Pharm Review Flashcards

1
Q

Which adrenergic receptor is responsible for peripheral vasoconstriction?

A

a1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which adrenergic receptor is responsible for positive chronotropy?

A

B1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which adrenergic receptor is responsible for bronchodilation?

A

B2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which drug is generally only indicated for use in CPR and anaphylactic shock?

A

Epinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are catecholamines?

A

Epi, NE, isoproterenol, Dopamine, Dobutamine (ENIDD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What catecholamine causes D1 receptor mediated vasoconstriction at high doses?

A

Dopamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What three drugs may be used as part of advanced life support?

A

Epi, atropine, vasopressin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which vasopressin analogue is considered the drug of choice for tx of clinical bleeding in patients w/vWD?

A

Desmopressin acetate (DDAVP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which vasopressin analogue is used to treat central diabetes insipidus?

A

DDAVP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are ddx causes for hypotension?

A

Hypovolemia, vasodilation, poor CO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the drug of choice for hypertension in cats?

A

Amlodipine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the MoA of amlodipine?

A

Ca channel blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What class of drugs interfere with RAAS?

A

ACE inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What class of drugs is the mainstay treatment for pulmonary hypertension?

A

Phosphodiesterase inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What drugs are used in tx for emergency hypertension?

A

Nitroprusside, nitroglycerine (vasodilators)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What drug is used for treating hypertension assoc. w/pheochromocytoma?

A

Phenoxybenzamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the drug of choice for treatment of pulmonary hypertension?

A

Sildenafil (Viagra)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the drug of choice for treating hyperthyroidism in cats?

A

methimazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the drug of choice for positive inotropic support in CHF d/t DCM?

A

Pimobendan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How do you treat V-tach?

A

Lidocaine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the MoA of lidocaine?

A

Class 1B sodium channel blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the diuretic of choice for treatment of cardiogenic pulmonary edema?

A

Furosemide

23
Q

What drug is used in a tenison test for diagnosis of myasthenia gravis?

A

Edrophonium

24
Q

What is the drug of choice for maintenance therapy of myasthenia gravis?

A

Pyridostigmine

25
Q

Which NSAIDs are non-selective COX inhibitors?

A

Phenylbutazone, flunixin meglumine

26
Q

Which NSAID is a COX-1 selective inhibitor?

A

Aspirin

27
Q

Which breeds are considered most sensitive to pheothiazine effets?

A

Brachycephalics

28
Q

What is the reversal agent for benzodiazepines?

A

Flumazenil

29
Q

What is the most common side effect seen with acepromazine adminstration?

A

Hypotension

30
Q

Phenothiazines cause enlargement of which organ?

A

Spleen

31
Q

What is the reversal agent for opioids?

A

Naloxone

32
Q

Which opioid receptor provides sedation?

A

Kappa

33
Q

What is the reversal agent for dexmedetomidine?

A

Atipamezole

34
Q

How do you reverse xylazine?

A

Yohimbine

35
Q

What is the emetic of choice in cats?

A

Xylazine

36
Q

What is the emetic of choice in dogs?

A

Apomorphine

37
Q

Which drugs are useful in the control of neuropathic pain?

A

Gabapentin, amantadine

38
Q

Are dissociative anesthetics (NMDA antagonists) reversible?

A

No

39
Q

What is the MoA of propofol, alfaxalone, and etomidate?

A

GABA agonists

40
Q

Lower MAC = _____ potency

A

Higher

41
Q

How do you treat a seizure while it’s happening?

A

Diazepam

42
Q

What anti-epileptic drug is contraindicated for use in cats?

A

Bromide (causes asthma in cats)

43
Q

Which anti-epileptic drug has no hepatic metabolism?

A

Levetiracetam

44
Q

What is the drug of choice for seizures d/t hepatic encephalopathy?

A

Levetiracetam

45
Q

What is the drug of choice for supplementation of thyroid hormone d/t hypothyroidism in dogs?

A

Levothyroxine

46
Q

Mitotane is used to treat _____adrenocorticism

A

Hyper (Cushing’s)

47
Q

Which chemo drug is assoc. w/risk of hemorrhagic cystitis?

A

Cyclophosphamide

48
Q

What prokinetic do you want to use in rabbits?

A

Cisapride (affects lower GIT)

49
Q

Which antacid is given to animals with mast cell tumors?

A

Famotidine/ranitidine (H2 blocker)

50
Q

What is the main indication for use of pancrelipase?

A

EPI

51
Q

What drug is an antioxidant used to replenish tissue glutathione in cases of hepatotoxicity?

A

N-acetylcystine

52
Q

Which receptor, when acted on, can cause SLUDD signs?

A

M1 (muscarinic)

53
Q

What is the MoA of diphenhydramine?

A

H1 antagonist