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Flashcards in Academics ER Review Deck (106):
1

What does FAA NOTAMS Distribution System cover?

All Civilian airfields and the FDC's

2

What are National Flight Data Center (FDC) NOTAMS

Regulatory NOTAMS that apply to all aircraft that apply to all aircraft and include important information such as special FAA regulations etc.

3

What airfields does DINS cover

All military and many (but not all) civilian airfields

4

What are Flight Safety NOTAMS

Important information that may affect flight operations or use of the airfield (such as runway/aerodome closures etc)

5

When do you create an ASRR(Airfield Suitability Restrictions Report)

When planning Missions to unfamiliar airfield
Q Code
Online must be accessed through a .mil computer system

6

What does ASRR stand for?

Airfield Suitability and Restrictions Report

7

When flying under IFR and not on a federal airway, how low can you descend?

Down to the OROCA or ORTCA

8

When flying under IFR on a federal airway, how low can you descend?

Down to the MEA, MRA, MCA, or MOCA

9

NAVAID service volumes:
T Class

25 NM up to 12,000'

10

NAVAID service volumes:
L Class

40 NM up to FL180

11

NAVAID service volumes:
H Class

130 NM between FL180 and FL450

12

Can you take off without a flight plan?

Yes, but you must file your plan as soon as possible while airborne

13

Who do you work with to file a civilian flight plan?

FSS

14

Who do you work with to file a military flight plan?

Base Ops

15

Where does AHAS bird advisory get its data?

BAM + NEXRAD

16

Where does BAM bird advisory get its data?

historical reports

17

If you need to make a change to your flight plan during flight, where can you find guidance to show you how?

The format is on the inside back cover of the IFR/VFR supp.s

18

What does DINS stand for?

Defense Internet NOTAM distribution System

19

What is the amount of sky coverage when the sky condition is defined as VV?

Indefinite ceiling

20

What is the amount of sky coverage when the sky condition is defined as OVC?

Full coverage

21

What is the amount of sky coverage when the sky condition is defined as BKN?

5/8 - 7/8 coverage

22

What is the amount of sky coverage when the sky condition is defined as SCT?

3/8 - 4/8 coverage

23

What is the amount of sky coverage when the sky condition is defined as FEW?

1/8 - 2/8

24

What is the amount of sky coverage when the sky condition is defined as SKC?

Sky clear

25

What is your priority order for obtaining a weather brief?

a. locally approved mission execution forecasts
b. local military Wx unit
c. Servicing AF Operational Wx Squadron
d. Another military Wx unit
e. FAA Wx forecast or flight Wx briefer
f. Nearest FSS

26

Climb profiles:
Define range climb

minimum climb range and fuel are not required - 250 knots

27

Climb Profiles:
Define rate climb

minimize the time n the climb to the cruise altitude - 220 knots

28

Performance ceilings:
Define service ceilings

highest altitude at which the maximum rate of climb of 100 fpm is still achieved - 41,000 ft MSL

29

Performance ceilings:
Define cruise ceilings

best initial cruise performance for a specified temperature and aircraft gross weight - 300 fpm

30

Performance ceilings:
Define combat ceilings

maximum ceiling at which adequate maneuvering capability exists - 500 fpm

31

Cruise:
Define best endurance

speed to fly to minimize fuel flow in level flight

32

Cruise:
Define maximum range

maximizes the nautical air miles the aircraft can travel for every pound of fuel

33

Cruise:
Define Long range

speed that provides 99% of maximum range

34

Define specific range

nautical air miles per pound of fuel

35

Endurance/Holding:
Define Best Endurance

Loiter time available at the best airspeed for a specific loiter altitude and gross weight

36

Endurance/Holding:
Define Max Endurance

Loiter time available at the optimum combination of altitude and airspeed

37

Descent Profiles - Penetration
Airspeed: ___
Configuration: ___

180 KIAS
Idle/Speed brakes and gear extended

38

Descent Profiles - Rapid
Airspeed: ___
Configuration: ___

330 KIAS
Idle/Speed brakes extended

39

Descent Profiles - Enroute
Airspeed: ___
Configuration: ___

250 KIAS
Idle/Speed brakes extended

40

Descent Profiles - Max Range
Airspeed: ___
Configuration: ___

230 KIAS
Idle/Clean

41

Name 3 common errors in NAVAID fixing

EHSI interpolation error
misplotting
ground range vs slant range

42

Name 3 disadvantages to fixing off a NAVAID

Magnetic to True conversion
plotting errors
no stations over water
jamming

43

Name 3 advantages to fixing off a NAVAID

Accuracy
Widespread coverage
Speed

44

How does the ACO differ from the ACP?

The ACP is a broader plan on how to use the airspace and lists all designated airspace within the theater

45

Define ACO

Airspace Controlling Order
daily publication that lists the airspace that can and/or is used during a particular 24 hour ATO period

46

Define ATO

the directive that officially tasks airpower in support of a JFC's campaign

47

How long is an ATO?

24 hours

48

How long is an Air Tasking Cycle?

72 hours

49

Define JAOP

guide the employment of air capabilities and forces to accomplish the objectives assigned by the JFC

50

Name 4 ways to detect weather

Visual
PIREP
PMSV
Radar

51

How does the 60-to-1 rule for avoiding weather work?

A 10 degree turn for 60NM will detour you 10NM.
A 20 degree turn for 60NM will detour you 20NM
A 20 degree turn for 30NM will detour you 10NM
A 40 degree turn for 30NM will detour you 20NM

52

Name two methods of deviating around weather

60-to-1
flying disk

53

What is the Thunderstorm Avoidance guidance given by AFI 11-2T-1v3?

Directs aircrews to utilize all means necessary to avoid thunderstorms by 20NM at or above FL230 and 10NM below FL230

54

What is the Thunderstorm Avoidance guidance given by AFH 11-203v1?

Recommends that all aircraft avoid flying into thunderstorms

55

Define spot size error

distorts the return on both range and azimuth, presenting the same magnitude of error all around the target

56

Define Pulse length error

adds to trailing edge of return, far side only

57

Define Beamwidth error

adds width to the return, azimuth only. Two objects can appear to be joined together

58

Name 3 inherent scope errors

Beamwidth error
pulse length error
spot size error

59

Define Arctic Reversal

land (snow) looks like water and water (ice) looks like land

60

Define Cardinal Point effect

when the radar beam scans surfaces at perpendicular angles, the return is brighter than surfaces that are turned away, all other aspects being equal

61

Define Glitter

the brightening of a return due to a momentarily high signal potential

62

Name 3 Radar Special Effects

Glitter
Cardinal Point effect
Arctic Reversal

63

Use low gain settings for

Topographical/cultural returns

64

Use medium gain settings for

differentiate a major cultural return (like a city) from the surrounding terrain

65

Use high gain settings for

land/water contrast

66

Appearance of returns on scope and tuning:
Cities ___
Runways ___
Lakes ___

Bright
No show
No show

67

Define Beamwidth Occupancy

Two identical objects at different ranges occupy different amounts of the beam of energy

68

Define Attenuation

dispersal of radar energy

69

Range effects the radarscope due to two effects: ___ and ___

Attenuation
Beamwidth occupancy

70

Name three factors effecting radarscope presentation

Target size
Surface material
Target shape/angle of reflection

71

How do you change your True Heading to True Bearing?

RuB + THe = TuB
Relative Bearing, plus True Heading, equals True Bearing

72

In REL mode, the radar display is oriented to ___ and the bearing pointer gives ___

Aircraft True Heading
Aircraft True Heading

73

How do you change magnetic north or magnetic headings to true?

Apply magnetic variation
"East is Least and West is Best, when going from True to Mag" "Mag to True, Undo"

74

In N-1 mode, the radar display is oriented to ___ and the bearing pointer gives ___

magnetic north
magnetic heading

75

In INS mode, the radar display is oriented to ___ and the bearing pointer gives ___

true north
true heading

76

Use DD Form ___ for international flights

DD Form 1801

77

Use DD Form ___ for flights w/in the conterminous US and for flights to Canada

DD Form 175

78

AFI 11-2T-1 dictates the minimum fuel is ___ pounds

500

79

AFI 11-202v3 requires pilots to carry enough reserve fuel to increase their total planned flight time by ___ (up to a maximum of ___) or ___, whichever is greater

10%
45 min
20 min

80

What is NTAP?

Notices To Airmen Publication

81

What is FLIP?

Flight Information Publications

82

How are Series "D" NOTAMS distributed and what do they cover?

NOTAMS that are distant or Nationwide, Widely disseminated.

83

Notices to Airmen Publication(NTAP)

Contains FDC and selected D-type NOTAMS expected to remain in effect for extended period of time

84

Must Review of the FLIP be part of your preflight mission planning?

YES

85

What must be checked for IFR arrival

IFR- check to see if there is a published STAR into the terminal area

86

What is a Contact Approach

Navigate to a straight in final using visual reference to the ground

87

VFR Arrivals procedures

Air Force standard left hand turns
45 degrees to downwind
Cleared for initial = intercept 3-5 miles

88

What is the purpose of VFR arrivals?

VFR- used to expedite traffic flow
maintain IFR clearance and proceed visually and clear of clouds to the airport for a straight in final

89

Departure Planning: what weather do you need for T/O

200 and 1/2
PWC
Lowest compatible landing mins

90

Low altitude en-route Charts: What are airways are shown, and where do they normally begin?

Victor airways
1200 AGL up to/not including FL180

91

High Altitude en-route Charts: What airways are shown, and what altitudes do they cover

Jet Routes
FL180 to FL450

92

What information is provided by Area Charts?

enhance coverage of certain high density terminal areas

93

Airspace: (VFR low area charts)

Class A: FL180 to FL600
Class B: Solid Blue Line up to 10,000
Class C: Solid Magenta Line up to 4,200
Class D: Dashed Blue Line up to 2,500
Class E: Faded Magenta Line up to but not including FL180 and then past FL600

94

What are three examples of Special Use Airspaces

MOA's
Prohibited
Restricted

95

What information do you relay during your initial radio contact

Aircraft ID
Location on Airport
Type of Operation Planned (IFR and VFR)
First Point of Intended Landing
Action required (Taxi, Touch and go etc)

96

What items are required for an IFR clearance?

Aircraft ID
Clearance Limit
Departure Procedure
Route of Flight
Altitude Data in Order Flown

97

When can you request a contact approach?

Pilots can request if reported visibility at airfield is at least 1 mile

98

How do you report En-route Clearance Deviations

Point at which deviation commenced
Direction and distance of detour
Altitude/flight level change
Point and ETA where original route resumed
Flight conditions (IFR or VFR)
Any further deviations necessary
If equipped with Wx radar

99

How is clearance for a STAR obtained?

By filing it or requesting it

100

When given Clearance for a STAR what are you "Cleared" for

Clearance is for the lateral portion only unless cleared to "descend via"

101

What are Rules of Engagement?

Outline how airmen accomplish their mission within the military, political, and legal parameters provided by civilian and military leadership

102

What tells you how to execute an ATO?

SPINS

103

What does SPINS stand for?

Special Instructions

104

What are SPINS?

Broad spectrum of employment information for a given air operation, most notably general operating procedures, communications plan, and rules of engagement

105

What are the scheduled Climb Parameters for Climb Charts? What do you correct for?

5 knots (+/- 0.01 Mach)
Correct for Anti-Ice

106

ETE (IFR and VFR)

IFR- takeoff to last point excluding delays
VFR- takeoff to overhead including delays