Infectious Disease Flashcards

1
Q

Top 3 causes of common cold?

A

Rhinoviruses, coronaviruses, parainfluenza

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2
Q

Top 3 causes of nasopharyngitis?

A

Adenovirus, enterovirus, influenza

Also C. diphtheria, H. flu, N.meningititis

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3
Q

Top 3 causes of tonsillopharyngitis

A

GAS, Group C and G strept, H flu
Adenoviruses, Enteroviruses

20% bacterial, 80% viral

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4
Q

Acute sore throat, N/V/abd pain, HA

Anterior cervical lymphadenopathy

A

GAS pharyngitis

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5
Q

Treatment for GAS tonsillopharyngitis?

A

PCN V x 10 days

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6
Q

Complications of GAS tonsillopharyngitis?

A

RF (10 days), AGN, peritonsillar abscess

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7
Q

Pharyngoconjunctival fever

A

Adenoviruses

See with swimming pool exposure

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8
Q

Herpangina

A

Enteroviruses (coxsackie A)

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9
Q

CBC finding in pertussis? WHat is the best test?

A

Absolute lymphocytosis

Dx: culture/PCR and single serum PT serology

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10
Q

Treatment for pertussis

A

A macrolide ABX

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11
Q

Top 3 causes of AOM

A

S. pneumoniae (5% resistant to Amox), non-typeable H.flu (20% resistant to Amox), M.catarralis (almost all resistant to Amox)

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12
Q

What is the most frequent known cause of perinatally acquired viral infection?

A

CMV - 0.5-2.7% of births

Fetal infection in 50% of primary maternal infections

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13
Q
HSM
Hyperbilirubinemia
Petechiae, purpura and thrombocytopenia
Microcephaly
Ocular defects
Cerebral calcifications
Hemolytic anemia
Interstitial PNA
Deafness
A

CMV

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14
Q

What congenital anomalies are associated with CMV?

A

CV, hypospadias, GI, musculoskeletal

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15
Q

CMV Dx

A
  1. Inclusion cells in urine
  2. Virus isolation - culture urine, throat and CSF
  3. PCR blood, CSF
  4. Test for IgM specific CMV antibody (frequent false positives)
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16
Q

When is the highest risk of congenital rubella during pregnancy?

A

85% first 8 weeks
52% 9-12 weeks
16% 13-20 weeks
0% >20 weeks

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17
Q

Manifestations of congenital rubella?

A
10-30% in utero death
50-85% IUGR
35% cataracts
35% retinopathy
80-90% deafness
30-40% CHD
5-20% MR, meningoencephalitis, bone radiolucencies, HSM, interstitial pneumonitis, hepatitis, thrombocytopenia
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18
Q

Dx of congenital rubella?

A
  1. Cx for rubella virus via nasopharynx, urine and CSF
  2. IgM specific rubella antibody
  3. Persistent IgG rubella antibody
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19
Q

Major risk factors for perinatal transmission of hepatitis B?

A
  • Presence of HBeAg (80-95%)
  • Asian (40-70%)
  • Acute hepatitis in 3rd trimester (60-70%)
  • High titer of HBsAg
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20
Q
  • Vesicular rash at birth
  • LBW
  • chorioretinitis
  • brain damage
  • SGA
  • microcephaly
  • intracranial calcifications
  • microphtalmia
  • cataracts
A

Congenital HSV

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21
Q

What are the two risk periods of VZ Infection?

A

Early pregnancy and at term (<5days before delivery or within 48 hours after delivery)

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22
Q

RIsk of HIV virus transmission from an infected mother in utero?

A

30-35%

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23
Q

Red blood cell aplasia and possibly fetal hydrops and abortion

A

Parvovirus B19 infection

5-8% risk of abortion
No associated congenital malformations

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24
Q

Cats, raw meat, travel, living in rural areas

A

Toxoplasmosis

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25
Q
MR
Seizures
Spasticity and palsy
Severe impaired vision
Hydrocephalus or microcephalus
Deafness
A

Toxoplasmosis (only 10% normal)

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26
Q

Treatment for congenital toxoplasmosis?

A

Pyrimethamine and sulfadiazine x ~ 1year

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27
Q
Hepatomegaly
Skeletal abnormalities
BWt < 2500 grams
Bullous skin lesions
Hyperbilirubinemia
Pneumonia
Splenomegaly
Severe anemia, hydrops, edema
Snuffles
A

Congenital syphilis

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28
Q

Treatment of congenital syphilis

A

PCN G x 10 days

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29
Q

Pastia’s lines

A

Scarlet Fever

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30
Q

Circumoral pallor

A

Scarlet Fever

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31
Q

Post-auricular adenopathy

A

Rubella

32
Q

Slapped cheeks, lace-like rash

A
Erythema Infectiosum (5th disease)
Parvovirus B19
33
Q

Diarrhea + Daycare

A
Rotavirus
Giardia
Cryptosporidium
Shigella
Campylobacter
Ecoli, enterohemorrhagic
34
Q

Diarrhea + chicken

A

Nontyphiod salmonella
Campylobacter
Clostridium perfringens

35
Q

Diarrhea + hamburger

A

Enterohemorrhagic E.coli (+/-HUS)

36
Q

DIarrhea + pork

A

Yersinia

37
Q

Diarrhea + rice

A

B.cereus

38
Q

Diarrhea + shellfish or salad

A

Norovirus

39
Q

Diarrhea + raw fruits/veggies

A

Enterohemorrhagic E.coli

Nontyphoid Salmonella

40
Q

Diarrhea + unpasteurized milk

A

Campylobacter

Nontyphoid Salmonella

41
Q

Diarrhea + Picnic/banquet

A

S.aureus
B.cereus
Clostridium perfringens

42
Q

Fall-Winter diarrhea

A

Rotavirus

Norovirus

43
Q

Summer diarrhea

A

Enterohemorrhagic E.coli
Cryptosporidium
Giardia

44
Q

Hemoglobinopathy or asplenia + diarrhea

A

Nontyphoid Salmonella

45
Q

Iron overload + diarrhea

A

Yersinia

46
Q

HIV + diarrhea

A

Cryptosporidium

Nontyphoid Salmonella

47
Q

Hiking + diarrhea

A

Giardia

48
Q

Swimming + diarrhea

A

E.coli (enterohemorrhagic)

Cryptosporidium

49
Q

Petting zoo + diarrhea

A

Enterohemorrhagic E.coli

Cryptosporidium

50
Q

Animals + diarrhea

A
Cryptosporidium
Campylobacter
Yersinia
Nontyphoid Salmonella
Enterohemorrhagic E.coli
51
Q

ABX + diarrhea

A

C. difficile

52
Q

Voluminous diarrhea

A

Cholera

53
Q

Chronic diarrhea + flatulence

A

Giardia

54
Q

Prolonged diarrhea

A

Cryptosporidium

55
Q

Fever/pulse dissociation

A

Typhoid fever

56
Q

Diarrhea –> typhoid fever

A

Salmonella typhi

57
Q

Diarrhea –> bacteremia, osteomyelitis or meningitis

A

Non-typhoid Salmonella

Yersinia

58
Q

Diarrhea –> arthritis

A

Yersinia

59
Q

Diarrhea –> HUS

A

Enterohemorrhagic E.coli

60
Q

Diarrhea –> Liver Abscess

A

Entamoeba histolytica

61
Q

Diarrhea –> Seizures

A

Shigella

62
Q

Diarrhea –> Guillain-Barre Syndrome

A

Campylobacter

63
Q

Diarrhea –> Prominent cramping

A

Campylobacter
Clostridium perfringens
Clostridium difficile

64
Q

Diarrhea –> Pseudoappendicitis

A

Yersinia

65
Q

Diarrhea –> IBD presentation

A

Entamoeba histolytica

66
Q

Diarrhea –> Pseudomembranous colitis

A

C. difficile

67
Q

Rx Enterotoxigenic E.coli

A

Azithromycin
Ceftriaxone
Rifiximin
Ciprofloxacin

68
Q

Rx Vibrio cholerae

A

Azithromycin
Erythromycin
Doxycycline

69
Q

Rx Giardia

A
Metronidazole
Furazolidone
Albendazole
Ntazoxanide
Tinidazole

Relapse rate >10%

70
Q

Rx: Cryptosporidium

A

Nitazoxanide

71
Q

Rx: Shigella

A

Azithromycin
Ceftriaxone
Ciprofloxacin

72
Q

Rx: Salmonella typhi

A

Ceftriaxone
Azithromycin
Quinolones

73
Q

Rx: Non-typhoid Salmonella

A

Treatment NOT indicated in uncomplicated cases

74
Q

Rx: Campylobacter

A

Azithromycin

Erythromycin

75
Q

Rx: Enterohemorrhagic E.coli

A

ABX theoretically harmful and may increase risk for HUS

76
Q

Rx: Entamoeba histolytica

A

Metronidazole or tinidazole

Iodoquinol clears cysts from intestines