LE-4-Renal-Physiology-Feed-Batch-2025 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is true regarding the nephron:
    A. nephron’s concentrating ability is greatest in the cortex
    B. the cortical collecting duct is not part of the nephron segment
    C. the number of mitochondria increases as the nephron segments dip into the medulla
    D. superficial nephrons are greater in number than JG nephrons
A

B. the cortical collecting duct is not part of the nephron segment

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2
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is true regarding the renal corpuscle
    A. the macula densa of the thick ascending limb is part of the renal corpuscle
    B. water and solute filtration from the peritubular capillaries becomes the ultrafiltrate in the renal corpuscle
    C. the peritubular capillaries provides the structural support of the renal corpuscles
    D. peritubular capillary hydrostatic pressure promotes filtration in the renal corpuscle
A

C. the peritubular capillaries provides the structural support of the renal corpuscles

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3
Q
  1. The following statements are true of the renal mesangium EXCEPT:
    A. the mesangium may regulate protein filtration
    B. mesangial cells may regulate GFR
    C. the mesangial cells possess phagocytic properties
    D. mesangial cells secretes extracellular matrix
A

B. mesangial cells may regulate GFR

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4
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is NOT considered a basic process of urine formation in man?
    A. maintenance of normal acid base by the renal tubules
    B. solute secretion into the tubular fluid by the renal tubules
    C. Option 2
    D. plasma filtration by the glomerulus
    E. solute and water reabsorption by the renal tubules
A

A. maintenance of normal acid base by the renal tubules

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5
Q
  1. Which of the following solutes are reabsorbed via a symport mechanism in the apical membrane of the proximal tubules?
    A. Na – glucose
    B. hydrogen -ATPase
    C. Na -hydrogen
    D. Na/K ATPase
A

A. Na – glucose

Sodium-Potassium ATPase (Antiporter)
Sodium-Chloride Symporter
Secondary Active Transport
* Sodium-Glucose Cotransporter (SGLT-2) : Symporter
* Sodium/AA Cotransporter
* Sodium-Lactate Cotransporter

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6
Q
  1. The uphill movement of hydrogen ions across the renal cells is via this mechanism
    A. facilitated diffusion
    B. active transport
    C. coupled transport
    D. secondary active transport
A

D. secondary active transport

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7
Q
  1. Which of the following is a major
    determinant of ECF osmolality?
    A. H20
    B. Na
    C. Cl
    D. HCO3
A

B. Na

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8
Q
  1. Which of the following choices partly
    explains the uneven distribution of Na and K
    in the ECF and ICF compartments?
    A. K is actively secreted into the tubular fluid across the apical membrane
    B. Cl channels reabsorbed Na in exchange for K+ ions
    C. Na- K ATPase activity maintains Na+ and K+ ion movements across membranes
    D. Na is actively reabsorbed into the cell by the sodium – hydrogen exchangers in the apical membrane
A

C. Na- K ATPase activity maintains Na+ and K+ ion movements across membranes

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9
Q
  1. A more accurate estimation of plasma
    osmolality can be achieved by considering
    the concentration of which substances?
    A. bicarbonate and NH4
    B. inorganic phosphates
    C. chloride and water
    D. glucose and urea
A

D. glucose and urea

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10
Q
  1. Which of the following statements regarding sodium reabsorption in the proximal tubules is correct?
    A. the electronegativity of the tubular fluid in the PCT may enhance sodium reabsorption
    B. sodium reabsorption is coupled with
    chloride in the 1st half of the proximal tubule
    C. a decreased hydrostatic pressure in
    the peritubular capillaries of the PCT
    increases sodium reabsorption
    D. the sodium ions may diffuse across the
    apical membrane of the first half of the
    proximal tubules
A

C. a decreased hydrostatic pressure in the peritubular capillaries of the PCT increases sodium reabsorption

In the proximal half of the PCT, transcellular transports only occurs here such as when: Na+ is reabsorbed in exchange with H+ and it is cotransported with lactate, glucose, and the likes. Reabsorption of Cl- does not occur here, however, remember that when Na+ is reabsorbed Cl- goes with it— but in the first half of the PCT no reabsorption of Cl- happens such that the Cl- conc. in the filtrate becomes high. Thus, Cl- concentration is very high, this is why in the second half, reabsorption of Cl- occurs.

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11
Q
  1. Sodium chloride reabsorption in the 2nd
    half of the PCT is increased due to which of
    the following choices?
    A. intracellular chloride concentration in the
    first half of the PCT is greater than in the
    tubular fluid
    B. Na+ K+ ATPAse pump activity is greater
    in the 2nd half of the PCT
    C. The chloride concentration renders the
    tubular fluid to become more positively
    charged
    D. Chloride concentration in the tubular
    fluid is increased in the 1st half
A

D. Chloride concentration in the tubular fluid is increased in the 1st half

In the proximal half of the PCT, transcellular transports only occurs here such as when: Na+ is reabsorbed in exchange with H+ and it is cotransported with lactate, glucose, and the likes. Reabsorption of Cl- does not occur here, however, remember that when Na+ is reabsorbed Cl- goes with it— but in the first half of the PCT no reabsorption of Cl- happens such that the Cl- conc. in the filtrate becomes high. Thus, Cl- concentration is very high, this is why in the second half, reabsorption of Cl- occurs.

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12
Q
  1. A transtubular osmotic gradient allows
    the passive reabsorption of water across
    membranes in the PCT. This movement
    can be due to which of the following? A
    high________ reabsorption in the PCT
    A. hydrogen
    B. glucose
    C. Cl
    D. Na
A

D. Na

In the proximal half of the PCT, transcellular transports only occurs here such as when: Na+ is reabsorbed in exchange with H+ and it is cotransported with lactate, glucose, and the likes. Reabsorption of Cl- does not occur here, however, remember that when Na+ is reabsorbed Cl- goes with it— but in the first half of the PCT no reabsorption of Cl- happens such that the Cl- conc. in the filtrate becomes high. Thus, Cl- concentration is very high, this is why in the second half, reabsorption of Cl- occurs.

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13
Q
  1. As hydrostatic pressure in the paracellular spaces of the PCT increases, which of the following choices will occur?
    A. increase the osmotic pressure in the tubular fluid
    B. move towards the tubular fluid
    C. move towards the capillaries
    D. increase the hydrostatic pressure in the tubular fluid decreases
A

C. move towards the capillaries

Transport of water and solutes from the interstitial fluid into the peritubular capillaries occurs by ultrafiltration (bulk flow) that is mediated by hydrostatic and colloid osmotic forces.

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14
Q
  1. Organic cations and anions are eliminated by the kidney via
    A. glomerular filtration of anions and cations as part of ultrafiltrate
    B. secretion of anions and cations by cells of the PCT
    C. absorption of anions and cations by the vasa recta
    D. absorption of cations by the renal calyces
A

B. secretion of anions and cations by cells of the PCT

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15
Q
  1. Which of the following true regarding renal handling of Para aminohippuric acid or PAH)
    A. PAH secretion PCT is via a PAH-cation Transporter
    B. organic anions compete for the same transporters
    C. PAH is reabsorbed thru the basolateral membrane
    D. as PAH levels increases, other cations increase
A

B. organic anions compete for the same transporters

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16
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the loop of Henle
    A. water reabsorption in the loop of henle is iso-osmotic
    B. most of the active reabsorption of filtered solutes occur
    C. solutes are absorbed as tubular fluid enters the TAL
    D. It also acts as the countercurrent exchanger in the DCT
A

C. solutes are absorbed as tubular fluid enters the TAL

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17
Q
  1. Regarding the calcium paradox, which of the following detects the low Ca concentration that leads to renin release?
    A. Efferent arterioles
    B. Afferent arterioles
    C. Granular cells
    D. Macula densa
A

C. Granular cells

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18
Q
  1. As the Na-K ATPase pump activity in the TAL increases, this will lead to:
    A. decreased Na-H antiporter activity at the apical membrane
    B. decreased K ion concentration inside the cell
    C. establishment of a chemical gradient for Na+ secretion
    D. a low intracellular Na concentration
A

D. a low intracellular Na concentration

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19
Q
  1. The 1Na+ -1K+ -2Cl transporter in the apical membrane of the TAL is important due to the following:
    A. it increases tubular fluid flow in the DCT
    B. it contributes to the decreasing osmolality of the tubular fluid of the TAL
    C. it increases solute concentration in the tubular fluid
    D. it contributes to the increased absorption of urea in the TA
A

B. it contributes to the decreasing osmolality of the tubular fluid of the TAL

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20
Q
  1. When the kidneys autoregulate, which of the following will be maintained?
    A. RAAS activation
    B. GFR
    C. ADH secretion
    D. tubular fluid osmolarity
A

B. GFR

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21
Q
  1. If the delivery of NaCl in Macula densa is high, renin secretion will be
    A. High
    B. Unchanged
    C. Influenced by ADH
    D. Low
A

D. Low

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22
Q
  1. The concept of the Calcium paradox applies to which of the mechanisms below?
    A. Countercurrent exchange
    B. Countercurrent multiplication
    C. Urea recycling
    D. Renal autoregulation
A

D. Renal autoregulation

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23
Q
  1. Which of the following is not absorbed in the PCT?
    A. Na
    B. K
    C. HCO3
    D. hydrogen
A

D. hydrogen

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24
Q
  1. Water reabsorption is least likely to occur in the:
    A. PCT
    B. DTL
    C. CCD
    D. TAL
A

D. TAL

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25
Q
  1. Which of the following completely absorbed in the PCT?
    A. Ascorbic acid
    B. Glucose
    C. Na
    D. K
A

B. Glucose

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26
Q
  1. Which of the following choices below is true about renal blood flow? Renal blood flow INCREASES when:
    A. there is activation of the RAAS system
    B. afferent arterioles are vasodilated
    C. blood flow in afferent arteriole falls
    D. JG apparatus releases a vasodilator
A

B. afferent arterioles are vasodilated

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27
Q
  1. For fluid resuscitation to occur, which of the following will restore blood volume faster?
    A. Polycationic dextran
    B. Neutral dextran
    C. 0.9 NaCl
    D. Polyanionic dextran
A

D. Polyanionic dextran

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28
Q
  1. Increases in renal blood flow and ang GFR are caused by:
    A. Increased plasma colloid pressure
    B. Increased glomerular capillary coefficient
    C. Afferent arteriolar dilation
    D. Efferent arteriolar dilation
A

C. Afferent arteriolar dilation

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29
Q
  1. The maximum clearance rate for a substance that is totally cleared from the plasma is equal to:
    A. GFR
    B. Urinary excretion
    C. Renal plasma flow
    D. Filtered load of that substance
A

C. Renal plasma flow

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30
Q
  1. At the tip of the 2nd half of the proximal tubule you expect this ion to be present IN high concentration
    A. Protein
    B. k
    C. Na
    D. HCO3
A

C. Na

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31
Q
  1. A patient suffering from glomerulonephritis with decrease in GFR you expect which of the choices below to increase in the plasma?
    A. Na
    B. K
    C. Creatinine
    D. Glucose
A

C. Creatinine

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32
Q
  1. Regarding Renal blood flow which of the following is a correct statement?
    A. Oxygen extraction is higher in the cortex than the medulla
    B. Angiotensin II causes greater constriction of the efferent than the afferent arteriole
    C. Glomerular capillaries drain into peritubular veins
    D. Renal autoregulation is prevented by denervation
A

B. Angiotensin II causes greater constriction of the efferent than the afferent arteriole

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33
Q
  1. Which of the following best describes the juxtaglomacular apparatus
    A. Contains juxtamglomerular cells in the afferent arterioles only
    B. Contains macular densa cells in afferent and efferent arterioles
    C. Responds to a fall in arterial pressure by increasing renin secretion
    D. Responds to an increase in Na concentration by increasing GFR
A

C. Responds to a fall in arterial pressure by increasing renin secretion

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34
Q
  1. Which of the following may increase filtration fraction?
    A. Glomerular capillary hydrostatic pressure
    B. Afferent arteriolar resistance
    C. Glomerular capillary oncotic pressure
    D. Efferent arteriolar hydrostatic pressure
A

A. Glomerular capillary hydrostatic pressure

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35
Q
  1. Activation of renal sympathetics may INCREASE:
    A. the hydraulic pressure in the DCT
    B. the hydraulic pressure in the glomerulus
    C. Na reuptake in the proximal tubules
    D. Na secretion in the proximal tubules
A

C. Na reuptake in the proximal tubules

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36
Q
  1. Regarding UREA recycling this is best described by which of the following?
    A. maintains the osmolarity of the medullary interstitium
    B. half of filtered urea enters the descending thin limb
    C. lowers the osmolarity of the plasma in the vasa recta
    D. actively reabsorbs urea in the distal convoluted tubules
A

B. half of filtered urea enters the descending thin limb

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37
Q
  1. During countercurrent multiplication, as urea descends thru the collecting ducts, which of the following may occur?
    A. Most urea is reabsorbed
    B. 50 % is lost in the urine
    C. Most of the urea enters the vasa recta
    D. 100 %is lost in the urine
A

A. Most urea is reabsorbed

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38
Q
  1. During countercurrent multiplication, a hyper osmolar medullary interstitium ensures that:
    A. water is volume is high in the CCD
    B. solutes are returned back into the vasa recta
    C. solute concentration is high in the medulla
    D. water is reabsorbed in the DTL and CCD
A

D. water is reabsorbed in the DTL and CCD

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39
Q
  1. In a dehydrated individual, the secretion of ADH is elevated and
    A. the medullary interstitium is hyperosmotic
    B. the solute and water movement in the PCT is iso osmotic
    C. the DCT is impermeable to water
    the tubular fluid in the CCD is hyperosmotic
A

A. the medullary interstitium is hyperosmotic

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40
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is true regarding the ASCENDING limb of the vasa recta?
    A. Blood flow in the ascending limb turbulent
    B. Blood flow in the ascending limb is high
    C. It looses the solutes as plasma passes along it
    D. It looses the water as plasma passes along it
A

C. It looses the solutes as plasma passes along it

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41
Q
  1. The osmolarity of the medullary interstitium is maintained by which of the following?
    A. loop of henle
    B. Na+-K+ ATPase pump
    C. countercurrent multiplier
    D. vasa recta
A

D. vasa recta

42
Q
  1. The countercurrent multiplier multiplies
    A. the osmolarity of the medullary interstitium
    B. the pressure of the fluid along the Henle’s loop
    C. osmolarity of the blood in the vasa recta
    D. the fluid pressure of a descending thin limb
A

A. the osmolarity of the medullary interstitium

43
Q
  1. The countercurrent exchangers exchange solute and water concentration with the
    A. thick ascending limb
    B. proximal tubule
    C. Peritubular capillaries
    D. Loop of Henle
A

D. Loop of Henle

44
Q
  1. During states of volume expansion the osmolarity of the medullary interstitium may
    A. decrease
    B. not change
    C. become iso osmolar
    D. Increase
A

A. decrease

45
Q
  1. Increasing the blood flow along the vasa recta may increase solute reabsorption in the:
    A. ascending limb of the vasa recta
    B. Collecting ducts
    C. Proximal tubule
    D. descending limb of the vasa recta
A

D. descending limb of the vasa recta

46
Q
  1. Blood leaving the vasa recta have a/an_______ osmolarity
    A. Normal
    B. Low
    C. Unchanged
    D. high
A

D. high

47
Q
  1. Urea is secreted in which nephron segment
    A. collecting ducts
    B. Think ascending Limb
    C. thin ascending limb
    D. descending thin limb
A

C. thin ascending limb

48
Q
  1. During volume contraction the following signals will not act on the kidney
    A. release of ANP
    B. activation of RAAS
    C. simulation of vasopressin
    D. increased sympathetic activity
A

B. release of ANP

49
Q
  1. Which of the following equations can be used to estimate the effect of altering CO2 and HCO3 concentrations on pH?
    A. Haldane effect
    B. Bohr effect
    C. Henderson-Hasselbalch
    D. anion gap equation
A

C. Henderson-Hasselbalch

50
Q
  1. During volume expansion, the peritubular capillaries have a relatively
    A. Slower blood flow
    B. Higher hydrostatic pressure
    C. Lower hydrostatic pressure
    D. Higher oncotic pressure
A

B. Higher hydrostatic pressure

51
Q
  1. This is responsible for the transmembrane concentration gradient for potassium
    A. SGK1
    B. Na/K ATPase
    C. Renal outer Medullary K channel (ROMK)
    D. H/K ATPase
A

B. Na/K ATPase

52
Q
  1. In the presence of catecholamines, K absorption in the muscle increases via this mechanism
    A. IP3-K mechanism
    B. 3 phosphoinositide pathway
    C. GLUT 4 pathway
    D. cAMP pathway
A

D. cAMP pathway

53
Q
  1. Administering insulin to a patient increase K absorption in the muscle via this mechanism
    A. IP3-K mechanism
    B. 3 phosphoinositide pathway
    C. GLUT 4 pathway
    D. cAMP pathway
A

A. IP3-K mechanism

54
Q
  1. Which of the following conditions will aldosterone secretion likely increase?
    A. Hyperkalemia
    B. Hypernatremia
    C. hyperglycemia
    D. Hypoglycemia
A

A. Hyperkalemia

55
Q
  1. Stimulation of aldosterone release while the RAAS is inhibited explains this mechanism
    A. Calcium paradox
    B. Aldosterone paradox
    C. G-T balance
    D. Autoregulation
A

B. Aldosterone paradox

56
Q
  1. Ca reabsorption in the basolateral membrane is usually coupled with this ion
    A. Na
    B. phosphates
    C. K
    D. Mg
A

A. Na

57
Q
  1. A rise in the transcellular Ca reabsorption may lead to a corresponding
    A. Ca binding in the intracellular compartment decreases
    B. increase in K reabsorption in the apical membrane
    C. increase in Ca binding in the tubular fluid
    D. Decrease in Ca reabsorption via the paracellular pathway
A

D. Decrease in Ca reabsorption via the paracellular pathway

58
Q
  1. A decrease in tubular fluid pressure flow may lead to which of the following?
    A. Increased K secretion
    B. Increased K reabsorption
    C. Decreased K reabsorption
    D. Decreased K secretion
A

D. Decreased K secretion

59
Q
  1. Chronic metabolic acidosis causes K secretion to
    A. Increase
    B. Decrease
    C. Remain unchanged
A

A. Increase

60
Q
  1. The normal plasma Pi is
    A. 6 mg/dl
    B. 8 mg/dl
    C. 10 mg/dl
    D. 4 mg/dl
A

D. 4 mg/dl

61
Q
  1. CKD CASE: One expects the tubular fluid glucose of the patient to
    A. exceed transport maximum
    B. decrease transport maximum
    C. remain normal
    D. increase reabsorption
A

A. exceed transport maximum

62
Q
  1. CKD CASE: In a poorly controlled blood pressure, the kidneys’ ability to autoregulate
    A. decreases
    B. is maximized
    C. increases
    D. remains normal
A

A. decreases

63
Q
  1. CKD CASE: The scanty urine output of the patient is due to which of the following
    A. decreased water intake
    B. RAAS inhibition
    C. loss of total nephrons
    D. ANP release stimulation
A

C. loss of total nephrons

64
Q
  1. CKD CASE: The edema on physical examination can be physiologically explained by this mechanism
    A. RAAS ACTIVATION
    B. increase in glomerular capillary hydrosttic pressure
    C. increased plasma hydrostatic pressure
    D. increased ADH secretion
A

C. increased plasma hydrostatic pressure

65
Q
  1. CKD CASE: The blood gas disorder of this patient is
    A. metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation
    B. metabolic alkalosis with renal compensation
    C. metabolic acidosis without renal compensation
    D. metabolic acidosis without respiratory compensation
A

D. metabolic acidosis without respiratory compensation

66
Q
  1. ACUTE GLOMERULONEPHRITIS CASE: The decreased ability of the filtration barrier to regulate solute filtration lead to which of the lab findings?
    A. increased ASO titers
    B. increased urine pH
    C. increased urine volume
    D. hematuria
A

D. hematuria

67
Q
  1. ACUTE GLOMERULONEPHRITIS CASE: The pitting edema based on the physical examination can be partly explained by this finding in the urinalysis
    A. presence of RBC
    B. low pH
    C. large urine volume
    D. presence of proteins
A

D. presence of proteins

68
Q
  1. ACUTE GLOMERULONEPHRITIS CASE: The pitting edema in this case can be explained by the patient’s
    A. renal perfusion pressure
    B. plasma oncotic pressure
    C. interstitial oncotic pressure
    D. blood pressure
A

B. plasma oncotic pressure

69
Q
  1. ACUTE GLOMERULONEPHRITIS CASE: The patient’s blood pressure was elevated. This can be best explained by the
    A. increased volume expansion
    B. increased RAAS activation
    C. increased edema fluid in the body
    D. increased venous return
A

B. increased RAAS activation

70
Q
  1. ACUTE GLOMERULONEPHRITIS CASE: The countercurrent multiplication system in this patient is activated because the patient is
    A. anemic
    B. dehydrated
    C. overhydrated
    D. hypertensive
A

B. dehydrated

71
Q
  1. What is the most important buffer system in the blood?
    A. Phosphate buffer
    B. HCO3- buffer
    C. Hemoglobin buffer
    D. Plasma protein buffer
A

B. HCO3- buffer

72
Q
  1. Which changes reflects metabolic acid-base disorders?
    A. PO2 level
    B. PCO2 level
    C. HCO3- level
    D. pH level only
A

C. HCO3- level

73
Q
  1. Which Urine pH level can the kidneys excrete?
    A. 4.0
    B. 9.0
    C. 3.5
    D. 3.0
A

A. 4.0

74
Q
  1. Where is most of the reabsorption of HCO3- in the urine occur?
    A. Collecting duct
    B. Distal tubule of the nephron
    C. Loop of Henle
    D. Proximal tubule
A

D. Proximal tubule

75
Q
  1. Acidosis of the body leads to increased ___ excretion by the kidney
    A. H+
    B. HCO3-
    C. Water
    D. Na
A

A. H+

76
Q
  1. What reflects respiratory acid-base disorders?
    A. PO2 level
    B. PCO2 level
    C. HCO3- level
    D. pH level only
A

B. PCO2 level

77
Q
  1. Which is NOT a step of renal compensation in acidosis?
    A. Excretion of titratable acids
    B. Filtered HCO3- is reabsorbed
    C. Increased H+ secretion by nephron
    D. Decreased production and excretion of NH4+
A

D. Decreased production and excretion of NH4+

78
Q
  1. What is the movement of H+ when there is alkalosis in the ECF?
    A. moves with water
    B. is unable to pass through the plasma membrane
    C. moves out of the cell
    D. moves into the cell
A

C. moves out of the cell

79
Q
  1. Which is the result of increased ventilatory rate?
    A. decrease in PCO2
    B. increase in PCO2
    C. same pH
    D. decrease in Ph
A

A. decrease in PCO2

80
Q
  1. Which of the following is TRUE of renal compensation for pH changes?
    A. PCO2 is regulated
    B. There is modification of respiratory rate
    C. It is the fastest among the defense mechanisms against pH changes
    D. It is accomplished by modifying HCO3- excretion
A

D. It is accomplished by modifying HCO3- excretion

81
Q
  1. Which statement is WRONG about renal compensation during acidosis?
    A. Increased H+ secretion by nephron
    B. Filtered HCO3- is reabsorbed
    C. Excretion of titratable acids
    D. decreased production and excretion of NH4+
A

D. decreased production and excretion of NH4+

82
Q
  1. Which of the following conditions DOES NOT produce high anion gap metabolic acidosis?
  2. A. Diarrhea
    B. Renal Failure
    C. Lactic acidosis
    D. Diabetic Ketoacidosis
A

A. Diarrhea

83
Q
  1. Which of the following IS NOT a compensation in metabolic acidosis?
    A. ICF and ECF buffering
    B. Hypoventilation
    C. Decreased pCO2
    D. Increased Renal net acid excretion
A

B. Hypoventilation

84
Q
  1. What compound is the result of addition of water to carbon dioxide (CO2 + H2O)?
    A. Carbonic Acid
    B. Bicarbonate
    C. Carboxylic Acid
    D. Carbonate
A

A. Carbonic Acid

85
Q
  1. In the reaction: CO2 + H2O= H2CO3 =H+ + HCO3, what is the rate limiting step?
    A. CO2 + H2O
    B. H+ + HCO3
    C. H2CO3
    D. None
A

A. CO2 + H2O

86
Q
  1. In the reaction: CO2 + H2O= H2CO3 =H+ + HCO3, what is an instantaneous process?
    A. CO2 + H2O
    B. H+ + HCO3
    C. H2CO3
    D. None
A

B. H+ + HCO3

87
Q
  1. In the reaction: CO2 + H2O= H2CO3 =H+ + HCO3, which entails a slow reaction?
    A. CO2 + H2O
    B. H+ + HCO3
    C. H2CO3
    D. None
A

A. CO2 + H2O

88
Q
  1. What is the range of H+ resulting from volatile acids produced and excreted that makes the urine acidic?
    A. 10-40 mEq
    B. 50-100 mEq
    C. 110-150 mEq
    D. 160-200 mEq
A

B. 50-100 mEq

89
Q

19.How important is Creatine as compared to Phosphate as a urinary buffer
A. Less important
B. More important
C. Equal
D. No relationship

A

A. Less important

90
Q
  1. What is the ratio of NH4+ excretion to HCO3- absorption to systemic circulation?
    A. 1:1
    B. 1:2
    C. 1:3
    D. 1:4
A

A. 1:1

91
Q
  1. What is the first line of defense against acid-base disorder?
    A. Bicarbonate buffering
    B. Kidney compensation
    C. Respiratory compensation
    D. None of the Choices
A

A. Bicarbonate buffering

92
Q
  1. What is the second line of defense against acid-base disorder?
    A. Bicarbonate buffering
    B. Phosphate buffering
    C. Respiratory compensation
    D. Protein buffering
A

C. Respiratory compensation

93
Q
  1. What condition will have decreased plasma pH and increased pCO2?
    A. Metabolic acidosis
    B. Metabolic alkalosis
    C. Respiratory alkalosis
    D. Respiratory acidosis
A

D. Respiratory acidosis

94
Q
  1. Which statement is FALSE regarding Anion Gap?
    A. The sum of the anions and cations are NOT always equal
    B. Sodium and Potassium accounts for 95% of cations
    C. Chloride and Bicarbonate accounts for 68% of anions
    D. The unmeasured anions accounts for the Anion Gap
A

A. The sum of the anions and cations are NOT always equal

95
Q
  1. What condition will have increased plasma pH and increased ECF (HCO3-)?
    A. Metabolic acidosis
    B. Respiratory acidosis
    C. Metabolic alkalosis
    D. Respiratory alkalosis
A

C. Metabolic alkalosis

96
Q
  1. Which is NOT a compensation mechanism to respiratory acidosis?
    A. ICF and ECF buffering
    B. Hyperventilation
    C. Increased Renal net acid excretion
    D. Hypoventilation
A

D. Hypoventilation

97
Q
  1. Please interpret. pH :7.5, HCO3-: 24 mEq/L, paCO2: 29 mmHg SaO2 : 85 mmHg
    A. Compensated metabolic acidosis with moderate hypoxemia
    B. Uncompensated respiratory acidosis with severe hypoxemia
    C. Compensated metabolic alkalosis with moderate hypoxemia
    D. Uncompensated respiratory alkalosis with moderate hypoxemia
A

D. Uncompensated respiratory alkalosis with moderate hypoxemia

98
Q
  1. What does this mean? pH : 7.35 SaO2; 80 mmHg, PaCO2: 30 mmHg, and HCO3-: 20 mEq/L
    A. Compensated metabolic acidosis with moderate hypoxemia
    B. Uncompensated metabolic acidosis with moderate hypoxemia
    C. Uncompensated respiratory alkalosis with moderate hypoxemia
    D. Compensated respiratory acidosis with moderate hypoxemia
A

A. Compensated metabolic acidosis with moderate hypoxemia

99
Q
  1. Please interpret. pH : 7.35 SaO2; 80 mmHg, PaCO2: 50mmHg, and HCO3-: 28 mEq/L
    A. Uncompensated metabolic acidosis with moderate hypoxemia
    B. Uncompensated respiratory alkalosis with moderate hypoxemia
    C. Compensated metabolic alkalosis with moderate hypoxemia
    D. Compensated respiratory acidosis with moderate hypoxemia
A

D. Compensated respiratory acidosis with moderate hypoxemia

100
Q
  1. What does this mean? pH: 7.5, SaO2: 85 mm Hg, PaCO2: 45 mm Hg, and HCO3 - :37 mEq/L
    A. Uncompensated metabolic alkalosis with moderate hypoxemia
    B. Uncompensated metabolic acidosis with severe hypoxemia
    C. Uncompensated respiratory alkalosis with moderate hypoxemia
    D. Uncompensated respiratory acidosis with severe hypoxemia
A

A. Uncompensated metabolic alkalosis with moderate hypoxemia