Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Compiled PPS board reviewer > Neonate > Flashcards

Neonate Flashcards

1
Q

small white rash on erythematous base

erythema toxicum contains

A

eosinophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

vesicopustular eruption

pusutular melanosis contains

A

PMNs or neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

hard palate beside raphe accumulation of epithelial cells

A

epstein pearls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

solid flank mass
hematuria
hypertension
thrombocytopenia

A

renal vein thrombosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

urine output in neonates

A

void by 12 hrs

about 95% preterm and term void in 24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

meconium passage

A

usually 12 hours

99% of term and 95% preterm pass by 48 hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

t or f

apgar used to predict neuro outcome

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

convection

A

heat energy to cooler surroundings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

conduction

A

heat to colder materials touching baby

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

radiation

A

infant to other nearby cooler object

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

evaporation

A

skin and lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

nursery temp at

A

22-26 degrees celsius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

vernix shed in

A

2-3 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

advantage circumcision

A 
decrease:
phimosis
uti
penile cancer
std
hiv
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

most accurate measure AOG in utz first trimester

A

crown rump length

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

most accurate measure AOG in utz up to 30wks

A

biparietal diameter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

most common cause of fetal distress

A

uteroplacental insufficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

uteroplacental insufficiency

manifests as

A

iugr
fetal hypoxia
increased vascular resistance of fetal vessels
mixed respiratory and metabolic acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

components of bpp

A 
heart rate
movement
tone
breathing
amniotic fluid volume
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

high risk for fetal alcohol syndrome if

A

> 7drinks per week

or >3drinks at a time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

lecithin: sphingomyelin ratio indicative of lung maturity

A

2:1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

oligohydramnios

A 
Amniotic fluid leak/rupture of membranes
Intrauterine growth restriction
Fetal anomalies
Twin–twin transfusion (donor)
Renal agenesis (Potter syndrome)
Urethral atresia
Prune-belly syndrome
Pulmonary hypoplasia
Amnion nodosum
Indomethacin
Angiotensin-converting enzyme
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

polyhydramnios

A 
Anencephaly
Hydrocephaly
Tracheoesophageal fistula
Duodenal atresia
Spina bifida
Cleft lip or palate
Cystic adenomatoid lung malformation
Diaphragmatic hernia
Syndromes:
Achondroplasia
Klippel-Feil
Trisomy 18
Trisomy 21
TORCH (toxoplasmosis, other agents, rubella, cytomegalovirus,
herpes simplex)
Hydrops fetalis
Multiple congenital anomalies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Accutane (isotretinoin)

A

Facial-ear anomalies, heart disease, CNS anomalies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Alcohol

A

Congenital cardiac, CNS, limb anomalies; IUGR; developmental delay; attention deficits; autism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Amphetamines

A

Congenital heart disease, IUGR, withdrawal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors

and angiotensin receptor antagonists

A

Oligohydramnios, IUGR, renal failure, Potter-like syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Azathioprine

A

Abortion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Carbamazepine

A

Spina bifida, possible neurodevelopmental delay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Carbon monoxide

A

Cerebral atrophy, microcephaly, seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Chloroquine

A

Deafness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Cigarette smoking

A

LBW for gestational age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Cocaine/crack

A

Microcephaly, LBW, IUGR, behavioral disturbances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Danazol

A

Virilization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Lithium

A

Ebstein anomaly, macrosomia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Methyl mercury

A

Minamata disease, microcephaly, deafness, blindness, mental retardation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Misoprostol

A

Arthrogryposis, cranial neuropathies (Möbius syndrome), equinovarus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Mycophenolate mofetil

A

Craniofacial, limb, cardiovascular, CNS anomalies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Penicillamine

A

Cutis laxa syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Phenytoin

A

Congenital anomalies, IUGR, neuroblastoma, bleeding (vitamin K deficiency)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Prednisone

A

Oral clefts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Quinine

A

Abortion, thrombocytopenia, deafness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors

A

Small increased risk of congenital anomalies, persistent pulmonary hypertension of newborn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Statins

A

IUGR, limb deficiencies, VACTERAL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Stilbestrol (diethylstilbestrol [DES])

A

Vaginal adenocarcinoma in adolescence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Streptomycin

A

Deafness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Tetracycline

A

Retarded skeletal growth, pigmentation of teeth, hypoplasia of enamel, cataract, limb
malformations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Thalidomide

A

Phocomelia, deafness, other malformations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Toluene (solvent abuse)

A

Craniofacial abnormalities, prematurity, withdrawal symptoms, hypertonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Topiramate

A

Cleft lip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Valproate

A

CNS (spina bifida), facial and cardiac anomalies, limb defects, impaired neurologic function, autism
spectrum disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Vitamin D

A

Supravalvular aortic stenosis, hypercalcemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Warfarin (Coumadin)

A

Fetal bleeding and death, hypoplastic nasal structures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Phenobarbital—

A

bleeding diathesis (vitamin K deficiency), possible long-term reduction in IQ, sedation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Dexamethasone—

A

periventricular leukomalacia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

amnion nodosum (granules in amnion) and oligohydramnios assoc with

A

pulmonary hypoplasia and renal agenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

fetal transfusion syndrome

A

difference 5g/dL

>20% weight difference

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Symmetric iugr

A 
Earlier onset
Chromosomal
Genetic
Teratogen
Malformation
Infection
Severe hypertension
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Asymmetric iugr

A

Late onset
Preserve Doppler waveform in carotids
Poor maternal nutrition
Preeclampsia, chronic hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Insensible water loss <1000g infant

A

2-3 ml/kg/hr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Insensible water loss 2000-2500g infant

A

0.6 - 0.7 ml/kg/hr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Parental nutrition requirements

A

2.5-3.5 g/dL amino acids
10-15 g/dL glucose
2.2 kcal/mL intralipid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Calorie intake >100kcal per kg per 24 hr

A

Gain 15g /kg/24 hours

Positive nitrogen balance 150-200mg.kg.24hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Tip of not should be

A

2.5cm or 1 inch from lower end of stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Swelling that crosses suture lines

A

Caput succedaneum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Subperiosteal bleeding

Limited to one bone

A

Cephalhematoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Collection of blood under aponeurosis
Usually in vacuum
Ruptured emissary veins

A

Subgaleal hematoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Tears in tentorium cerebelli

A

Subdural hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

IVH found in

A

Gelatinous subependymal germinal matrix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Predisposing factors for IVH include

A

prematurity, RDS, hypoxicischemic or hypotensive injury, reperfusion injury of damaged vessels, increased or decreased cerebral blood flow, reduced vascular integrity, increased venous pressure, pneumothorax, thrombocytopenia, hypervolemia, and hypertension.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Ventriculomegaly is defined as

A

mild (0.5-1 cm dilation), moderate (1.0-1.5 cm dilation), or severe (>1.5 cm dilation).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Cutz to screen for ivh

A

For <1000g highest risk
<32 weeks aog

Done within first 3-7 days of life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Repeat cutz to check for PVL

A

36-40 weeks aog

Cystic lesion 2-4 weeks after

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Target Temp therapeutic hypothermia

A

33.5 first six hours

For 72 hours

75
Q

Poor prognosis HIE

A

pH <6.7
Apgar scores of 0-3 at 5 min, high base deficit (>20-25 mmol/L), decerebrate posture, severe basal ganglia–thalamic lesions, persistence of severe HIE at 72 hr, and lack of spontaneous activity are also at increased risk for death or impairment.

76
Q

Brain death HIE

A

coma unresponsive to pain, auditory, or visual stimulation; apnea with Pco2 rising from 40 to >60 mm Hg without ventilatory support; and absence of brainstem reflexes (pupillary, oculocephalic, oculovestibular, corneal, gag, sucking)

Persistent for 2 days in term, 3 days preterm

77
Q

Typical spinal cord injuries at birth

A

level of the 4th cervical vertebra with cephalic presentations and the lower cervical–upper thoracic vertebrae with breech presentations

78
Q

First thoracic root injured especially sympathetic

A

Paralyzed hand
Ptosis
Miosis

Horner syndrome

79
Q

Which paralysis has better prognosis

Upper or lower part of arm

A

Upper part of arm

80
Q

Nerve injury edema and heals spontaneously

A

Neuropraxia

81
Q

Nerve injury with intact myelination sheath but nerve fiber disrupted

A

Axonotmesis

82
Q

Nerve injury total disruption or root avulsion

A

Neurotmesis

83
Q

Lung catecholamines for transition to neonatal life

A

Vasopressin
Prolactin
Glucocorticoids

84
Q

risk for RDS

A 
premature
maternal diabetes
multiple births
cs
precipitous delivery
asphyxia
cold stress
maternal hx of prev babies
85
Q

RDS causes

A

dec lung compliance
insuff alveolar ventilation
small tidal vol
inc dead space

86
Q

indication for ventilation and surfactant

A

on CPAP 40-70% o2 but still with sats <85%

87
Q

contraindication to indomethacin

A 
plt <50, 000
bleeding
oliguria up 1cc/kg/hr
nec
intestinal perforation
crea >1.8 mg/dL
88
Q

four histo stages of bpd

A
  1. acute lung injury
  2. exudative bronchiolitis
  3. proliferative bronchiolitis
  4. obliterative fibroproliferative bronchiolitis
89
Q

oxygenation index formula

A

= MAP x Fio2 x 100/ PaO2

90
Q

mean airway pressure

A

[(PIP - PEEP) x. RR x IT / 60 ] + PEEP

91
Q

OI >40

A

mortality >80%

92
Q

ECMO not used for

A

high risk of IVH
<2kg
<34 weeks

93
Q

anteromedial CDH

A

morgagni

94
Q

posterolateral CDH

A

bochdaleck

95
Q

poor prognosis CDH

A

lung head ratio <1
(good prognosis if >1.4)
presence of liver in thoracic cavity

96
Q

paraesophageal hernia

A

gastroesophageal junction is in normal place

97
Q

air on xray

A

15-30 mins in jejenum
2-3 hrs ileum
3 hrs colon

98
Q

absence of rectal gas by __ hrs is abnormal

A

24hrs

99
Q

xray meconium ileus

A

loops may vary in width

bubbly granular appearance in severe cases

100
Q

tx meconium ileus or plug

A

gastrografin enema

101
Q

triad of NEC

A
  1. ischemia
  2. enteral nutrition
  3. bacterial translocation
102
Q

pathogens recovered NEC

A 
e coli
klebsiella
clostridium perfringens
staph epidermidis
astrovirus
norovirus
roatvirus
103
Q

indication of surgery for nec

A

pneumoperitoneum

postive culture on paracentesis

104
Q

relative indication for nec

A

failure of med tx
single fixed bowel loop
ab wall erythema
palpable mass

105
Q

mechanism of hyperbil

A
  1. increased liver load
  2. reduced activity of transferase enzyme
  3. competes or blocks transferase enzyme
  4. decreased bili uptake in liver
106
Q

jaundice in indirect hyperbil

A

bright yellow

107
Q

jaundice in direct hyperbil

A

green or muddy yellow

108
Q

value of bilis on pe

A

face 5mg/dL
mid ab 15
soles 20

109
Q

autosomal recessive
high unconjugated bili
nonhemolytic

A

crigler najjar

110
Q

physiologic jaundice

A

2-3 days seen
<5mg/dl rise per day
<12 terms (or 10-14mg/dl in preterms)
decreases to <2mg/dl on day 5-7

direct bili <2mg/dL always

111
Q

syndrome with inactivity of bilirubin glucoronyl transferase

A

gilbert syndrome

112
Q

phototherapy contraindicated in

A

porphyria

113
Q

physiologic anemia

A 
TERM 8-12wks (11g/dL)
PRETERM 6wks (7-10g/dL)
114
Q

test to determine fetal cells in maternal blood

A

kleihauer betke test

115
Q

delayed clamping causes

A

increase 20-40ml blood

30-35mg of iron

116
Q

rh (-) mom should have igG of D antigen measured at

A

12-16wks
28-32wks
36wks

117
Q 
diarrhea
rash
hepatitis
eosinophilia
after blood transfusion
A

graft versus host disease

118
Q

prevention of rh sensitization

A

Rhogam within 72 hours of delivery of rh + baby, ectopic, ab trauma in pregnancy, amniocentesis, abortion, chorionic villous sampling

may be given 28-32 weeks and then at birth

119
Q

neonatal RBC

A

decreased deformability and filterability

120
Q

fetal hemoglobin is __ resistant

A

alkali

APT TEST`

121
Q

result apt test

A

yellow brown color -> MATERNAL

pink color -> BABY

122
Q

normal cord length

A

55cm

123
Q

long cord

A

> 70cm

124
Q

intrauterine transplacental infection

A 
syphilis 
cmv
rubella
toxoplasmosis
parvovirus b19
varicella
125
Q

intrapartum infection

A 
hiv
hsv
hepa b
hepa c
tb
126
Q

common cause of nosoc infection

A 
coagulase neg staph
e coli
klebsiella
enterobacter
citrobacter
pseudomonas
serratioa
enterococci
satph aures
candida
127
Q

congenital pneumonia

A

cmv
rubella
treponema pallidum

128
Q

pneumonia during labor and delivery

A 
gbs
gram - enteric
listeria
mycoplasma
chlamydia
cmv
hsv
candida
129
Q

neonatal meningitis pathogen

A 
gbs
e coli
listeria
strep pneumoniae
hib
staph
kleb
enterobacter
pseudomonas
treponema pallidum
TB
130
Q

most important neonatal actor predisposing to infection is

A

prematurity

low birth weight

131
Q

risk factors for nosoc infection

A

prematurity,
low birthweight,
invasive procedures,
indwelling vascular catheters,
parenteral nutrition with lipid emulsions,
endotracheal tubes,
ventricular shunts,
alterations in the skin and/or mucous membrane barriers,
frequent use of broad-spectrum antibiotics,
and prolonged hospitalization

132
Q

most frequent nosoc

A

coagulase neg staph

133
Q

sirs

A

any 2:

  1. fever or hypothermia
  2. tachycardia/bradycardia
  3. tachypnea/bradypnea
  4. abnormal WBC
134
Q

ecthyma gangrenosum

A

pseudomonas

135
Q

small salmon pink papules

A

listeria monocytogenes

136
Q

bleuberry muffin

A

cmv
rubella
parvovirus

137
Q

common cause of death neonatal tetanus

A

aspiration pneumonia

138
Q

normal csf in infants 1 mo old

A

protein 84 +- 45 mg/dL
glucose 46 +- 10 mg/dL
leukocyte 11 +- 10
PMNs 2.2 +- 3.8%

139
Q

initial empiric

A

ampicillin + aminoglycoside (gentamicin) or cefotax

140
Q

nosoc NICU empiric

A

ampicillin +

oxacillin/nafcillin OR vancomycin

141
Q

empiric gram negative

A

ampicillin

+ aminoglycoside or 3rd gen ceph

142
Q

listeria tx

A

ampicillin

143
Q

GBS tx

A

penicillin

144
Q

enterococci tx

A

penicillin (or ampicillin or pipericillin)

and aminoglycoside

145
Q

duration bloodstream infection

A

7-10 days

or 5-7 days after clinical response

146
Q

nosocomial pneumonia

A

methicillin/vancomycin + aminoglycoside/3rdgen ceph

147
Q

chlamydia trachomatis pneumonia

A

erythromycin
or
cotrimoxazole

148
Q

u. urealyticum infection

A

erythromycin

149
Q

duration gram neg meningitis

A

21 days or

14 days after sterilization of CSF

150
Q

b fragilis infection

A

metronidazole

151
Q

Intrauterine growth

restriction

A

CMV, Plasmodium, rubella,
toxoplasmosis, Treponema
pallidum, Trypanosoma cruzi, VZV

152
Q

Cataracts

A

Rubella

153
Q

Cardiac defects

A

Rubella

154
Q

Hydrocephalus

A

HSV, lymphocytic choriomeningitis

virus, rubella, toxoplasmosis

155
Q

Intracranial calcification

A

CMV, HIV, toxoplasmosis, T. cruzi

156
Q

Limb hypoplasia

A

VZV

157
Q

Microcephaly

A

CMV, HSV, rubella, toxoplasmosis

158
Q

Microphthalmos

A

CMV, rubella, toxoplasmosis

159
Q

Carditis

A

Coxsackieviruses, rubella, T. cruzi

160
Q

Encephalitis

A

CMV, enteroviruses, HSV, rubella,

toxoplasmosis, T. cruzi, T. pallidum

161
Q

Hepatosplenomegaly

A

CMV, enteroviruses, HIV, HSV,
Plasmodium, rubella, T. cruzi,
T. pallidum

162
Q

Hydrops

A

Parvovirus, T. pallidum,

toxoplasmosis

163
Q

Petechiae, purpura

A

CMV, enteroviruses, rubella, T. cruzi

164
Q

Pneumonitis

A

CMV, enteroviruses, HSV, measles,
rubella, toxoplasmosis, T. pallidum,
VZV

165
Q

Retinitis

A

CMV, HSV, lymphocytic
choriomeningitis virus, rubella,
toxoplasmosis, T. pallidum, West
Nile virus

166
Q

Skin lesions

A

Enteroviruses, HSV, measles, rubella,

T. pallidum, VZV

167
Q

Thrombocytopenia

A

CMV, enteroviruses, HIV, HSV,

rubella, toxoplasmosis, T. pallidum

168
Q

Deafness

A

CMV, rubella, toxoplasmosis

169
Q

Convulsions

A

CMV, enteroviruses, rubella,

toxoplasmosis

170
Q

ADE Oxygen

A

Retinopathy of prematurity,

bronchopulmonary dysplasia

171
Q

ADE

Chloramphenicol

A

Gray baby syndrome—shock, bone

marrow suppression

172
Q

ADE

NaHCO3

A

Intraventricular hemorrhage

173
Q

ADE

Amphotericin

A

Anuric renal failure, hypokalemia,

hypomagnesemia

174
Q

ADE

Indomethacin

A

Oliguria, hyponatremia, intestinal

perforation

175
Q

ADE

Tetracycline

A

Enamel hypoplasia

176
Q

ADE

Calcium salts

A

Subcutaneous necrosis

177
Q

ADE

Prostaglandins

A

Seizures, diarrhea, apnea, hyperostosis,

pyloric stenosis

178
Q

ADE

Dexamethasone

A

Gastrointestinal bleeding, hypertension,
infection, hyperglycemia,
cardiomyopathy, reduced growth

179
Q

ADE

Iodine antiseptics

A

Hypothyroidism, goiter

180
Q

ADE

Erythromycin

A

Pyloric stenosis

181
Q 
hie location?
Stupor or coma
Seizures
Hypotonia
Oculomotor abnormalities
Suck/swallow abnormalities
A

Selective neuronal

necrosis

182
Q

hie location?
Proximal limb weakness
Upper extremities affected more
than lower extremities

A

Parasagittal injury

183
Q

hie location?
Unilateral findings
Seizures common and typically focal

A

Focal ischemic

necrosis

184
Q

hie location?
Bilateral and symmetric weakness in
lower extremities
More common in preterm infants

A

Periventricular injury

Compiled PPS board reviewer (60 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions