucleus

Binding of Dopamine on D2 receptors of the indirect pathway

A

Binding of Dopamine on D2 receptors of the indirect pathway

83
Q

84.The basal ganglia is composed of subcortical clusters of nuclei which includes the globus pallidus, substantia nigra, subthalamic nucleus in which other structure/s?

Putamen and caudate nucleus

Caudate nucleus and lentiform nucleus

Corpus striatum and lentiform nucleus

Lentiform nucleus and putamen

Putamen, lentiform nucleus and Corpus striatum

A

Putamen and caudate nucleus

84
Q

85.Given the function of the parts of the basal ganglia, lesion of the direct pathway will lead to which of the following disorders?

Ataxic gait

Chorea

Difficulty in initiating movement

Unintentional non-purposeful spontaneous
movement

Huntington disease

A

Difficulty in initiating movement

85
Q

86.Decerebrate or decorticate posturing as a result of noxious stimuli to the CNS is demarcated by involvement of structures below or above which nervous structure?

Globus pallidus externa

Red nucleus

Caudate nucleus

Basal ganglia

Substantia nigra

A

Red nucleus

86
Q

87.Pathways that contribute to posture by integrating visual, vestibular, and somatosensory information and influences control of axial and proximal muscles terminate in which part of the Central nervous system?

Red nucleus

Anterior horn cell of the spinal cord

Cranial nerve nuclei in the brainstem

Posterior horn cell of the spinal cord

Dorsal root ganglia

A

Anterior horn cell of the spinal cord

87
Q

88.Which of the following structures detect muscle stretch and thus provides sensory feedback as to position of the joints?

Golgi tendon organ

Ib fibers

Extrafusal muscles

Renshaw cells

Muscle spindles

A

Muscle spindles

88
Q

89.Which spinal reflex is employed which automatically triggers the opposing limb to provide support while an affected limb moves away from a possible injurious stimulus?

Cross extensor reflex

Asymmetric tonic neck reflex

Righting reflex

Withdrawal reflex

Symmetric tonic neck reflex

A

Cross extensor reflex

89
Q

90.This pathway is important that it mediates sensory feedback necessary to modify movement and identify the position of body in space

Spinoreticular

Reticulospinal

Medial-lemniscal

Corticobulbar

Spinothalamic

A

Medial-lemniscal

90
Q

91.A special region in the frontal cortex provides neural circuitry for word formation

Broca’s area

Limbic association area

Wernicke’s area

Prefrontal association area

Prefrontal area

A

Broca’s area

91
Q

92.Part of the brain which found to be responsible for determining the importance of memories based on associated experiential reward or punishment

Superior temporal lobe

Middle temporal lobe
Prefrontal cortex

Thalamus

Hippocampus

A

Hippocampus

92
Q

93.Type of memory frequently associated with motor activities of the person’s body

Remote memory

Skill memory

Long term memory

Rut

Second nature memory

A

Skill memory

93
Q
  1. Memory of various details of an integrated thought based on experiences

Medium term memory

Long term memory

Short term memory

Skill memory

Declarative memory

A

Declarative memory

94
Q

95.Working memory is characterized as which of the following?

Short term memory

Remote memory

Long term memory

Medium term memory

Skill memory

A

Short term memory

95
Q

96.Which of the following is found to enable retention of long term memory?

Structural changes in the nervous system

All of the choices are correct

Formation of stable memory tracts

Increased presynaptic terminals

Increase in vesicles for secretion of neurotransmitters

A

All of the choices are correct

96
Q
  1. Temporary chemical and structural changes results in the retention of which type of memories?

Working memory

Remote memory

Short term memory

Intermediate term memory

Long term memory

A

Intermediate term memory

97
Q

98.Basis for short-term memory

Structural changes in postsynaptic terminals

development of stable memory tracts

All of the statements are correct

temporary memory trace in a circuit of reverberating neurons

A

temporary memory trace in a circuit of reverberating neurons

98
Q

99.The ability to form in the mind the thoughts to be expressed as well as choice of words to be used is the function of which of the following?

Limbic apparatus

Postcentral gyrus

Prefrontal cortex

Broca’s area

Wernicke’s area

A

Wernicke’s area

99
Q

100.Area of the brain which receives and analyzes signals simultaneously from multiple regions of both the motor and sensory cortices as well as from subcortical structures

Association areas

Primary Motor cortex

Prefrontal cortex

Primary auditory cortex

Limbic system

A

Association areas

100
Q

1.Which of the following sensations would be perceived when the pulse frequency of SA fibers is increased?
* steady pressure
* increased pressure
* tapping sensation
* vibrationt

A
  • steady pressure

Physiology (20 decks)

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