abnormal exam Flashcards

(71 cards)

1
Q

flight of ideas

A

is associated with manic episodes

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2
Q

phobia with the clearest genetic contribution

A

blood-injection-injury

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3
Q

every time Steven sees a cockroach he screams in terror. For Steven, a cockroach is a

A

antecedent

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4
Q

the most effective psychological treatment approach for obsessive-compulsive disorder

A

involves actively preventing the rituals and exposing the patient to the feared thoughts or situations

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5
Q

in treating anxiety disorders using an exposure technique , you don’t need to be worried that you will do it wrong and the patient will explode, because

A

“what goes up must come down”

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6
Q

which operant conditioning principle best explains the self-reinforcing nature of anxiety disorders?

A

negative reinforcement

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7
Q

in panic control treatment (PCT):

A

the therapist attempts to “mini” panic attacks in the office, the patient exercises or ingests caffeine to elevate their heart rate, and the patient receives cognitive therapy

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8
Q

two major components of expressed emotion are

A

criticism and hostility

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9
Q

people are more likely to develop phobias to certain stimuli and less to others

A

evolutionary theory

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10
Q

diane on 20/20 special , psychologist employs behavioral treatment of hoarding this is characterized by the use of ___ so that hoarders learn to order objects by their different values and ___ to encourage patients to make progressive steps toward discarding items

A

stimulus discrimination, shaping

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11
Q

major specifiers for mood disorders

A

atypical, catatonic, psychotic

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12
Q

risk factors for suicide

A

past history of suicide attempts, alcohol use, recent stressful life events, familial history of suicide

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13
Q

early onset of dysthymic disorder

A

is associated with grater chronicity, associated with relatively poor prognosis, and ass opiated with a stronger likelihood of the disorder running in the family of the affected individual

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14
Q

people with GAD have been called autonomic restrictors because

A

they evidence strong sympathetic arousal

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15
Q

which treatment for anxiety disorders results in the greatest benefits in the shortest period of time

A

in vivo (in life) exposure

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16
Q

if delusions of grandeur are experienced during a depressive episode they could be considered _____, whereas if they occur during a manic episode they are considered ______.

A

mood incongruent, mood congruent

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17
Q

Insomnia during a major depressive episode is ____ whereas hypersomnia during a major depressive episode is _____.

A

a melancholic symptom, an atypical feature

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18
Q

“vegetative symptoms” that are the best indicators of the severity of a depressive episode

A

sleep and appetite disturbance

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19
Q

most effective treatment for major depressive disorder, at this point in research on treatments for depression

A

electroconvulsive shock therapy

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20
Q

many studies have revealed that levels of _____ are elevated in depressed people

A

cortisol

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21
Q

stressful life events

A

are strongly related to the onset of mood disorders

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22
Q

the family environment is an important factor in the development of depression because:

A

it may provide social support that buffers the effects of stressful life events and it may increase symptoms through high levels of expressed emotions

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23
Q

MAO inhibitors are prescribed less often than tricyclics because

A

eating or drinking a number of food or beverages containing tyramine can lead to severe hypertension and death

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24
Q

a more important goal for people suffering from depression than recovery is often:

A

to delay, or even prevent entirely, the next depressive episode

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25
the emotion of fear
is an emergency or defensive reaction often called the "fight or flight" response
26
the major assumption behind Aaron Beck's cognitive therapy for depression is that:
changes in perception will result in changes in emotional response
27
What is the definition of psychological-mindedness?
Ability to process intrapsychic conflict ## Footnote This concept is crucial in understanding somatic symptom and dissociative disorders.
28
What occurs in somatic symptom disorders?
Physical symptoms take place of psychological conflict ## Footnote Examples include anxiety, depression, and failures.
29
What characterizes dissociative disorders?
Dissociation (splitting of consciousness) often in response to trauma ## Footnote This can lead to difficulties in processing traumatic experiences.
30
What is a fugue state?
Amnestic disorder where the patient takes off (flight), often after a stressful life event ## Footnote Often involves memory loss related to personal identity.
31
What is the focus of somatic symptom disorders?
Excessive or maladaptive response to physical symptoms or health concerns ## Footnote These disorders were previously known as somatoform disorders.
32
What does the term 'soma' refer to?
Body ## Footnote This term is the root for somatic symptom disorders.
33
What is a key distinction between somatic symptom disorder and illness anxiety disorder?
Somatic symptom disorder involves definitive symptoms, while illness anxiety disorder has mild or absent symptoms ## Footnote The main concern in illness anxiety disorder is the worry about serious illness.
34
What is the DSM-5 criterion A for somatic symptom disorder?
One or more somatic symptoms that are distressing and/or result in significant disruption of daily life ## Footnote This is the first step in diagnosing the disorder.
35
What is the prevalence of somatic symptom disorder?
Rare condition (<1% of population) ## Footnote It typically has an onset in adolescence and affects unmarried, low SES women.
36
What is the core feature of illness anxiety disorder?
Severe anxiety about the possibility of having or acquiring a serious disease ## Footnote Actual physical symptoms are usually very mild or non-existent.
37
What are the DSM-5 criteria for illness anxiety disorder?
A. Preoccupation with fears of having or acquiring a serious illness. B. Somatic symptoms are not present or are mild. C. High level of anxiety about health. D. Excessive health-related behaviors or avoidance. E. Illness preoccupation for at least 6 months. F. Not better explained by another mental disorder ## Footnote These criteria help differentiate it from other disorders.
38
What cultural-specific disorders are mentioned?
* Koro * Dhat * Kyol goeu ## Footnote These disorders reflect cultural variations in the understanding of health and illness.
39
What are the potential causes of somatic symptom disorders?
* Consistent overreaction to physical signs * Misinterpretation of bodily sensations * Genetic component * Precipitating stressful life events * Modeling from adults with SSDs * Attention for illness-related behaviors ## Footnote These factors can contribute to the development of these disorders.
40
What is the link between somatic symptom disorder and antisocial personality disorder?
Shared features include chronic and difficult to treat conditions often beginning early in life ## Footnote Both disorders are more common in lower SES populations.
41
What is a treatment strategy for illness anxiety disorder?
CBT can effectively treat illness anxiety disorder ## Footnote Mild cases may benefit from education and reassurance from medical professionals.
42
What characterizes conversion disorder?
Motor or sensory dysfunction inconsistent with a medical disorder ## Footnote Symptoms may include paralysis, blindness, or mutism.
43
What is the DSM-5 criterion for conversion disorder?
Key feature: Motor or sensory dysfunction inconsistent with a medical disorder ## Footnote It is often comorbid with anxiety and mood disorders.
44
What is factitious disorder?
Purposely faking physical symptoms without obvious external gains ## Footnote The only gain may be the 'sick role' and the attention it brings.
45
What is the purpose of factitious disorder imposed on another?
Inducing symptoms in another person to receive attention or sympathy ## Footnote Often involves a caregiver inducing symptoms in a dependent.
46
What are the types of dissociative disorders in DSM-5?
* Depersonalization/derealization disorder * Dissociative amnesia * Dissociative trance disorder * Dissociative identity disorder ## Footnote Each disorder has unique features related to dissociation.
47
What defines depersonalization/derealization disorder?
Recurrent episodes of sensations of unreality of one’s own body or surroundings ## Footnote Symptoms must interfere with life functioning for a diagnosis.
48
What is dissociative amnesia?
Inability to recall important autobiographical information inconsistent with ordinary forgetting ## Footnote It may involve localized or generalized memory loss.
49
What is the definition of Dissociative Amnesia?
An inability to recall important autobiographical information, usually of a traumatic or stressful nature, that is inconsistent with ordinary forgetting.
50
What are the two main types of amnesia in Dissociative Amnesia?
Localized or selective amnesia for a specific event or events; generalized amnesia for identity and life history.
51
What are the DSM-5 criteria for Dissociative Amnesia?
A. Inability to recall important autobiographical information. B. Symptoms cause clinically significant distress or impairment. C. Not attributable to physiological effects of a substance or medical condition. D. Not better explained by other disorders.
52
What is Dissociative Fugue?
Apparently purposeful travel or bewildered wandering associated with amnesia for identity or other important autobiographical information.
53
What is the prevalence of Dissociative Amnesia?
2-7% of the population.
54
In which age group does Dissociative Amnesia usually occur?
Usually occurs in adulthood.
55
What can trigger Dissociative Amnesia?
Trauma and stress.
56
How do most individuals with Dissociative Amnesia recover?
Most recover/remember without treatment.
57
What is the cultural variation of Dissociative Trance?
Nigeria - vinvusa; Thailand - phii pob.
58
What is Dissociative Identity Disorder (DID) also known as?
Multiple personality disorder.
59
What is the defining feature of Dissociative Identity Disorder?
Dissociation of personality.
60
What are 'alters' in the context of DID?
Different identities or personalities.
61
What is a 'host' in Dissociative Identity Disorder?
The identity that keeps other identities together.
62
What is a 'switch' in the context of DID?
Quick transition from one personality to another.
63
True or False: Dissociative Identity Disorder can be faked.
True.
64
What is the prevalence of Dissociative Identity Disorder?
Unclear, perhaps 1-2%.
65
What is the primary cause of Dissociative Identity Disorder?
History of severe, chronic trauma, often abuse in childhood.
66
What is the mechanism behind Dissociative Identity Disorder?
Dissociation offers an opportunity to escape from the impact of trauma.
67
What is the treatment focus for Dissociative Identity Disorder?
Reintegration of identities.
68
Fill in the blank: The problem of creating false memories of abuse is associated with the power of _______.
[suggestion].
69
What are the features of somatic symptom disorders?
Physical concerns without a clear medical cause.
70
What are the features of dissociative disorders?
Extreme distortions in perception and memory.
71
What is a significant issue regarding the treatment of somatic symptom and dissociative disorders?
Well established treatments are generally lacking.