Academics ER Review Flashcards
(106 cards)
1
Q
What does FAA NOTAMS Distribution System cover?
A
All Civilian airfields and the FDC’s
2
Q
What are National Flight Data Center (FDC) NOTAMS
A
Regulatory NOTAMS that apply to all aircraft that apply to all aircraft and include important information such as special FAA regulations etc.
3
Q
What airfields does DINS cover
A
All military and many (but not all) civilian airfields
4
Q
What are Flight Safety NOTAMS
A
Important information that may affect flight operations or use of the airfield (such as runway/aerodome closures etc)
5
Q
When do you create an ASRR(Airfield Suitability Restrictions Report)
A
When planning Missions to unfamiliar airfield
Q Code
Online must be accessed through a .mil computer system
6
Q
What does ASRR stand for?
A
Airfield Suitability and Restrictions Report
7
Q
When flying under IFR and not on a federal airway, how low can you descend?
A
Down to the OROCA or ORTCA
8
Q
When flying under IFR on a federal airway, how low can you descend?
A
Down to the MEA, MRA, MCA, or MOCA
9
Q
NAVAID service volumes:
T Class
A
25 NM up to 12,000’
10
Q
NAVAID service volumes:
L Class
A
40 NM up to FL180
11
Q
NAVAID service volumes:
H Class
A
130 NM between FL180 and FL450
12
Q
Can you take off without a flight plan?
A
Yes, but you must file your plan as soon as possible while airborne
13
Q
Who do you work with to file a civilian flight plan?
A
FSS
14
Q
Who do you work with to file a military flight plan?
A
Base Ops
15
Q
Where does AHAS bird advisory get its data?
A
BAM + NEXRAD
16
Q
Where does BAM bird advisory get its data?
A
historical reports
17
Q
If you need to make a change to your flight plan during flight, where can you find guidance to show you how?
A
The format is on the inside back cover of the IFR/VFR supp.s
18
Q
What does DINS stand for?
A
Defense Internet NOTAM distribution System
19
Q
What is the amount of sky coverage when the sky condition is defined as VV?
A
Indefinite ceiling
20
Q
What is the amount of sky coverage when the sky condition is defined as OVC?
A
Full coverage
21
Q
What is the amount of sky coverage when the sky condition is defined as BKN?
A
5/8 - 7/8 coverage
22
Q
What is the amount of sky coverage when the sky condition is defined as SCT?
A
3/8 - 4/8 coverage
23
Q
What is the amount of sky coverage when the sky condition is defined as FEW?
A
1/8 - 2/8
24
Q
What is the amount of sky coverage when the sky condition is defined as SKC?
A
Sky clear
25
What is your priority order for obtaining a weather brief?
a. locally approved mission execution forecasts
b. local military Wx unit
c. Servicing AF Operational Wx Squadron
d. Another military Wx unit
e. FAA Wx forecast or flight Wx briefer
f. Nearest FSS
26
Climb profiles:
| Define range climb
minimum climb range and fuel are not required - 250 knots
27
Climb Profiles:
| Define rate climb
minimize the time n the climb to the cruise altitude - 220 knots
28
Performance ceilings:
| Define service ceilings
highest altitude at which the maximum rate of climb of 100 fpm is still achieved - 41,000 ft MSL
29
Performance ceilings:
| Define cruise ceilings
best initial cruise performance for a specified temperature and aircraft gross weight - 300 fpm
30
Performance ceilings:
| Define combat ceilings
maximum ceiling at which adequate maneuvering capability exists - 500 fpm
31
Cruise:
| Define best endurance
speed to fly to minimize fuel flow in level flight
32
Cruise:
| Define maximum range
maximizes the nautical air miles the aircraft can travel for every pound of fuel
33
Cruise:
| Define Long range
speed that provides 99% of maximum range
34
Define specific range
nautical air miles per pound of fuel
35
Endurance/Holding:
| Define Best Endurance
Loiter time available at the best airspeed for a specific loiter altitude and gross weight
36
Endurance/Holding:
| Define Max Endurance
Loiter time available at the optimum combination of altitude and airspeed
37
Descent Profiles - Penetration
Airspeed: ___
Configuration: ___
180 KIAS
| Idle/Speed brakes and gear extended
38
Descent Profiles - Rapid
Airspeed: ___
Configuration: ___
330 KIAS
| Idle/Speed brakes extended
39
Descent Profiles - Enroute
Airspeed: ___
Configuration: ___
250 KIAS
| Idle/Speed brakes extended
40
Descent Profiles - Max Range
Airspeed: ___
Configuration: ___
230 KIAS
| Idle/Clean
41
Name 3 common errors in NAVAID fixing
EHSI interpolation error
misplotting
ground range vs slant range
42
Name 3 disadvantages to fixing off a NAVAID
Magnetic to True conversion
plotting errors
no stations over water
jamming
43
Name 3 advantages to fixing off a NAVAID
Accuracy
Widespread coverage
Speed
44
How does the ACO differ from the ACP?
The ACP is a broader plan on how to use the airspace and lists all designated airspace within the theater
45
Define ACO
Airspace Controlling Order
| daily publication that lists the airspace that can and/or is used during a particular 24 hour ATO period
46
Define ATO
the directive that officially tasks airpower in support of a JFC's campaign
47
How long is an ATO?
24 hours
48
How long is an Air Tasking Cycle?
72 hours
49
Define JAOP
guide the employment of air capabilities and forces to accomplish the objectives assigned by the JFC
50
Name 4 ways to detect weather
Visual
PIREP
PMSV
Radar
51
How does the 60-to-1 rule for avoiding weather work?
A 10 degree turn for 60NM will detour you 10NM.
A 20 degree turn for 60NM will detour you 20NM
A 20 degree turn for 30NM will detour you 10NM
A 40 degree turn for 30NM will detour you 20NM
52
Name two methods of deviating around weather
60-to-1
| flying disk
53
What is the Thunderstorm Avoidance guidance given by AFI 11-2T-1v3?
Directs aircrews to utilize all means necessary to avoid thunderstorms by 20NM at or above FL230 and 10NM below FL230
54
What is the Thunderstorm Avoidance guidance given by AFH 11-203v1?
Recommends that all aircraft avoid flying into thunderstorms
55
Define spot size error
distorts the return on both range and azimuth, presenting the same magnitude of error all around the target
56
Define Pulse length error
adds to trailing edge of return, far side only
57
Define Beamwidth error
adds width to the return, azimuth only. Two objects can appear to be joined together
58
Name 3 inherent scope errors
Beamwidth error
pulse length error
spot size error
59
Define Arctic Reversal
land (snow) looks like water and water (ice) looks like land
60
Define Cardinal Point effect
when the radar beam scans surfaces at perpendicular angles, the return is brighter than surfaces that are turned away, all other aspects being equal
61
Define Glitter
the brightening of a return due to a momentarily high signal potential
62
Name 3 Radar Special Effects
Glitter
Cardinal Point effect
Arctic Reversal
63
Use low gain settings for
Topographical/cultural returns
64
Use medium gain settings for
differentiate a major cultural return (like a city) from the surrounding terrain
65
Use high gain settings for
land/water contrast
66
Appearance of returns on scope and tuning:
Cities ___
Runways ___
Lakes ___
Bright
No show
No show
67
Define Beamwidth Occupancy
Two identical objects at different ranges occupy different amounts of the beam of energy
68
Define Attenuation
dispersal of radar energy
69
Range effects the radarscope due to two effects: ___ and ___
Attenuation
| Beamwidth occupancy
70
Name three factors effecting radarscope presentation
Target size
Surface material
Target shape/angle of reflection
71
How do you change your True Heading to True Bearing?
RuB + THe = TuB
| Relative Bearing, plus True Heading, equals True Bearing
72
In REL mode, the radar display is oriented to ___ and the bearing pointer gives ___
Aircraft True Heading
| Aircraft True Heading
73
How do you change magnetic north or magnetic headings to true?
Apply magnetic variation
| "East is Least and West is Best, when going from True to Mag" "Mag to True, Undo"
74
In N-1 mode, the radar display is oriented to ___ and the bearing pointer gives ___
magnetic north
| magnetic heading
75
In INS mode, the radar display is oriented to ___ and the bearing pointer gives ___
true north
| true heading
76
Use DD Form ___ for international flights
DD Form 1801
77
Use DD Form ___ for flights w/in the conterminous US and for flights to Canada
DD Form 175
78
AFI 11-2T-1 dictates the minimum fuel is ___ pounds
500
79
AFI 11-202v3 requires pilots to carry enough reserve fuel to increase their total planned flight time by ___ (up to a maximum of ___) or ___, whichever is greater
10%
45 min
20 min
80
What is NTAP?
Notices To Airmen Publication
81
What is FLIP?
Flight Information Publications
82
How are Series "D" NOTAMS distributed and what do they cover?
NOTAMS that are distant or Nationwide, Widely disseminated.
83
Notices to Airmen Publication(NTAP)
Contains FDC and selected D-type NOTAMS expected to remain in effect for extended period of time
84
Must Review of the FLIP be part of your preflight mission planning?
YES
85
What must be checked for IFR arrival
IFR- check to see if there is a published STAR into the terminal area
86
What is a Contact Approach
Navigate to a straight in final using visual reference to the ground
87
VFR Arrivals procedures
Air Force standard left hand turns
45 degrees to downwind
Cleared for initial = intercept 3-5 miles
88
What is the purpose of VFR arrivals?
VFR- used to expedite traffic flow
| maintain IFR clearance and proceed visually and clear of clouds to the airport for a straight in final
89
Departure Planning: what weather do you need for T/O
200 and 1/2
PWC
Lowest compatible landing mins
90
Low altitude en-route Charts: What are airways are shown, and where do they normally begin?
Victor airways
| 1200 AGL up to/not including FL180
91
High Altitude en-route Charts: What airways are shown, and what altitudes do they cover
Jet Routes
| FL180 to FL450
92
What information is provided by Area Charts?
enhance coverage of certain high density terminal areas
93
Airspace: (VFR low area charts)
```
Class A: FL180 to FL600
Class B: Solid Blue Line up to 10,000
Class C: Solid Magenta Line up to 4,200
Class D: Dashed Blue Line up to 2,500
Class E: Faded Magenta Line up to but not including FL180 and then past FL600
```
94
What are three examples of Special Use Airspaces
MOA's
Prohibited
Restricted
95
What information do you relay during your initial radio contact
```
Aircraft ID
Location on Airport
Type of Operation Planned (IFR and VFR)
First Point of Intended Landing
Action required (Taxi, Touch and go etc)
```
96
What items are required for an IFR clearance?
```
Aircraft ID
Clearance Limit
Departure Procedure
Route of Flight
Altitude Data in Order Flown
```
97
When can you request a contact approach?
Pilots can request if reported visibility at airfield is at least 1 mile
98
How do you report En-route Clearance Deviations
```
Point at which deviation commenced
Direction and distance of detour
Altitude/flight level change
Point and ETA where original route resumed
Flight conditions (IFR or VFR)
Any further deviations necessary
If equipped with Wx radar
```
99
How is clearance for a STAR obtained?
By filing it or requesting it
100
When given Clearance for a STAR what are you "Cleared" for
Clearance is for the lateral portion only unless cleared to "descend via"
101
What are Rules of Engagement?
Outline how airmen accomplish their mission within the military, political, and legal parameters provided by civilian and military leadership
102
What tells you how to execute an ATO?
SPINS
103
What does SPINS stand for?
Special Instructions
104
What are SPINS?
Broad spectrum of employment information for a given air operation, most notably general operating procedures, communications plan, and rules of engagement
105
What are the scheduled Climb Parameters for Climb Charts? What do you correct for?
```
5 knots (+/- 0.01 Mach)
Correct for Anti-Ice
```
106
ETE (IFR and VFR)
IFR- takeoff to last point excluding delays
| VFR- takeoff to overhead including delays
