8th Physiology Lecture Exam - Nervous System (Batch 2025) Flashcards by

Signal generation involved in the function of the vestibular apparatus involves conversion of
a. Mechanical signals to electrical signals
b. Electrical signals to chemical signals
C. Chemical signals to electrical signals
d. Mechanical signals to chemical signals

a. Mechanical signals to electrical signals

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A 63 y/o man presents with muscle rigidity, resting tremor, and difficulty walking, consistent with Parkinson disease. The involved neurotransmitter resulting in the patients difficulty in initiating movement is in the
a. GABA
b. Acetylcholine
c. Substantia nigra
d. Dopamine

d. Dopamine

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Which of the following structures is
primarily involved in controlling the
necessary instantaneous interplay
between agonist and antagonist
muscle groups?
a. Cerebellum
b. Supplementary motor cortex
c. Primary motor cortex
d. Basal ganglia

a. Cerebellum

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Which group of neurons function in
association with the pontine nuclei to
control the antigravity muscles?
a. Substantia nigra
b. Flocullonodular
c. Vestibular nuclei
d. Basal ganglia

c. Vestibular nuclei

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When doing the corneal reflex in a
patient with Bell’s palsy, what finding
will you expect?
a. Loss of vision
b. Pupillary dilatation
c. Inability to detect pain
sensation
d. Difficulty blinking the eyes

d. Difficulty blinking the eyes

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The ability to vocalize words
properly what the patient has
decided to say is the function of
which are of the body?
a. Medulla
b. Primary motor cortex
c. Wernicke’s area
d. Broca’s area

d. Broca’s area

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Nerve fibers that directly innervate
the skeletal muscle fibers leave the
cord by way of which of the following
structures?
a. White matter
b. Posterior horn
c. Anterior horn
d. Gray matter

c. Anterior horn

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Excitation of the cerebral cortex by
this structure is necessary for almost
all cortical activity
a. Caudate nucleus
b. Thalamus
c. Substantia nigra
d. Basal ganglia

b. Thalamus

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Withdrawal of an affected limb from
painful stimulus is characterized as
which of the following reflexes?
a. Reciprocal inhibition
b. Crossed-extensor reflex
c. Extensor reflex
d. Flexor reflex

d. Flexor reflex

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In Parkinson’s Disease, the bradykinesia observed is due to increased activity of neurons in the internal segment of the globus pallidus resulting to:
a. Increased activation of the brainstem
b. Increased activation of the motor cortex
c. Increased synthesis of dopamine
d. Less activation of motor cortical areas

d. Less activation of motor
cortical areas

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Which of the following observations
would suggest that an upper motor
neuron lesion rather than a lower
motor neuron lesion is present?
a. Hyporeflexia
b. Profound muscle weakness
c. Spasticity
d. Profound muscle wasting

c. Spasticity

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True statement about regulation and coordination of muscle movement
a. All of the statements are correct
b. Basal ganglia is involved in timing of motor activities and smooth progression from one movement to another
C. Proper motor movement requires proper
functioning of the basal ganglia and cerebellum
d. Cerebellum plays a major role in controlling relative intensities of individual motion components

C. Proper motor movement requires proper
functioning of the basal ganglia and cerebellum

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The thought process of movement
begins with the motor image of the
total muscle movement that is to be
performed. Which of the following is
responsible for this thought process?
a. Primary motor cortex
b. Premotor area
c. Are 42
d. Wernicke’s area

b. Premotor area

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These are mainly short-term
memories that are used during the
course of intellectual reasoning but
are terminated as each stage of the
problem is resolved.
a. Intermediate memory
b. Working memory
c. Intermediate long-term
memory
d. Long-term memory

b. Working memory

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What is the other name for the most
important output pathway from the
motor cortex is referred to as the
pyramidal tracts?
a. Spinothalamic tract
b. Corticocerebellar tracts
c. Corticobulbar tracts
d. Corticospinal tract

d. Corticospinal tract

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Which part of the cerebellum is
responsible for planning and
initiation of movement?
a. Vestibulocerebellum
b. Spinocerebellum
c. Cerebrocerebellum
(Neocerebellum)
d. Flocculonodular lobe

c. Cerebrocerebellum
(Neocerebellum)

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During a withdrawal response of the
right arm, antagonistic muscles of
the right arm are inhibited allowing
for the unopposed contraction of
flexor muscles. The pattern of neural
signaling involved in this case is
a. Reflex stimulation
b. Reciprocal inhibition
c. Diverging circuitry
d. Crossed-extensor reflex

b. Reciprocal inhibition

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True statement about the basal ganglia regulation of movement?
a. All of the statements are correct
b. Interaction between the basal ganglia and cortex essentially are composed of negative feedback loops
c. There are dopamine pathways from the caudate nucleus and putamen
d. Major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the basal ganglia is dopamine

b. Interaction between the basal ganglia and cortex essentially are composed of negative feedback loops

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Neuronal circuits in the interneuron
pool of the spinal cord conduct
impulses in which of the following
patterns?
a. Repetitive-discharge
b. Diverging
c. All of the patterns are correct
d. Converging

c. All of the patterns are
correct

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Formation of thought and even most
choices of words enabling a person
to communicate through language is
the function of which cortical area?
a. Wernicke’s area
b. Broca’s area
c. Primary motor cortex
d. Primary sensory cortex

a. Wernicke’s area

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Which of the following are identified
interneurons which function as
inhibitory cells to surrounding motor
neurons allowing for lateral
inhibition?
a. Muscle spindle
b. Reed-sternberg cells
c. Golgi tendon
d. Renshaw cells

d. Renshaw cells

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This is a parasympathetic function of
the 7th cranial nerve
a. Pupillary constriction
b. Bronchodilation
c. Salivation and lacrimation
d. Decreased heart rate

c. Salivation and lacrimation

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Learning rapid hand and physical
skills such as suturing depends on
physically repeating the required
task over and over again rather than
symbolically rehearsing the
movement in the mind. This type of
learning is based on which of the
following?
a. None of the choices is
correct
b. Skill memory
c. Declarative memory
d. Machine learning

b. Skill memory

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These structures are arranged at
right angles to one another so that
they represent all three planes in
space to reference the position of
the head.
a. Utricle
b. Semicircular ducts
c. Cochlea
d. Macula

b. Semicircular ducts

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25. Which of the ff is a sign of Bell’s palsy? a. Inability to wrinkle forehead b. Inability to identify different scents c. Inability to move arms and legs d. Unilateral sensory loss of lower and upper extremities

a. Inability to wrinkle forehead

26. The sensory portion of the 7th cranial nerve is tested through which of the ff? a. Testing for taste in the anterior ⅔ of the tongue b. Testing for pain by pinching the cheeks c. Asking the subject to smell different solutions d. Testing for gag reflex

a. Testing for taste in the anterior ⅔ of the tongue

27. Which component of the utricle mainly lies on the horizontal plane important in determining orientation of the head when the head is upright tested by turning the patient’s head? a. Semicircular canals b. Cochlea c. Utricle d. Saccule

c. Utricle

28. Integration of sensorimotor signals responsible for the generation of spinal cord reflexes is located in which of the ff areas? a. Gray matter of the cerebral cortex b. White matter area of the spinal cord c. Gray matter of the spinal cord d. Gray matter of the brainstem

c. Gray matter of the spinal cord

29. In the majority of patients who develop Bell’s palsy, what is the prognosis? a. Poor; signs and symptoms are irreversible and may remain b. Good; may resolve with or without treatment c. Prognosis depends on the cause of the condition d. Guarded; symptoms may improve or may worsen

b. Good; may resolve with or without treatment

30. Facilitation of the synaptic pathways to retain incoming information that causes important consequences such as pain and pleasure is referred to as a. Habituation b. Negative memory c. Excitation d. Memory sensitization

d. Memory sensitization

31. Akinesia, one of the signs of Parkinson’s disease means: a. Abnormal twitching of muscles b. Muscle stiffness c. Shuffling gait d. Difficulty in starting movement

d. Difficulty in starting movement

32. The structural capability of synapses to transmit signals are increased during establishment of which type of memory? a. Working memory b. Short term memory c. Long-term memory d. Intermediate long-term memory

c. Long-term memory

33. In Parkinson’s disease there is: a. Increased activity of the direct pathway and decreased activity of indirect pathway b. Increased activity of both direct and indirect pathway c. Diminished activity of both direct and indirect pathway d. Diminished activity of the direct pathway and increased activity of indirect pathway

d. Diminished activity of the direct pathway and increased activity of indirect pathway

34. You were walking barefoot when your right foot stepped on a thumb tack. You noticed that you reflexively pulled the right leg away while your left leg extended to maintain your upright position. This type of reflex pattern is referred to as a. Flexor reflex b. Crossed-extensor reflex c. Asymmetric tonic neck reflex d. Withdrawal reflex

b. Crossed-extensor reflex

35. Parkinson’s disease is due to which of the following: a. Loss of neural connections of the cerebellum b. Hypersecretion of catecholamines in the basal ganglia c. Loss of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra d. Loss of cholinergic stimulation to the basal ganglia

c. Loss of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra

36. One of the ff is a manifestation of Parkinson’s disease a. Dysmetria b. Tremors at rest c. Ataxia d. Dysdiadochokinesia

b. Tremors at rest

37. Ne of facilitated neural pathways as a result of changing basic sensitivity of synaptic transmissions between neurons as a result of previous neural activity which results in memory are called a. Facilitation b. Desensitization c. Memory traces d. Habituation

c. Memory traces

38. A type of negative memory involving the capability of the brain to lear to ignore information that is of no consequence is a. Inhibition b. Amnesia c. Learning d. Habitation

d. Habitation

39. Degeneration of dopamine-containing neurons in the substantia nigra leads to which of the ff? a. Suppression of the direct pathway and facilitate the indirect pathway from the striatum to the basal ganglia output nuclei b. Suppressed activity in the subthalamic nucleus c. Produce dyskinesias such as chorea d. Decrease activity in basal ganglia output nuclei

a. Suppression of the direct pathway and facilitate the indirect pathway from the striatum to the basal ganglia output nuclei

40. Which of the ff structures is/are involved in proper activation of muscles of the mouth, tongue, larynx and vocal cords including timing and intonation of articulated words? a. Sensory cortex b. Cerebellum c. Basal ganglia d. All of the choices are correct

d. All of the choices are correct

41. Which of the following structures helps transmit electrical signals to the neuron’s cell body? a. Neurofilaments b. Golgi apparatus c. Dendritic Spines d. Microtubules

c. Dendritic Spines

42. Which neural apparatus is responsible for the transduction of sound? a. Basilar membrane b. Resissner’s membrane c. Tympanic membrane d. Organ of Corti

d. Organ of Corti

43. Which of the following is not a primary taste sensation? a. Sweet b. Bitter c. Fruity d. Umami

c. Fruity

44. Which of the following sensations would be perceived when the pulse frequency of SA fibers is increased? a. Steady pressure b. Increased pressure c. Tapping sensation d. Vibration

frequency of SA fibers is increased? a. Steady pressure

45. .Where is the somatosensory cortex located? a. Superior bank of the lateral fissure b. Central Sulcus c. Postcentral gyrus d. Insular Cortex

c. Postcentral gyrus

46. Which division of dendrites is described to have daughter branches extending from a more proximal branch? a. Primary Dendrites b. Secondary Dendrites c. Higher-order Dendrites d. Lower-order Dendrites

c. Higher-order Dendrites

47. Which is the most important sensory pathway for somatic pain and thermal sensations? a. Spinothalamic tract b. Spinoreticular tract c. Spinomesenphalic tract d. Corticospinal tract

a. Spinothalamic tract

48. Which statement CORRECTLY describes the C axons? a. Responsible for first pain b. Produce a dull, diffuse and burning sensation c. Conduct signals faster than Aδ fibers do d. Heat-sensitive

b. Produce a dull, diffuse and burning sensation

49. Which nuclei in the DC-ML pathway receives information from the upper part of the body and arm? a. Nucleus gracilis b. Internal Arcuate fibers c. Nucleus cuneatus d. Medial Lemniscus

c. Nucleus cuneatus

50. Which sensory modality is RELATIVELY UNAFFECTED by lesions of the somatosensory cortex? a. Nociception b. Stereognosis c. Kinesthesia d. Graphestesia

51. Which term is defined as conscious awareness of our body parts with regards to position and movement? a. Graphestesia b. Stereognosis c. Kinesthesia d. Nociception

b. Stereognosis

52. Which phenomenon explains sunburn? a. Gate control theory of pain b. Neuropathic pain c. Mechanical allodynia d. Referred pain

c. Mechanical allodynia

53. Which of the following response patterns is associated with Pacinian Corpuscles? a. FA1 b. FA2 c. SA1 d. SA2

b. FA2

54. Which sensory afferrent will start firing action potentials at the onset of the stimulus and continue to fire until the stimulus ends? a. Fast-Adapting Fibers b. Slow-Adapting Fibers c. Type 1 units d. Type 2 units

b. Slow-Adapting Fibers

55. Which of the following refers to the ability of the eye to adjust to different distances of light source while maintaining focal length? a. Adaptation b. Accommodation c. Transduction d. Translocation

b. Accommodation

56. Which outcome is NOT EXPECTED after transection of the spinothalamic tract and accompanying ventral spinal cord? a. Loss of motivational-affective component of pain b. Loss of pain in contralateral side of the transection c. Loss of sensory-discriminative component of pain d. Loss of pain in the ipsilateral side of the transection

57. Which division of the somatosensory system is responsible for monitoring the internal state of the body? a. Exteroceptive Division b. Proprioceptive Division c. Enteroceptive Division d. Trigeminal Division

c. Enteroceptive Division

58. Which statement CORRECTLY describes the perception of taste? a. Type of taste is determined by type of receptor protein b. Salty and sour taste is activated by second messenger substances c. Sweet and bitter taste is activated by ion channels d. Chemoreceptors are specialized for several types of taste stimulus

a. Type of taste is determined by type of receptor protein

59. Which visual field disturbance do you expect in a patient with a lesion in the optic chiasm? a. Homonymous hemianopsia b. Quadrantic hemianopsia c. Cortical blindness d. Bitemporal hemianopsia

d. Bitemporal hemianopsia

60. Where is the somatosensory II cortex located? a. Superior bank of the lateral fissure b. Central Sulcus c. Postcentral gyrus d. Insular Cortex

a. Superior bank of the lateral fissure

61. What area in the olfactory system is responsible for the primitive response to olfaction? a. Medial b. Lateral c. Inferior d. Superior

a. Medial

62. Which of the following layers of the retina is hit first by light? a. Inner limiting membrane b. Outer limiting membrane c. Inner nuclear d. Outer nuclear

a. Inner limiting membrane

63. Which principle states that the quality of a sensation is conveyed to the CNS by a specific set of afferents that have a distinct set of targets in the nervous system? a. Labeled line b. Selective attention c. 2-point discrimination d. Receptive field

64. Which tract is MOSTLY involved in the sensation of temperature and pain? a. Lateral Corticospinal Tract b. Posterolateral Tract c. Anterior Spinothalamic Tract d. Lateral Spinothalamic Tract

d. Lateral Spinothalamic Tract

65. Which of the following structures is involved in reflex responses to the appearance of a threatening object in the visual field? a. Edinger-Westphal nucleus b. Lateral geniculate nucleus c. Inferior colliculi d. Superior colliculi

d. Superior colliculi

66. Which of the following structures is responsible for adjusting the optical focus of the eye? a. Lens b. Cornea c. Iris d. Pupils

a. Lens

67. Which neuronal biosynthetic apparatus is described as stacks of rough endoplasmic reticulum? a. Soma b. Schwann Cell c. Golgi apparatus d. Nissl Bodies

d. Nissl Bodies

68. Which of the ff terms encompass structure of the eye through which light passes? a. Translucent media b. Dioptric media c. Refractive media d. Transparent media

b. Dioptric media

69. Which of the following nuclei in the DC-ML pathway receives information from the lower part of the body and leg? a. Nucleus gracilis b. Internal Arcuate fibers c. Nucleus cuneatus d. Medial Lemniscus

a. Nucleus gracilis

70. What cranial nerve is stimulated by the odor of noxious substances like alcohol? a. CN I b. CN IV c. CN V d. CN VII

c. CN V

71. Which of the following is the point where interneuron communication occurs? a. Node of Ranvier b. Synapse c. Soma d. Dendritic spines

b. Synapse

72. Which tract is MOSTLY involved in the sensation of crude touch and pressure? a. Lateral Corticospinal Tract b. Posterolateral Tract c. Anterior Spinothalamic Tract d. Lateral Spinothalamic Tract

c. Anterior Spinothalamic Tract

73. Which structure will maintain the motivational-affective component of pain after destruction of the VPL or VPM nuclei? a. Trigeminal nucleus b. DC-ML c. Spinomesencephalic tract d. Medial thalamus

74. Which of the ff structures of the eye has the highest refractive power? a. Aqueous humor b. Cornea c. Lens d. Vitreous humor

75. Which tract is MOSTLY responsible for motor communication to the brain? a. Dorsal Column-Medial Lemniscus Pathway b. Spinothalamic Tract c. Lateral Corticospinal Tract d. Posterolateral Tract

c. Lateral Corticospinal Tract

76. Which of the following is a function of the less old olfactory system? a. Licking of lips b. Salivation c. Liking the smell of fried chicken d. Feeling happy at the smell of fried chicken

c. Liking the smell of fried chicken

77. Which extraocular muscle of the eye is innervated by cranial nerve IV? a. Lateral rectus b. Medial rectus c. Inferior oblique d. Superior oblique

d. Superior oblique

78. Which response pattern is associated with Meissner’s Corpuscle? a. FA1 b. FA2 c. SA1 d. SA2

a. FA1

79. What structure prevents solutes in blood from non-selectively crossing into the ECF of the CNS? a. Choroid Plexus b. Blood Brain Barrier c. Blood Retinal Barrier d. Blood Cerebrospinal Fluid Barrier

b. Blood Brain Barrier

80. Which structure represents the main termination site for ascending somatosensory information in the diencephalon? a. Dorsal Column–Medial Lemniscus Pathway b. Trigeminal Nuclear Complex c. Anteroposterior Nuclear Complex d. Ventroposterior Nuclear Complex

d. Ventroposterior Nuclear Complex

81. Which statements DO NOT describe Nociceptors? a. It has the ability to sense tissue-damaging stimuli b. It originates mostly as free nerve endings c. It has distinct morphological specialization d. It has the ability to become sensitized

82. Which cells are derived from erythromyeloid stem cells and are responsible for immune responses within the CNS? a. Microglia b. Satellite cells c. Ependymal cells d. Astrocytes

83. Which of the following structures is responsible for detecting head rotation? a. Utricle and Saccule b. Semicircular canals c. Organ of Corti d. Cochlea

b. Semicircular canals

84. Which pathway is responsible for controlling the function of organs, smooth muscle, and glands? a. Somatic Motor Neuron Pathway b. Autonomic Motor Pathway c. Spinocerebellar Pathway d. Dorsal Column–Medial Lemniscus Pathway

b. Autonomic Motor Pathway

85. .What area is known as the blind spot of the eye? a. Fovea centralis b. Optic disc c. Macula densa d. Macula lutea

b. Optic disc

86. Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding dermatomes? a. The pattern of innervation is determined during embryological development. b. Receives its densest innervation from the corresponding spinal cord segment. c. A given dorsal root ganglion supplies a specific cutaneous region d. Transection of a single dorsal root causes liberal sensory loss in the corresponding dermatome

d. Transection of a single dorsal root causes liberal sensory loss in the corresponding dermatome

87. Which term is defined as the ability to recognize objects when they are handled? a. Graphestesia b. Stereognosis c. Nociception d. Kinesthesia

88. Which of the ff statements correctly describe the perilymph? a. Closely resembles cerebrospinal fluid b. Resembles intracellular fluid c. Located in the scala media d. Contains high K+ and low Na+

a. Closely resembles cerebrospinal fluid

89. Which division of the somatosensory system would provide information about skin contact with objects? a. Exteroceptive Division b. Proprioceptive Division c. Enteroceptive Division d. Trigeminal Division

a. Exteroceptive Division

90. Which statement CORRECTLY describes the focal point in myopia? a. In front of the optic disc b. Posterior to retina c. Always focused on the retina d. In front of retina

d. In front of retina

91. Which fiber is the most common afferent for nociception? a. C mechanosensitive fibers b. Aδ cold-sensitive c. C mechanoheat-sensitive fibers d. C cold-sensitive

92. Which of the cytoplasmic organelles is the most abundant in dendrites? a. Microtubules and Microfilaments b. Nissl Bodies and Golgi Apparatus c. Micrtotubules and Nissl Bodies d. Microfilaments and Golgi Apparatus

a. Microtubules and Microfilaments

93. Which pain sensation is caused by damage to neural structures? a. Neuropathic pain b. Referred pain c. Phantom limb pain d. Radiating pain

94. Which of the ff CORRECTLY describes Type 1 receptive fields? a. Small receptive fields with well-defined borders b. Wider receptive fields with poorly defined borders c. Has a single point of maximal sensitivity d. Covers most or all of a finger

95. What structure is responsible for determining the orientation of the head to gravity? a. Utricle and Saccule b. Semicircular canals c. Organ of Corti d. Cochlea

a. Utricle and Saccule

96. Which of the following response patterns is associated with Ruffini Endings? a. FA1 b. FA2 c. SA1 d. SA2

d. SA2

97. Which phenomenon explains the reduction in painful stimuli after a harmless stimuli is applied? a. Mechanical allodynia b. Phantom limb pain c. Gate control theory of pain d. Neuropathic pain

98. Which response pattern is associated with Merkel’s disks? a. FA1 b. FA2 c. SA1 d. SA2

c. SA1

99. Which of the following statements is TRUE of the divisions of the trigeminal nuclear complex? a. This complex is composed of 4 sensory divisions. b. Motor neurons project to skeletal muscles of the head via the trigeminal nerve. c. Proprioceptive information is not conveyed via the trigeminal nerve. d. The mesencephalic nucleus contains third-order neurons.

b. Motor neurons project to skeletal muscles of the head via the trigeminal nerve.

100. Which of the following protects the ear from damaging loud sounds? a. Vestibular reflex b. Impedance matching c. Attenuation reflex d. Sound transduction

c. Attenuation reflex