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Flashcards in Systems1 Deck (97):
1

1. Which portions of the T-1A are pressurized? a. Flightdeck and cabin b. Nose, flightdeck, and cabin c. Nose, flightdeck, and aft fuselage d. Nose, flightdeck, cabin, and aft fuselage

1. a. Flightdeck and cabin

2

2. Which of the following statements concerning the T-1A flight controls is correct? a. The aircraft uses ailerons for roll control. b. The speed brake switch is located on the left throttle. c. All primary flight controls are mechanically actuated. d. All trim surfaces are actuated through systems using pulleys and cables.

2. c. All primary flight controls are mechanically actuated.

3

3. How many exit doors are installed on the T-1A? a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four

3. b. Two

4

4. How many crew oxygen masks are in the T-1A? a. Three b. Four c. Six d. Eight

4. c. Six

5

5. Which of the following components operate using hydraulic pressure? a. Spoilers b. Roll trim c. Elevator d. Landing gear

5. d. Landing gear

6

6. Which flightdeck panel/console contains controls to actuate the flaps? a. Overhead panel b. Main instrument panel c. Center console d. Circuit breaker panel

6. c. Center console

7

7. Which of the following components can be used to control the UHF radio? a. EADI b. RTU c. ALTM d. EFIS

7. b. RTU

8

1. If the amber EMER BUS FDR FAIL annunciator illuminates, what light on the shroud panel also illuminates?

1. Two MASTER CAUTION RESET switchlights

9

2. During the Before Starting Engines Check, as you rotate the MASTER TEST Switch to the FLAP ASYM position, the red NO GO light illuminates. What does this indicate?

2. Failure of the flap asymmetry detector

10

3. The audible signals for cabin smoke and engine fire are the same. a. True b. False

3. b. False

11

4. Where is the EMER LT NO ARM annunciator located and what does it mean?

4. On the copilot’s side of the shroud panel; it indicates the guarded emergency light control switch is in the OFF or TEST/ON position.

12

5. What does it mean when the BATT CUT OFF light on the main annunciator panel illuminates? Where is this discussed in Section I? Where is it discussed in Section III?

5. The battery relay is open; Figure 3-12 in T.O. 1T-1A-1 indicates information is available on page 3-18 and 1-52

13

6. What does it mean when the R H HYD PMP PRESS LO light on the main annunciator panel illuminates? Where is this discussed in Section I? Where is it discussed in Section III?

6. The pressure from the right hydraulic pump is less than 70 psi. Figure 3-13 in T.O. 1T-1A-1 indicates information is available on page 3-39 and 1-79.

14

1. Label the various components of the JT15D-5B fanjet engine cutaway below (Figure 3-2):

Q image thumb

1. Refer to Figure 3-1 in SG.

A image thumb
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2. N1 is the speed of __________.

2. The engine fan (low compressor) and its associated two-stage turbine.

16

3. N2 is the speed of __________.

3. The high compressor and its associated single-stage turbine.

17

4. Most of the thrust at low altitude is created by __________.

4. The fan.

18

5. Reference T.O. 1T-1A-1, Section V, Figure 5-2, to complete the JT15D-5B engine limitations in Figure 3-3 below:

Q image thumb

A image thumb
19

1. The lubrication subsystem for each engine uses __________ oil pump(s) and __________ scavenger pump(s).

1. One; two

20

2. What happens if an oil filter clogs with contaminants?

2. The associated L or R O FLTR BYPASS annunciator illuminates (along with the flashing MASTER CAUTION RESET switchlights.) A bypass switch allows unfiltered oil to flow to the engine.

21

3. Flying with the ignition subsystem in standby, you perform a stall series. As the stick shaker activates, you notice that the two ignition subsystem lights illuminate on the overhead panel. What do these lights indicate?

3. Normal activation of the ignition system as the AOA system detected an approach to stall condition.

22

4. While in flight, the crew performs emergency checklist procedures for an Engine Fire during Flight for the left engine. After pressing the BOT 1 ARMED PUSH switchlight, the fire indications persist. Is it possible to discharge any other fire extinguisher agent into the left engine?

4. Yes. By pressing the BOT 2 ARMED PUSH switchlight, the second fire bottle discharges into the left engine.

23

5. While cruising at FL240 with the engine synchronization on, the right engine fails. What should happen to the left engine?

5. The left engine should maintain its RPM setting since the left engine is the master for the synchronization system.

24

1. While starting the right engine, the crew chief informs the crew that there is a tailpipe fire in the engine. The crew initiates the procedures for a Tailpipe Fire on the Ground when the RH ENG FIRE PUSH switchlight illuminates and the engine fire bell sounds. What action should be taken?

1. The tailpipe fire has spread beyond the tailpipe and the crew should accomplish the Engine Fire during Ground Operations checklist.

25

2. What should be done with the bleed air selector if an engine fails during an ACM OFF takeoff?

2. Leave the bleed air selector in the OFF position until 2,200 feet AGL or clear of obstructions.

26

3. For an engine fire during takeoff, do not secure the engine until reaching __________ feet AGL and clear of obstructions.

3. 400

27

4. If the fire warning test fails while performing the Engine Fire during Flight procedures, what does this indicate?

4. A possible burn through of the fire detection system. A fire may still exist although no fire warning indications are present.

28

5. If an engine failure is preceded by a loud report, attempt an immediate engine restart.

a. True

b. False

5. b. False

 

29

6. Why are the boost pumps left on when performing the Engine Shutdown during Flight Checklist?

6. To ensure lubrication of the high pressure engine driven fuel pump.

30

7. What source of electrical power turns the starter during an inflight starter assisted air start?

7. The main aircraft battery.

31

8. During flight (N2 above 60%), the crew notices oil pressure for the right engine reads 52 psi. What action should be taken?

8. This reading is undesirable. Reduce power on the right engine and land as soon as practical.

32

9. If the EFC for the left engine is inoperative how will this affect the engine spool-up time?

9. Engine spool up time increases.

33

1. Which of the following sequences correctly describes flow of fuel through the T-1A system?

a. Aft cabin tank, to aft fuselage tank, to mid tanks, to wing tanks, to engines

b. Aft fuselage tank, to aft cabin tank, to mid tanks, to wing tanks, to engines

c. Wing tanks, to mid tanks, to aft fuselage tank, to aft cabin tank, to engines

d. Aft fuselage tank, to aft cabin tank, to wing tanks, to mid tanks, to engines

1. a. Aft cabin tank, to aft fuselage tank, to mid tanks, to wing tanks to engines.

34

2. Which of the following statements concerning the T-1A fuel quantity indicators is correct?

a. The fuselage gauge measures fuel in the mid tanks only.

b. Indicator failure is displayed by a rotating pointer on the gauge.

c. The indicators are unreliable at high angles of attack and/or any angles of side-slip.

d. Total fuel in both wings is displayed using a single pointer on the wing quantity gauge.

2. c. The indicators are unreliable at high angles of attack and/or any angles of side-slip.

35

3. Which of the following statements concerning aircraft refueling is correct?

a. Pressure refueling uses three fill ports.

b. Gravity refueling is the primary refueling method.

c. The pressure refueling receptacle is on the right side of the aft fuselage.

d. If the precheck test fails, the refueler can continue to use pressure refueling, but must use caution.

3. c. The pressure refueling receptacle is on the right side of the aft fuselage.

36

4. When the fuel filter is clogged, a(n) __________ opens and supplies unfiltered fuel to the engine.

4. Bypass valve

37

5. The capacity of each fuel feed chamber is approximately __________ gallons.

5. 20

38

6. With the boost pump switches in the AUTO position, what conditions cause automatic boost pump activation?

6. Crossfeed selected, engine start selected, fuel feed chamber volume less than full, fuel feed line pressure drops below 5 psi.

39

7. If the crossfeed switch is placed to the L TANK position during flight, the crossfeed valve opens,

a. the left boost pump activates, and the left motive flow valve closes.

b. the right boost pump activates, and the left motive flow valve closes.

c. the left boost pump activates, and the right motive flow valve closes.

d. the right boost pump activates, and the right motive flow valve closes.

7. c. the left boost pump activates, and the right motive flow valve closes.

40

8. What is the source of motive flow for the forward transfer jet pump in the left fuel feed chamber?

8. The left boost pump.

41

9. Fuel crossfeed with two engines operating is limited to level flight when less than __________ pounds of fuel remain in the wing tank supplying the fuel.

a. 200

b. 400

c. 600

d. 800

9. c. 600

42

10. The maximum fuel imbalance for takeoff or touch-and-go is __________ pounds.

a. 100

b. 200

c. 300

d. 400

10. a. 100

43

1. What does illumination of the R FUEL LEVEL LO annunciator indicate?

1. 200 pounds (32 gallons) of usable fuel (or less) remain in the right wing tank.

44

2. If the left boost pump switch is in the AUTO position, under what circumstances will the left boost pump automatically activate?

a. Low fuel transfer pressure from the left transfer pump

b. Left wing tank overpressure

c. Clogged fuel filter in the left fuel feed line

d. Left tank selected for fuel crossfeed

2. d. Left tank selected for fuel crossfeed

45

3. During a climb, the R WG TK OV PRESS annunciator illuminates. What initial action should the crew take?

3. Maintain level flight

46

4. When the L FUEL FEED annunciator illuminates, approximately __________ of usable fuel remains in the left fuel feed chamber.

a. 200 pounds (32 gallons)

b. 90 pounds (13.5 gallons)

c. 70 pounds (11 gallons)

d. 55 pounds (8 gallons)

4. c. 70 pounds (11 gallons)

47

5. Which annunciator might illuminate if the left wing level-control pilot valve fails to send a signal to close the shutoff valve?

a. L F FLTR BYPASS

b. L FUEL LEVEL LO

c. L F XFR PRESS LO

d. L WG TK OV PRESS

5. d. L WG TK OV PRESS

48

6. When the L F XFR PRESS LO annunciator illuminates before the fuselage tanks are empty, the probable malfunction is that the left

a. boost pump has failed.

b. transfer pump has failed.

c. fuel filter is clogged.

d. jet pump has failed.

6. b. transfer pump has failed.

49

7. The L F XFR PRESS LO annunciator illuminates. The mid tank is empty and the L FUEL TRANS operation light remains illuminated. What action should the crew take?

a. Pull the LH TRANS PUMP circuit breaker.

b. Move the L FUEL TRANS switch to ON.

c. Land at the nearest suitable airport.

d. Initiate fuel crossfeed.

7. a. Pull the LH TRANS PUMP circuit breaker.

50

1. Which type of power is used for most of the T-1A aircraft systems?

a. DC

b. AC

c. Standby

1. a. DC

51

2. Where is the main aircraft battery located?

2. In the aft fuselage compartment

52

3. Where are the aircraft generators located?

3. One starter-generator is located on each engine’s accessory drive gearbox.

53

4. Each generator contains a __________ that controls starting and generating modes of operation.

4. generator control unit (GCU)

54

5. How many inverters are installed in the T-1A?

5. Two

55

6. What is the visual cue on a push-pull circuit breaker that indicates when it has popped out?

6. A white ring shows around the circuit breaker.

56

1. How many volts does the main aircraft battery supply?

1. 24-volts DC

57

2. Prestart, engine starting, and emergency power is supplied by the aircraft __________.

2. battery

58

3. The external power receptacle is located

a. below the right engine nacelle.

b. on the lower left side of the fuselage.

c. on the fuselage below the right wing.

d. on the lower side of the left engine pylon.

3. b. on the lower left side of the fuselage.

59

4. The __________ provides ground fault protection and voltage regulation for the generators.

4. generator control unit (GCU)

60

5. The __________ provide(s) a connection for all DC power.

a. start bus

b. main buses

c. emergency bus

d. battery charge bus

5. d. battery charge bus

61

6. The LH and RH bus-tie RCCBs tie the LH and RH _________ buses to the __________ bus.

a. main; start

b. main; battery charge

c. load; start

d. load; battery charge

6. b. main; battery charge

62

7. Which of the following serve as primary buses for the secondary power distribution function?

a. Load buses

b. Main buses

c. Radio buses

d. Overhead buses

7. a. Load buses

63

8. Placing the battery switch to the EMER position isolates the

a. start bus and connects the battery to the emergency bus.

b. battery from the DC electrical system and connects the LH load bus to the emergency bus.

c. emergency bus from the battery and connects the standby battery to the emergency bus.

d. battery from the DC electrical system and connects the standby battery to the emergency bus.

8. a. start bus and connects the battery to the emergency bus.

64

9. What is the maximum operating load for single generator operation at FL200?

a. 150 amps

b. 280 amps

c. 300 amps

d. 400 amps

9. d. 400 amps

65

1. The standby bus is normally powered by the __________.

1. left load bus

66

2. The standby battery is located __________.

2. in the aircraft nose compartment

67

3. The standby power switch and indicator lights are located on the __________ panel.

a. aft main circuit breaker

b. right instrument

c. right shroud

d. overhead

3. b. right instrument

68

4. The standby bus distributes power to the following essential aircraft equipment:

a.

b.

c.

d.

e.

f.

g.

4. a. standby attitude indicator

b. standby altimeter vibrator

c. engine EFC start

d. UHF radio

e. RTU #1

f. #1 ITT indicator

g. copilot instrument light power supply

69

5. The standby battery is capable of powering which bus/buses?

a. Standby and emergency buses

b. Standby bus only

c. Emergency bus only

d. All DC buses

5. b. Standby bus only

70

6. Under what conditions does the amber ON indication illuminate on the standby power switchlight?

a. The emergency bus is charging the standby battery.

b. The standby battery is powering the emergency bus.

c. The emergency bus is powering the NO. 2 INVERTER.

d. The standby battery is the only source powering the standby bus.

6. d. The standby battery is the only source powering the standby bus.

71

1. The NO. 1 inverter is normally powered by the __________ bus.

1. left load

72

2. The voltage and frequency of the NO. 2 inverter is regulated by the __________.

2. NO. 2 INVERTER internal circuitry

73

3. Normally, the secondary buses are powered by the

a. NO. 1 INVERTER.

b. NO. 2 INVERTER.

c. emergency bus.

d. primary AC buses.

3. b. NO. 2 INVERTER

74

4. The inverter selector switch, located on the main C/B panel, has which of the following positions?

a. BOTH, OFF, ON

b. OFF, ON, AUTO

c. NO. 1, NO. 2, BOTH

d. NO. 1, AUTO, NO. 2

4. d. NO. 1, AUTO, NO. 2

75

5. With both load buses powered, both inverters operational, and the inverter selector switch in the NO. 2 position, which buses does the NO. 2 INVERTER power?

5. The four primary buses (Primary 26 VAC, Primary 115 VAC, Primary 26 VAC Shed, and Primary 115 VAC Shed)

76

6. Under what conditions does the AC bus shed relay open?

6. Both of the following conditions:

NO. 2 INVERTER powers the primary buses, and

NO. 2 INVERTER is powered by the emergency bus

77

1. What color are the navigation lights and where are they located on the T-1A?

1. Two red lights in the left wingtip, two green lights in the right wingtip, one white light at the top of the vertical stabilizer trailing edge.

78

2. Following landing gear retraction, the landing lights may be extended by __________.

2. Recycling the lever-type switches to RET/OFF and back to EXT/ON.

79

3. In flight, the landing lights should not be extended at airspeeds above __________ and altitudes greater than __________ feet.

3. 200 KIAS; 20,000

80

4. When should the cabin general area floodlights automatically extinguish?

4. When the general area fluorescent lights illuminate, or when the aircraft is airborne.

81

5. To arm the instrument floodlights for automatic operation, place the

a. flood light switch to the ARM position.

b. dimming toggle switch to the BRT position.

c. integral switch to the INTEG position.

d. emergency light switch to the ARM position.

5. c. integral switch to the INTEG position.

82

6. How many anti-collision beacons are installed on the aircraft? What does the beacon(s) do?

6. One, on top of the vertical stabilizer. It generates red flashes.

83

1. What are the first indications of a right generator failure?

1. The amber MASTER CAUTION RESET switchlights begin flashing and the amber R GEN OFF annunciator light illuminates.

84

2. If the right generator fails, what should the DC voltmeter read when the voltage selector switch is in the RH GEN position?

2. Zero

85

3. If you are unable to reset a failed generator, maintain N2 at a minimum of ________% on the engine with the operating generator.

3. 58

86

4. If the right generator has failed while cruising at FL350, what is the maximum permissible load on the left generator?

4. 280 amps

87

5. What indications are present if the NO. 2 INVERTER fails?

5. The MASTER CAUTION RESET switchlights flash, the INV 2 FAIL annunciator illuminates, the NO. 2 INV 26V and 115V voltmeter positions read zero.

88

6. The BATTERY FDR FAIL light, the BATT CUT OFF, and EMER BUS FDR FAIL annunciators are illuminated. What should you do if the condition can’t be corrected by cycling the battery switch to OFF then ON?

6. Turn the battery off and land as soon as practical.

89

7. The BATTERY FDR FAIL light and the EMER BUS FDR FAIL annunciator illuminate. The EMER BUS circuit breaker is open. If the circuit breaker does not reset,

a. subsequent loss of LH load bus results in loss of power to emergency bus.

b. the emergency bus is now isolated from the LH load bus.

c. loss of the RH load bus means the emergency bus is powered by the standby bus.

d. the emergency bus is powered by the battery now and has limited time of use.

7. a. subsequent loss of LH load bus results in loss of power to emergency bus.

90

8. What does illumination of a BUS FDR FAIL annunciator indicate?

8. That power is flowing through Feeder 3 (the standby feeder).

91

9. The L BUS FDR FAIL annunciator illuminates. What happens if the standby feeder subsequently loses power?

9. The annunciator extinguishes. The DC POWER LH BUS FDR 3 CB may be open.

92

10. How many times can you reset a popped BUS FDR circuit breaker?

10. None

93

11. When does the red CABIN SMOKE switchlight illuminate?

11. When the system detects smoke in the aft part of the cabin.

94

12. What do wisps of smoke and an acrid odor near an avionics rack indicate?

12. A possible electrical fire.

95

13. When smoke and fumes are present with an electrical fire, what should you do first?

13. Don oxygen masks and select 100% oxygen

96

14. During the initial portion of the Electrical Fire Checklist, the crew places the master generator switches to EMER and places the battery switch to OFF. At this point, what electrical bus/buses are powered?

14. The standby bus is the only bus powered.

97