MQF 451 T-1A 2016 Flashcards Preview

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Flashcards in MQF 451 T-1A 2016 Deck (300):
1

1. An operating procedure or technique which is considered essential to emphasize is a ______? (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. Warning
B. Procedure
C. Caution
D. Note

D. Note

2

2. If either electronic fuel control fails, the synchronization system is still operative. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. True
B. False

B. False

3

3. Once TCAS announces "clear of conflict," the pilot should: (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. expeditiously return to the applicable ATC clearance unless otherwise directed by ATC.
B. maintain the altitude climbed/descended to, as this will maintain safe separation.
C. choose an altitude that you, as the pilot, deem necessary and fly to it.

A. expeditiously return to the applicable ATC clearance unless otherwise directed by ATC.

4

4. Failure to properly set the decision height could result in __________. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. nuisance warnings from the GPWS.
B. a warning given automatically at the DH or MDA depending on what approach the navigation systems are set up for.
C. an automatic warning from the GPWS at 50 feet no matter where the DH is set.
D. a & c

A. nuisance warnings from the GPWS.

5

5. If the ARC format is selected on the DSP, the EHSI will present an expanded 70° (approximate) compass segment. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. True
B. False

A. True

6

6. The weather radar system detects ____________ along the flight path ahead of the aircraft. The radar antenna sweeps _____ to paint a full screen radar picture of the precipitation pattern along the flight path. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. static electricity, ±45°
B. static electricity, ±60°
C. wet precipitation, ±45°
D. wet precipitation, ±60°

D. wet precipitation, ±60°

7

7. Due to weather radar system limitations, ________. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. the volcanic ash detection mode must be used when operating around an active volcano.
B. do not use the turbulence mode when maneuvering or damage to the radar stabilization system could result.
C. do not rely on the system as the only means to avoid or circumnavigate adverse weather.
D. a & b

C. do not rely on the system as the only means to avoid or circumnavigate adverse weather.

8

8. If the left engine fails while the synchronization system is on, there will be a maximum of 1.5% rpm spool down of the right engine. For this reason, the engine synchronization system should be off during takeoff and landing. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. True
B. False

A. True

9

9. Avoid fingerlift actuation to preclude inadvertent engine shutdown when retarding throttle toward IDLE. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. True
B. False

A. True

10

10. The weather radar system provides radar data up to _______ NM. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. 100
B. 150
C. 300
D. 600

C. 300

11

11. If the WX radar antenna is tilted down too far and GCS mode is selected, a phenomenon known as a GCS wedge may occur. The wedge is displayed as a black area located within approximately ______ of aircraft heading. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. ± 5°
B. ± 10°
C. ± 15°
D. None of the above, changes with altitude.

B. ± 10°

12

12. Binding throttles may indicate an impending throttle linkage cable break with subsequent loss of throttle authority. Throttle linkage cable failure usually results in an uncommanded engine shutdown; however, it is possible for the engine to remain at the power setting at time of failure, or retard to idle. If the throttle linkage cable breaks and the engine flames out, or if necessary to control the aircraft due to an engine stuck at a high power setting, shut down the engine using the Fuel/Hydraulic valve close switch, then accomplish the Engine Shutdown During Flight checklist in Section III. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. True
B. False

A. True`

13

13. As oxygen cylinders become chilled the pressure is reduced, sometimes quite rapidly. A temperature drop of 100°F will reduce pressure 20%; however, if the pressure begins to drop while the aircraft is in level flight or descending, __________. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. do nothing, this is normal at high altitudes
B. an oxygen leak should be suspected
C. suspect gauge failure
D. check for a similar drop in the nitrogen pressure

B. an oxygen leak should be suspected

14

14. In the event of a hung start, advance the throttle beyond IDLE. Increased fuel flow could result in engine cooling. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. True
B. False

B. False

15

15. After flushing the lavatory, __________ to prevent contents from overflowing. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. leave the knife valve open at least ¼ inch
B. close the knife valve
C. ensure the lid is closed
D. none of the above.

A. leave the knife valve open at least ¼ inch

16

16. If an engine is experiencing mechanical difficulty during flight and is being shutdown, stabilizing ITT at IDLE thrust for 1 minute is required. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. True
B. False

B. False

17

17. Resetting a popped circuit breaker in the fuel system is allowable. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. True
B. False

B. False

18

18. When using cross-side attitude information, pilots should cross-check ________ with other reliable instruments. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. position
B. attitude
C. altitude
D. All of the above.
E. None of the above.

D. All of the above.

19

19. Asterisk (*) items in the checklist: (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. need only be accomplished on first sortie of the day.
B. require a verbal response.
C. need only be accomplished once per cross country weekend.
D. need not be accomplished on subsequent flights by the same crew flying the same aircraft on the same day.

D. need not be accomplished on subsequent flights by the same crew flying the same aircraft on the same day

20

20. While using the exterior inspection checklist, specific attention should be given to detect fluid leakage. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. True
B. False

A. True

21

21. The exterior door handle will stow by activation of the interior handle. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. True
B. False

B. False

22

22. Failure to stow the exterior door handle can result in damage to the door during flight. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. True
B. False

A. True

23

23. During the walk around, support the main landing gear door if releasing by the manual system. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. True
B. False

A. True

24

24. During the Exterior Inspection, how many aft compartment circuit breaker panels are required to be checked? (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

C. 3

25

25. When the nose wheel mechanical disconnect pin is disconnected, nose wheel steering is still available. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. True
B. False

B. False

26

26. Failure to check all _______ door locking pins showing white can result in the door opening in flight. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. 6
B. 7
C. 8
D. 9

C. 8

27

27. If pilot valves are inoperative, single point pressure refueling should not be attempted and the aircraft should not be flown. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. True
B. False.

A. True

28

28. An improperly installed escape hatch can result in loss of cabin pressure in flight. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. True
B. False

A. True

29

29. Failure to remove the escape hatch lock pin and push button retainer bar will: (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. make hatch inoperable from the outside.
B. make hatch inoperable from the inside the aircraft.
C. delay emergency ground egress from the escape hatch.
D. All of the above.

D. All of the above.

30

30. Repeated tests of the AHRS battery are acceptable and will validate AHRS battery performance. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. True
B. False

B. False

31

31. When the cabin pressure controller is set, set the altitude to _____ feet above the highest anticipated cruise altitude or according to mission requirements. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. 500
B. 1,000
C. 1,500
D. 2,000

B. 1,000

32

32. Turning the manual pressure control knob past its normal range __________. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. could damage the threads or needle valve seat
B. will have no affect
C. will turn off the bleed air 5°
D. will turn on the CABIN PRESS LO annunciator

A. could damage the threads or needle valve seat

33

33. When the battery feed test button is pushed with the battery switch ON, check for: (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. FDR FAIL annunciator illuminated
B. STBY PWR ON annunciator illuminated
C. right ITT gauge is powered and illuminated
D. a & b
E. All of the above

D. a & b

A. FDR FAIL annunciator illuminated
B. STBY PWR ON annunciator illuminated

34

34. After pushing the battery feed test button and the battery switch is placed to "EMER," check for operation of __________. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. right N1 gauge
B. right N2 gauge
C. RTU #1
D. All of the above

C. RTU #1

35

35. Landing with brakes applied could result in_________ due to failure of the touchdown protection. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. Blown tires
B. Potential runway departure
C. Damage to the aircraft
D. All of the above

D. All of the above

36

36. The H STAB DEICE TEST position will: (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. check the 12 static wick heaters
B. check de-ice timer in the fast advance mode through the 12 segment positions
C. applies power to the heater elements for 0.6 seconds in sequence with a pause after each six
D. a & b
E. b & c

E. b & c

B. check de-ice timer in the fast advance mode through the 12 segment positions
C. applies power to the heater elements for 0.6 seconds in sequence with a pause after each six

37

37. When checking the stall warning system _______________. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. the master test switch must remain in L or R STALL until stick shaker actuates twice
B. check that the indexer on the glare shield follows AOA gauge indication
C. the airplane may be airborne with flaps extended
D. a & b
E. None of the above

D. a & b

A. the master test switch must remain in L or R STALL until stick shaker actuates twice
B. check that the indexer on the glare shield follows AOA gauge indication

38

38. When testing the indicator lights, the following lights do not illuminate: (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. red landing gear unlocked indicator
B. starter DISENGAGE button
C. ENG START buttons
D. a & b
E. All of the above.

E. All of the above.

39

39. When doing the stall warning test on the left or right side, the stick shaker should activate: (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. once when the AOA pointer passes 0.4 to 0.°.
B. twice when the AOA pointer passes 0.4 to 0.5 and 0.7.
C. once when the AOA pointer passes 0.7.
D. twice when the AOA pointer passes 0.5 and 0.7.

B. twice when the AOA pointer passes 0.4 to 0.5 and 0.7.

40

40. After selecting the left tank during the fuel crossfeed check, these lights will illuminate: (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. Left boost pump light, left jet pump light, XFEED in-transit operation light
B. Right boost pump light, left jet pump light, XFEED in-transit operation light
C. Left boost pump light, right jet pump light, XFEED in-transit operation light
D. Right boost pump light, right jet pump light, XFEED in-transit operation light

C. Left boost pump light, right jet pump light, XFEED in-transit operation light

41

41. When running the pitch or roll trim switch for _____ seconds continuously, the trim warning horn will activate. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. 2
B. 5
C. 7
D. 10

B. 5

42

42. During flight control checks, after the pilot checks the controls, the copilot must also physically check the flight controls. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. True
B. False

A. True

43

43. If starting engines with battery power only, do not start the second engine until the first engine's loadmeter reads below _____ amps. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. 150
B. 280
C. 400
D. Do not delay starting the second engine.

A. 150

44

44. For generator assisted starts on the second engine, the operating engine must be at IDLE. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. True
B. False

A. True

45

45. The stabilizer anti-ice fail annunciator will illuminate in _____ seconds once the anti-ice switch is set to the test position. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. 2
B. 3
C. 5
D. 10

B. 3

46

46. While accomplishing the horizontal stabilizer de-ice test, if one of the 12 elements is open, the operation lights will remain off for 1-2 seconds during the test. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. True
B. False

A. True

47

47. Do not use the horizontal stabilizer anti-ice on the ground because a squat switch failure could cause damage to the ___________. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. battery
B. horizontal stabilizer
C. generators
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

B. horizontal stabilizer

48

48. If not monitored properly, the VNAV function of the FMS may result in terrain impact. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. True
B. False

A. True

49

49. Do not operate engine anti-ice during ground operations (except for preflight test) at temperatures above _____°C OAT/SAT. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. 8
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20

B. 10

50

50. An external power unit is required for engine start at ambient temperatures below_____. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. 5°F
B. 8°F
C. 5°C
D. 10°F

A. 5°F

51

51. When checking wing and engine anti-ice in the BEFORE TAKEOFF checklist, the throttles should be set at a minimum of _____ to ensure that the wing anti-ice valve is open. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. 65% N1
B. 65% N2
C. 70% N1
D. 70% N2

D. 70% N2

52

52. When taxiing for takeoff through ice and snow, leave the flaps _______ until approaching the runway to avoid accumulations of ice being cast off from the tires. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. retracted
B. at 10°
C. at 30°
D. a or b

A. retracted

53

53. An operating procedure or technique which could result in damage to equipment if not carefully followed is a _____? (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. Warning
B. Procedure
C. Caution
D. Note

C. Caution

54

54. During a wake turbulence takeoff, allow a minimum of _____ minutes behind a large aircraft or helicopters. With an effective crosswind over _____ knots, this interval may be reduced. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. 2, 5
B. 4, 5
C. 3, 10
D. 4, 10

A. 2, 5

55

55. For a wake turbulence takeoff: (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. allow a minimum of four minutes behind heavy jet aircraft
B. with an effective crosswind over 5 knots, the interval may be reduced
C. remain below the flight path of the preceding aircraft
D. allow a minimum of 5 minutes behind regional jet aircraft

B. with an effective crosswind over 5 knots, the interval may be reduced

56

56. After the gear is retracted on a normal takeoff, with two engines operating, adjust the pitch to climb at a minimum of_____ until reaching _____ feet above field elevation. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. Vco; 400
B. Vco + 10; 400
C. Vco; 1500
D. Vco; 1500

B. Vco + 10; 400

57

57. When maneuvering at bank angles in excess of _____ degrees, add _____ knots to the appropriate speed for flap configuration. Maintaining this speed will ensure adequate margin above stall for bank angles up to _____ degrees. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. 15; 5 ; 30
B. 15; 10; 30
C. 30; 10; 30
D. 15; 15; 15

B. 15; 10; 30

58

58. During takeoff and landing, to avoid obscuring visibility, the visors must be in the stowed position. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. True
B. False

A. True

59

59. For extended high altitude cruise, the windshield heat should be set at _____. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. LOW
B. OFF
C. HIGH
D. a or b

A. LOW

60

60. Ignition switches should be turned to the ON position when __________. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. performing a manual mode engine start after a failed start attempt
B. when flying through turbulence and/or visible precipitation
C. for all takeoffs, approaches, and landings
D. b and c

D. b and c

61

61. During the cruise check, a temperature drop of _____°F will reduce the oxygen pressure by _____%. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. 100, 20
B. 75, 20
C. 50, 25
D. 100, 25

A. 100, 20

62

62. Manual damping of dutch roll may be required in takeoff and landing (when the yaw damper is off) or in the event of a yaw damper failure. Manual damping of dutch roll is best accomplished: (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. with the rudder
B. a combination of coordinated spoiler and throttle application
C. with the lateral controls utilizing approximately a control wheel input roughly equal to the degree of oscillation.
D. none of the above

C. with the lateral controls utilizing approximately a control wheel input roughly equal to the degree of oscillation.

63

63. Starting a descent at FL 200, maximum range descent is flown at _____, enroute descent is flown at _____, and rapid descent is flown at _____. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. 250, 250, 250
B. 250, 310, 330
C. 230, 250, 330
D. 200, 250, 330

C. 230, 250, 330

64

64. Maximum range descent is _________. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. idle, clean, 0.70 IMN above 35,900 ft, 230 KIAS below 35,900 ft.
B. idle, speed brakes, 0.70 above 32,300 ft, 250 KIAS below 32,300 ft.
C. idle, 180 KIAS, speed brakes, gear, 3 degrees nose low
D. idle, speed brakes, 0.78 IMN above 24,800 ft, 330 below 24,800 ft.

A. idle, clean, 0.70 IMN above 35,900 ft, 230 KIAS below 35,900 ft.

65

65. During preflight or postflight inspection, a drop of fuel hanging on the sniffle valve ______. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. is acceptable
B. is not acceptable
C. should be written up in the 781
D. b & c

A. is acceptable

66

66. Steep idle power approaches, or approaches requiring late changes in pitch attitude during the landing flare are acceptable in the T-1A due to the stressed landing gear. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. True
B. False

B. False

67

67. Use of stabilizer trim for round-out in the flare could induce a strong pitch up tendency that would be difficult to control in the event that a go-around is attempted. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. True
B. False

A. True

68

68. In the event of a suspected hard landing: (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. make an AFTO Form 781 write up with your gross weight, airspeed, and approximate vertical velocity at touchdown.
B. gear should remain down and the mission terminated.
C. retraction of the gear is permissible if verified by chase ship.
D. a & b

D. a & b

69

69. Touchdown will normally be made at approximately Vapp minus ____ KIAS. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. 10
B. 8
C. 6
D. 2.

C. 6

70

70. The wipers are functional at flight speeds up to _______ knots indicated airspeed. Higher speeds can cause damage to the wiper motor and possible blade separation. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. 250
B. 230
C. 200
D. 165

C. 200

71

71. The takeoff trim setting mark is small and can be hard to see under many conditions. Avoid fixating on this gage while resetting trim to maintain aircraft control. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. True
B. False

A. True

72

72. Failure to properly reset the trim can result in _________________. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. lower than normal yoke forces
B. over-rotation
C. higher than normal yoke forces
D. All of the above.

D. All of the above.

73

73. Which of the following is true concerning the stall characteristics of the T-1A? (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. The stick shaker activates at a constant 0.75 AOA units regardless of altitude.
B. The stick shaker activates at approximately 0.75 units on the AOA indicator below 20,000 feet, and as low as 0.45 at high altitudes.
C. The artificial stall warning occurs at 0.80 - 0.85 units on the AOA indicator which corresponds to 22 degrees AOA.
D. Past 23 degrees AOA, spoiler saturation is evident and the flight controls lose all effectiveness below charted stall speeds

B. The stick shaker activates at approximately 0.75 units on the AOA indicator below 20,000 feet, and as low as 0.45 at high altitudes.

74

74. Crossfeed will supply fuel to a single engine from both wing tanks simultaneously. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. True
B. False

B. False

75

75. After landing on a snow or slush covered runway: (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. do not retract flaps beyond 10°.
B. leave flaps at 30 degrees if 30° flap approach was flown.
C. raise flaps to 0°.
D. constantly cycle flaps all the way to the chocks to ensure they do not get ice accumulations.

A. do not retract flaps beyond 10°

76

76. If the parking brake is set from the copilot’s side: (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. the binding could affect action from the pilot’s side at a later time.
B. damage could be done to the anti-skid.
C. temporary binding in the mixing valve could occur.
D. a & c

D. a & c

77

77. During crossfeed operation, the boost pump in the non-selected fuel feed chamber will not activate if the boost pump switch is in AUTO and the fuel feed line pressure drops below 5 psi. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. True
B. False

B. False

78

78. If any system emergency affecting safety of flight is experienced prior to S1 speed, the takeoff should be aborted. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. True
B. False

A. True

79

79. If an emergency is experienced at or after S1 speed, _____________. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. the takeoff should be continued
B. abort if below Vmb
C. abort if the runway remaining is greater than or equal to your CFL
D. b or c

A. the takeoff should be continued

80

80. If the aircraft is decelerated and engages the barrier perpendicular to the middle half, no damage to the aircraft should be expected. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. True
B. False

B. False

81

81. Which statement(s) are true? (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. Taxi over cables lying on the runway is acceptable at slow speeds (less than 5 knots).
B. Landing should be accomplished beyond arresting cables.
C. Landing should be accomplished on or before arresting cables.
D. a & b

D. a & b

82

82. If engine shutdown or failure occurs in flight, consider the use of crossfeed to balance the fuel load, unless fuel system contamination is suspected. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. True
B. False

A. True

83

83. Due to the fact that the base of the emergency escape hatch is 4.5 feet above the ground with the landing gear extended, personnel should use caution to avoid personal injury when using this exit. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. True
B. False

A. True

84

84. With dual Remote Tuning Unit (RTU) failure, how can VHF guard (121.5 MHz) be tuned? (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. It is not possible.
B. Use the CDU.
C. Pulling and resetting the VHF circuit breaker.
D. Use RTU disable function.

C. Pulling and resetting the VHF circuit breaker.

85

85. If UHF guard mode was on when dual RTU failure occurred, guard reception is still available. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. True
B. False

A. True

86

86. Using the engine fire switchlights to close the fuel valve also closes the hydraulic valve. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. True
B. False

A. True

87

87. Pulling and resetting the UHF circuit breaker after dual RTU failure does what? (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. Turns off the squelch.
B. Returns to the frequency tuned at the time of failure.
C. Does nothing.
D. a & b

D. a & b

88

88. NAV auto-tuning is disabled when the RMT TUNE switch is in the DSABL position. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. True
B. False

A. True

89

89. In the event of a fuel quantity indicator failure, which of the following are true? (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. Both gauges' dial pointers move off scale to below the zero mark to indicate an inoperative condition
B. Both gauges dial pointers freeze at the position they were at when the failure occurred
C. The fuel gauge failure (FGAGE FAIL) annunciator illuminates
D. There will be no indication

A. Both gauges' dial pointers move off scale to below the zero mark to indicate an inoperative condition

90

90. Securing the engine after a failure/fire on takeoff should not be accomplished prior to reaching _______. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. 400 ft AGL
B. 2200 ft AGL
C. clear of obstructions
D. a & c
E. b & c

D. a & c

91

91. If an engine fire occurs immediately after takeoff when using the ACM OFF procedure, the bleed air selector may be turned to NORM at any time. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. True
B. False

B. False

92

92. Do not attempt to restart an engine that has been shut down due to obvious mechanical difficulties. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. True
B. False

A. True

93

93. If a spin is entered: (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. simultaneously add full power, apply full rudder opposite spin direction, forward elevator control and neutral roll control.
B. simultaneously reduce power to idle, apply full rudder opposite spin direction, forward elevator control and neutral roll control.
C. simultaneously reduce power to idle, apply full rudder pro spin direction, forward elevator control and neutral roll control.
D. simultaneously reduce power to idle, apply full rudder opposite spin direction, aft elevator control and neutral roll control.

B. simultaneously reduce power to idle, apply full rudder opposite spin direction, forward elevator control and neutral roll control.

94

94. During a starter assisted air start, a relight should normally be obtained within _____ seconds after the throttle is moved to idle. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. 2
B. 10
C. 15
D. 30

B. 10

95

95. During a windmilling air start, should the temperature rise in such a manner as to indicate an imminent hot start, the throttle should be placed in CUTOFF, and windmill the engine for ____ seconds before attempting another start. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. 10
B. 15
C. 30
D. 60

C. 30

96

96. On V-MDA type approaches, the FMS does not recognize step-down fixes between the FAF and the MAP and will not try to comply with them. If a given approach has any step-down fixes between the FAF and arrival at MDA, VNAV should not be used for this portion of the approach. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. True
B. False

A. True

97

97. During the flight control check of the rudder, ensure that both the PF and the PM independently observe a proportional displacement of their left and right rudder pedals and a proportional rudder control surface movement. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. True
B. False

A. True

98

98. The switchlight in the fire protection group on the shroud panel is used to close the _____ on the respective engine. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. main fuel line shutoff valve
B. hydraulic valve
C. electric tie in
D. a & b

D. a & b

99

99. The autopilot is not capable of controlling the aircraft in the event of an engine failure. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. True
B. False

B. False

100

100. Rudder boost is provided by the rudder servo of the autopilot. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. True
B. False

A. True

101

101. In the event of electrical system failure, excluding the aircraft battery, placing the BATTERY switch to the EMER position causes the battery to power the _________________. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. emergency bus
B. standby bus
C. standby battery
D. a & b
E. All of the above

E. All of the above

102

102. During the SMOKE AND FUMES IN AIRCRAFT checklist, the bleed air source selector must remain in each position long enough (approximately _______ seconds) to allow adequate system purging to determine the source of smoke. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. 10
B. 15
C. 20
D. 30

C. 20

103

103. With oil pressure below _____ psi, execute engine shutdown during flight checklist. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. 60
B. 40
C. 50
D. 83

B. 40

104

104. If high oil temperature is experienced, _______________. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. shutdown the affected engine utilizing the shroud panel fuel and hydraulic valve switchlights
B. reduce power on the affected engine
C. turn off affected engine EFC to further reduce engine wear
D. throttle on the affected engine should be increased within N1 limits

D. throttle on the affected engine should be increased within N1 limits

105

105. While trying to eliminate smoke or fumes from inside the aircraft, turning the manual pressure controller fully counterclockwise will decrease the cabin pressure to the absolute pressure regulator setting of _______ feet. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. 10,000 ± 1,000
B. 10,000 ± 1,500
C. 9,500 ± 500
D. 12,500 ± 1,500

D. 12,500 ± 1,500

106

106. Under high temperature, low altitude, high throttle setting conditions, engine oil temperature may exceed ______ when the throttles are reduced due to a reduction in cooling fuel through the fuel/oil heat exchanger. The maximum transient limit is _____ and _____ should not be exceeded for more than _______ minutes. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. 115°C, 121°C, 115°C, 15
B. 121°C, 135°C, 121°C, 15
C. 121°C, 131°C, 115°C, 15
D. 121°C, 135°C, 121°C, 5

B. 121°C, 135°C, 121°C, 15

107

107. If you have an EFC failure: (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. engine spool-up time on the affected engine will be increased so you should turn off the other EFC to match the throttles.
B. similar throttle angles will yield similar thrust settings.
C. matching the throttles using the engine with the EFC off may cause overboosting of the other engine.
D. the EFC may be reset with the throttle in any position to include operations above the NORM TO position.

C. matching the throttles using the engine with the EFC off may cause overboosting of the other engine.

108

108. If the fuel filter bypass annunciator is illuminated, the bypass filter is purifying the fuel to the engine. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. True
B. False

B. False

109

109. Left or right fuel level low annunciator illumination indicates that approximately _____ pounds of usable fuel remain in the affected wing tank. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. 11
B. 32
C. 200
D. 325

C. 200

110

110. If acceptable takeoff performance can only be achieved by selecting 0 degrees flaps and/or ACM off, takeoff in the presence of potential windshear is not recommended. Windshear conditions will quickly negate these minor performance enhancements. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. True
B. False

A. True

111

111. If automatic starter dropout has not occurred by _____ % N2, press the starter disengage button. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. 37
B. 38
C. 45
D. 52

C. 45

112

112. Autopilot engagement is not possible with the pitch trim selector in the EMER position. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. True
B. False

A. True

113

113. An operating procedure or technique which could result in personal injury or loss of life if not carefully followed is a ____? (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. Warning
B. Procedure
C. Caution
D. Note

A. Warning

114

114. Ground fault protection is provided by the ________. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. start cart
B. battery protection circuits
C. left load bus
D. battery bus

B. battery protection circuits

115

115. Air entering the cabin for pressurization during air conditioning emergency operation will still be hot until the bleed air selector has been turned off. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. True
B. False

A. True

116

116. In the event of a bleed air duct failure annunciator illumination, if the wing anti-ice switch was in use, subsequently turned OFF and the annunciator extinguishes, flight may be continued if icing conditions are avoided. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. True
B. False

A. True

117

117. If the AIR COND FAIL annunciator illuminates, the system will switch from normal to emergency pressure mode automatically. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. True
B. False

A. True

118

118. Upon landing, if a malfunction occurs with an associated loss of brakes, _______ (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. immediately use the emergency brake system
B. place the anti-skid switch to the off position and use the emergency brake system
C. immediately place the anti-skid switch to the off position and attempt braking from both the pilot’s and copilot’s position. If braking is not restored, use the emergency brake system.
D. attempt braking simultaneously from both the pilot and copilot’s positions in a coordinated effort

C. immediately place the anti-skid switch to the off position and attempt braking from both the pilot’s and copilot’s position. If braking is not restored, use the emergency brake system.

119

119. The emergency descent procedure is a maximum rate descent to quickly escape the high altitude environment. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. True
B. False

A. True

120

120. To execute an emergency descent: (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. you may use a moderate bank up to 45° to aid in lowering the nose
B. lower the nose approximately 20°
C. accelerate to 330 KIAS or .78 MACH whichever is slower
D. All of the above

D. All of the above

121

121. The maximum zero fuel weight is _______ pounds. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. 12,500
B. 13,000
C. 15,700
D. 16,100

B. 13,000

122

122. During a controllability check, the aircraft speed must be decreased to a point where full control deflection is required to maintain controlled flight in order to properly evaluate handling characteristics at slow speeds. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. True
B. False

B. False

123

123. Do not attempt an actual single engine go-around after selecting flaps to 30°. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. True
B. False

A. True

124

124. When executing a forced landing without power, if sufficient altitude remains after reaching a suitable landing area, a rectangular pattern will provide the best observation of surface condition, wind speed, and direction. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. True
B. False

B. False

125

125. Pushing the AV STBY BLO button isolates power to the failed blower system. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. True
B. False

B. False

126

126. Pushing the AV STBY BLO button does not isolate power to the failed blower system. If an overheat condition occurs, isolate the circuit by pulling the GALLEY circuit breaker. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. True
B. False

A. True

127

127. Electrical loads up to _____ amps are permissible for single generator operations above 32,500 feet. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. 280
B. 400
C. 420
D. 480

A. 280

128

128. If operating below 32,500 feet, single generator operations load capacity is _____ amps. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. 200
B. 280
C. 400
D. 480

C. 400

129

129. Partial failure of the electrical system may necessitate degrading electrical systems to reduce electrical loads imposed on the operating generator. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. True
B. False

A. True

130

130. When both generator master switches and the battery switch are placed in EMER, all electrical power except the items on the emergency bus and DC standby bus are lost. Which of the following will NOT occur? (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. All right engine instrument indications will be lost
B. Both normal and emergency pitch trim will be lost
C. Engine EFCs will be inoperative, with associated thrust loss
D. Both fuel transfer pumps will be inoperable and the engine anti-ice valves will open

B. Both normal and emergency pitch trim will be lost

131

131. During a dual generator failure situation, if the generators fail to reset and flight conditions permit, attempt to reset by turning both generator switches OFF and reset them one at a time. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. True
B. False

A. True

132

132. Illumination of the AC BUS SHED annunciator is advisory only and indicates a combination inverter/load bus malfunction that will result in the loss of flap position indicator and both oil pressure indicators. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. True
B. False

A. True

133

133. The BATTERY FDR FAIL light on the overhead panel illuminates with any of three possible malfunctions. Which statement is correct in its entirety? (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. If the light is not accompanied by any other annunciators, the battery feeder protection circuit has lost power. Check the FDR PROT circuit breaker. If the circuit breaker has not tripped, or if it has tripped and will not reset, turn the battery switch to EMER and land as soon as practical using generator power.
B. If the light is accompanied by only the EMER BUS FDR FAIL annunciator, check the EMER BUS FDR circuit breaker. If the circuit breaker has tripped and will not reset, subsequent loss of the left load buss will result in loss of the emergency bus.
C. If the light is accompanied by the EMER BUS FDR FAIL, BATT CUT OFF, and L/R BUS FDR FAIL, turn the battery to OFF and land as soon as possible.
D. If the light is accompanied by both the EMER BUS FDR FAIL and BATT CUT OFF annunciators and the battery is essential for flight, under no circumstances should you cycle the BATTERY switch to OFF, then ON.

B. If the light is accompanied by only the EMER BUS FDR FAIL annunciator, check the EMER BUS FDR circuit breaker. If the circuit breaker has tripped and will not reset, subsequent loss of the left load buss will result in loss of the emergency bus

134

134. When the BATT CUT-OFF annunciator is illuminated, it means the battery _____________ and ___________. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. relay is open; battery charging will not occur
B. relay is closed; battery charging will not occur
C. feeder protection unit has isolated the battery; suspect an internal battery ground fault
D. b & c.

A. relay is open; battery charging will not occur

135

135. If the DOOR UNLOCK annunciator illuminates in flight, the jump seat may check the security of the cabin door as long as they stay securely fastened. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. True
B. False

B. False

136

136. The DOOR UNLOCK annunciator indicates that: (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. the cabin door upper lock pins are not fully seated
B. the aft fuselage door is not fully closed and locked
C. aircraft service panels are not fully closed
D. A and/or B

D. A and/or B

137

137. The CABIN PRESSURE LO warning annunciator will illuminate when the: (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. cabin altitude exceeds 9,500 ± 1500 feet
B. cabin altitude exceeds 9,500 ± 500 feet
C. cabin pressure exceeds 9.1 psi
D. cabin pressure exceeds 9.5 ± 0.1 psi.

B. cabin altitude exceeds 9,500 ± 500 feet

138

138. Severe windshear is that which produces airspeed changes greater than _____ knots or vertical speed changes greater than _____ feet per minute. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. 20, 1,000
B. 15, 1,500
C. 15, 500
D. 20, 500

C. 15, 500

139

139. Under windshear approach procedures, reference groundspeed is computed by ________ the surface headwind component (or __________ the tailwind component) from approach true airspeed. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. adding, subtracting
B. adding, adding
C. subtracting, subtracting
D. subtracting, adding

D. subtracting, adding

140

140. An external power unit is required for engine start at ambient temperatures below ____°F. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. 0
B. 32
C. 5
D. 10

C. 5

141

141. If only two pilots are onboard, crew members will exchange seats only when the autopilot is engaged. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. True
B. False

B. False

142

142. The Pilot Flying must announce to the crew when the autopilot is engaged or disengaged. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. True
B. False

A. True

143

143. Only the pilot and copilot need to monitor UHF and VHF frequencies during descent when three crew members are aboard the aircraft. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. True
B. False

B. False

144

144. The flight crew will make all necessary entries in AFTO 781 to indicate when any limitations have been exceeded. Entries shall include: (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. time interval (where applicable)
B. actual instrument reading of the limitation that was exceeded
C. amount and duration of an over temperature
D. All the above

D. All the above

145

145. Do not operate surface anti-ice systems in flight at ram air temperatures above 10°C. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. True
B. False

A. True

146

146. The yaw damper must be disengaged by 200 feet AGL for all landings. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. True
B. False

B. False

147

147. With respect to brake energy limitations, the same amount of heat is generated by the brakes in stopping the aircraft within a given stopping distance, regardless of whether the brakes are applied in one steady application or in a series of short applications. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. True
B. False

A. True

148

148. Maximum Braking Speed is the brake application speed from which the aircraft may be brought to a full stop without exceeding the energy absorption capability of the brakes. This energy absorption corresponds to the fuse plug brake energy, ________ million FT-LB per brake. (T.O. 1T-1A-1-1)
A. 4.05
B. 8.1
C. 16.2
D. 14.8

A. 4.05

149

149. When _____ million foot pounds are absorbed, thermal fused screws may release resulting in flat tires. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. 8.1
B. 4.15
C. 2.05
D. 14.8

A. 8.1

150

150. If hot brakes are suspected: (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. the aircraft should not be taxied any more than is necessary to clear the active runway
B. the aircraft should not be maneuvered into a crowded parking area
C. the parking brake should not be set and do not approach overheated brakes for one half hour
D. all of the above.

D. all of the above.

151

151. The thermal fused screws are designed to soften and blow out, releasing air pressure in the tires when the temperature reaches approximately _______° F? (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. 280
B. 212
C. 800
D. 430

D. 430

152

152. Takeoffs are permitted with partial wing fuel and fuel in the fuselage tanks. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. True
B. False

B. False

153

153. For practice approach to stalls calculate _____and use as Go-around % N1. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. TRT
B. MCT
C. MRCT
D. full throttle displacement

B. MCT

154

154. During stall recoveries, placing the control column forward of neutral may: (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. expedite your stall recovery and minimize altitude loss
B. degrade the aircraft’s ability to re-establish boundary layer separation
C. result in accelerations below 0 g, exceeding the aircraft acceleration limit with flaps extended
D. produce neither positive nor negative effects on aircraft limitations and or flight characteristics

C. result in accelerations below 0 g, exceeding the aircraft acceleration limit with flaps extended

155

155. During a windshear recovery, until downward momentum is arrested and an adequate rate of climb is achieved, the best pitch attitude is one which will nibble in and out of the stick shaker (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. True
B. False

A. True

156

156. Accumulations of ½ inch of ice can add ________ pounds or more to the aircraft gross weight. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. 1,000
B. 750
C. 500
D. 2,002

C. 500

157

157. Apply ______% of the tailwind component to CFL, Vcef, Vr, Vb, and take-off ground run and zero wind climbout factor. (T.O. 1T-1A-1-1)
A. 200
B. 150
C. 100
D. D.75

B. 150

158

158. After checking flight controls during cold weather operations, the speed brakes may not fully retract due to lack of airflow across the wing surfaces. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. True
B. False

A. True

159

159. The total energy absorbed by the brakes assumes equal distribution between left and right brakes. Uneven toe pressure or numerous turns in the same direction can cause one side to absorb more energy than the other. As a result, thermal fuse plug release may occur prior to 8.1 million foot-pounds. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. True
B. False

A. True

160

160. Take-off rated thrust is the maximum allowable thrust (determined by fan speed, %N1) and varies with _________. (T.O. 1T-1A-1-1)
A. pressure altitude
B. ram air temperature
C. engine bleed air usage
D. all of the above

D. all of the above

161

161. Increase approach speed and touchdown speed by 50% of the gust increment, not to exceed a ____ knot correction. (AFMAN 11-247)
A. 20
B. 15
C. 10
D. 5

C. 10

162

162. Vmcg is _____ KIAS, and is the minimum controllable speed during the takeoff run, at which an engine is failed, it is possible to maintain directional control using only primary aerodynamic controls without deviating more than _____ feet laterally with all three wheels on the runway. (T.O. 1T-1A-1-1)
A. 88, 25
B. 89, 50
C. 88, 50
D. 89, 25

A. 88, 25

163

163. Center of gravity problems affecting longitudinal stability during flight should be considered prior to ________. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. crossfeeding of fuel
B. personnel movement within the cabin area
C. using the auto pilot
D. lowering flaps past 10°

B. personnel movement within the cabin area

164

164. A PIC may only deviate from AFI 11-202 Vol 3, flight rule, ATC clearance: (AFI 11-202 Vol 3)
A. to protect life
B. for safety of flight
C. or when an inflight emergency requires immediate action
D. both a and b above.
E. all of the above.

E. all of the above.

165

165. When an alternate airport is required and the pilot uses both ceiling and visibility weather criterion to determine the suitability of the original destination, total flight plan fuel: (AFI 11-202 Vol 3)
A. need not include the fuel required for a missed approach at the destination.
B. must include fuel for an approach and missed approach at the original destination.
C. must include fuel for an approach at the alternate.
D. must include a fuel reserve of 25 percent of total flight time or 30 minutes, whichever is higher.

A. need not include the fuel required for a missed approach at the destination.

166

166. In the absence of MAJCOM-defined consumption rates, when computing fuel reserves for turbine-powered aircraft, you should use fuel consumption rates for: (AFI 11-202 Vol 3)
A. cruise conditions.
B. maximum endurance.
C. maximum range at 10,000 feet.
D. best endurance at 10,000 ft MSL

D. best endurance at 10,000 ft MSL

167

167. Pilots under instrument flight rules (IFR) or visual flight rules (VFR), whether or not under radar control, are responsible for avoiding: (AFI 11-202 Vol 3)
A. traffic
B. terrain/obstacles
C. environmental hazards
D. all the above

D. all the above

168

168. Do not turn after a takeoff until at least 400 ft. above the Departure End of the Runway (DER) elevation, at a safe airspeed, and past the end of the runway (if visible) unless: (AFI 11-202 Vol 3)
A. safety dictates otherwise
B. VMC
C. specifically cleared by the controlling agency or required by a published procedure
D. a or c above
E. all of the above

D. a or c above

169

169. When the anti-skid fail caution annunciator is illuminated, anti-skid is not available and braking will be in the power brake mode. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. True
B. False

A. True

170

170. Retractable gear aircraft will report gear down status to ATC or runway supervisory unit after extending the landing gear. This report shall be made during any approach prior to crossing the _____. (AFI 11-202 Vol 3)
A. FAF
B. MAP
C. runway threshold
D. VDP

C. runway threshold

171

171. If operationally necessary, AETC/A3 authorizes the operations supervisor (or equivalent mission execution authority supervisor) to allow the PIC to ensure aircraft vertically clears all obstacles along the missed approach path OEI by subtracting up to ____ feet per NM from the published (or standard) climb gradient. (AFI 11-202 Vol 3, AETC Sup)
A. 52
B. 48
C. 200
D. 152

B. 48

172

172. USAF fixed-wing aircraft must be flown under IFR to the maximum extent practical and shall fly under IFR if: (AFI 11-202 Vol 3)
A. weather conditions do not permit VFR flight
B. airspace rules require IFR flight (e.g. Class A airspace)
C. operating in excess of 180 knots true airspeed (KTAS) within (not simply crossing) federal airways
D. operating fixed wing aircraft at night, unless the mission cannot be flown under IFR
E. all of the above

E. all of the above

173

173. An alternate is required when the worst weather at destination, to include TEMPO conditions, at the ETA 1 hour is less than: (AFI 11-202 Vol 3, AETC Sup)
A. ceiling of 5,000 feet and visibility of 5 sm
B. ceiling of 2,000 feet and visibility of 3 sm
C. the airfield’s lowest compatible approach weather minimums are greater than or equal to a 1,500 ft. ceiling or 3 SM visibility
D. b and c above
E. all of the above

D. b and c above

174

174. Crew rest for successive flight activity will not begin sooner than 1 hour after the final landing from a previous flight activity or when completing the last assigned official duty. (AFI 11-202 Vol 3, AETC Sup)
A. True
B. False

A. True

175

175. For fixed wing aircraft, the worst alternate forecast weather conditions for ETA 1 hour, to include TEMPO conditions (except those caused by thunderstorms, rain, or snow showers) will meet or exceed the highest of: (AFI 11-202 Vol 3)
A. a ceiling of 1,000 feet
B. a visibility of 2 sm
C. a ceiling of 500 feet above the lowest compatible minimum
D. a visibility of 1 sm above the lowest compatible minimum
E. All of the above

E. All of the above

176

176. Which of the following conditions does not disqualify an alternate? (AFI 11-202 Vol 3, AETC Sup)
A. all compatible approaches require radar
B. all compatible approaches at the alternate require the use of GNSS and planning to the destination was based on the use of traditional ground based NAVAIDs.
C. the airfield does not have a weather reporting service
D. “A/NA” (Alternate Not Authorized) on all compatible approaches
E. forecast winds exceed aircraft limits for ETA +/- 1 hour

B. all compatible approaches at the alternate require the use of GNSS and planning to the destination was based on the use of traditional ground based NAVAIDs

177

177. If unable to meet or exceed the required IFR departure climb gradient, AETC/A3 authorizes a VMC climb to the IFR MEA or a VFR departure. A VMC climb to the IFR MEA or a VFR departure is to be used when? (AFI 11-202 Vol 3, AETC Sup)
A. as a last resort
B. when the mission priority justifies the increased risk
C. at PIC discretion to circumvent poor mission planning
D. A and B above
E. all of the above

D. A and B above

178

178. The base of the escape hatch is _____ feet above the ground with the landing gear extended. Use caution to avoid personal injury when using this exit. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. 5.0
B. 3.5
C. 4.5
D. 4.0

C. 4.5

179

179. When proceeding to a station, turning to keep the bearing pointer under the upper lubber line describes: (AFMAN 11-217 Vol 1)
A. homing.
B. intercepting a course inbound.
C. proceeding direct.
D. intercepting a course outbound.

A. homing.

180

180. When correcting back to the arc, displace the bearing pointer _____ degrees from the reference point for each 1/2 mile deviation to the inside of the arc and _____ degrees for each 1/2 mile outside the arc. (AFMAN 11-217 Vol 1)
A. 10, 5
B. 10, 15
C. 5, 10
D. 5, 15

C. 5, 10

181

181. When checking the altimeter against a known checkpoint on the ground, the maximum allowable error is ____ feet. (AFMAN 11-217 Vol 1)
A. 50
B. 75
C. 100
D. 150

B. 75

182

182. Normal braking can be used with emergency braking because the systems are independent. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. True
B. False

B. False

183

183. Which is a correct standard holding pattern? (AFMAN 11-217 Vol 1)
A. Right turns, 1 minute when holding at or above 14,000 feet.
B. Left turns, 1 minute when holding at or above 14,000 feet.
C. Right turns, 1 minute when holding at or below 14,000 feet.
D. Left turns, 1 minute when holding at or below 14,000 feet.

C. Right turns, 1 minute when holding at or below 14,000 feet.

184

184. Wing commander approval is the lowest approval authority required to perform practice instrument approaches under VFR. (AFI 11-202 Vol 3, AETC Sup)
A. True
B. False

B. False

185

185. ATC should issue holding instructions at least _____ minutes before reaching a clearance limit fix. Within ______minutes of reaching the fix and clearance beyond the fix has not been received, reduce to holding airspeed. (AFMAN 11-217 Vol 1)
A. 3, 5
B. 5, 3
C. 3, 3
D. 5, 5

B. 5, 3

186

186. Using the 70 degree method for holding, if the inbound holding course is not within 70° of the aircraft heading: (AFMAN 11-217 Vol 1)
A. turn outbound on the holding side regardless of direction to parallel the holding course.
B. turn outbound in the shorter direction to parallel the holding course.
C. if this turn places you on the non-holding side, either parallel or attempt to intercept course inbound.
D. both a and c above.
E. both b and c above.

E. both b and c above.

187

187. During an en route descent the controller tells you that you are cleared for the approach and you are below a published altitude restriction. You should: (AFMAN 11-217 Vol 1)
A. climb to that altitude.
B. maintain the last assigned altitude until established on a segment of the instrument approach.
C. break off the approach and request new vectors.
D. none of the above.

B. maintain the last assigned altitude until established on a segment of the instrument approach.

188

188. Before reaching the IAF: (AFMAN 11-217 Vol 1)
A. recheck the weather (if appropriate).
B. review the IAP.
C. check the heading and attitude systems.
D. obtain clearance for the approach.
E. all of the above.

E. all of the above.

189

189. For radar vector weather requirements, when the reported ceiling is at least 500 feet above the minimum vectoring altitude and the visibility is at least 3 miles, aircraft will be vectored to intercept the final approach course as follows: (AFMAN 11-217 Vol 1)
A. at least 1 mile for the FAF at a maximum intercept angle of 20 degrees
B. at least 3 miles for the FAF at a maximum intercept angle of 30 degrees
C. at all other times, unless specifically requested by the pilot, aircraft will be vectored to intercept the final approach course at least 3 miles from the FAF at a maximum intercept angle of 30 degrees.
D. all of the above.

D. all of the above

190

190. Pilots cleared for vertical navigation using the phraseology “Descend Via” shall inform ATC upon initial contact with a new frequency: (AFMAN 11-217 Vol 1)
A. True
B. False

A. True

191

191. Unless the IAP specifies otherwise, the remain within distance of a procedure turn is measured from: (AFMAN 11-217 Vol 1)
A. the procedure turn fix.
B. the runway.
C. final approach fix.
D. the MAP.

A. the procedure turn fix

192

192. The parking brake should not be set ___________________. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. if the brakes are hot
B. during low temperatures, when an accumulation of moisture is present
C. using the copilot's brake pedals
D. All of the above

D. All of the above

193

193. The final approach course on a non-radar final may vary from the runway heading as much as ______ degrees (except localizer) and still be published as a straight-in approach. (AFMAN 11-217 Vol 1)
A. 20
B. 30
C. 35
D. 40

B. 30

194

194. When flying an ILS, if you are more than one dot below or two dots above glide slope, you: (AFMAN 11-217 Vol 1)
A. do not descend below localizer minimums
B. must discontinue the approach.
C. may continue descent to decision altitude/height if the glide slope is recaptured within the above tolerance.
D. a or c above.
E. none of the above.

D. a or c above.

195

195. In the event of flap system malfunction, the circuit breaker, placarded FLAP, should be pulled to prevent further flap actuation due to air loads or switch contact proximity. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. True
B. False

A. True

196

196. Noise cancelling headsets are approved for use in the T-1. (AFI 11-2T-1 Vol 3)
A. True
B. False

B. False

197

197. Receipt of only bearing or only DME while flying a TACAN approach indicates a malfunctioning TACAN. If backup timing is published, it is permissible to use the timing to replace DME. (AFI 11-217 Vol 3)
A. True
B. False

B. False

198

198. Aeronautical charts do not depict man-made obstacles less than 200 feet AGL or a change in terrain until it exceeds the chart contour interval. The worst situation would occur if a 199-foot obstacle sat on terrain with an elevation just below the next higher contour. For a TPC (1:500,000) with a contour interval of 500 feet, this results in an uncharted obstacle existing 698 feet above charted terrain. (AFI 11-217 Vol 2)
A. True
B. False

A. True

199

199. Pilots must adhere to the following when entering Class C airspace: (AFI 11-217 Vol 2)
A. Pilots must be in two-way radio communication with ATC
B. Unless otherwise authorized, when within 4 nm of the primary airport at or below 2,500 feet AGL, do not exceed 200 KIAS.
C. None of the Above
D. Both A and B

D. Both A and B

200

200. In reference to the flap system, if the 26 VAC primary shed bus is lost ____________. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. flap asymmetry detection is not available
B. the copilot has to use the flap override switch
C. the flap position indicator will be inoperative
D. a & c

D. a & c

201

201. Be alert for fog or low cloud formation any time the surface air temperature is within ______ of the dew point, and the spread between the two is ________. (AFH 11-203 Vol 1)
A. 7° F; decreasing
B. 4° F; decreasing
C. 7° F; increasing
D. 4° F; increasing

B. 4° F; decreasing

202

202. USAF Aircraft flying VFR in FAA Class C, D, E (below 10,000’), or G (below 10,000’) airspace must have a prevailing or flight visibility of ____ statute miles and be _____ feet below clouds, _____ feet above clouds, and _______ feet horizontal. (AFI 11-202 Vol 3, AETC Sup 1, Table 7.1.)
A. 2; 500; 1,000; 2,000
B. 3; 500; 1,000; 2,000
C. 2; 1,000; 500; 2,000
D. 3; 1,000; 500; 2,000

B. 3; 500; 1,000; 2,000

203

203. Class B airspace is generally from the surface to _______ feet MSL surrounding the busiest (primary) airports in the NAS. Pilots _____ obtain an ATC clearance to enter Class B airspace even when operating VFR. When departing VFR from an airport within Class B airspace, ______ a VFR clearance from clearance delivery or ATC. (AFI 11-217V2)
A. 10,000; must; obtain
B. 10,000; must; there is no need to obtain
C. 13,000; must; obtain
D. 13,000; must; there is no need to obtain

A. 10,000; must; obtain

204

204. Thunderstorms are responsible for two out of every three windshear events and are also often responsible for the most hazardous form of windshear, the microburst..(AFH 11-203 Vol 1)
A. True
B. False

A. True

205

205. For unusual attitude recoveries, initiate recoveries above ____ KIAS, below _____ KIAS, and above ____ feet AGL. (AFI 11-2T-1 Vol 3)
A. 150, 300, 5,000
B. 120, 275, 7,000
C. 130, 270, 5,000
D. 100, 300, 13,000

C. 130, 270, 5,000

206

206. When conducting practice instrument approaches under VFR, OG/CC or equivalent is the approval authority to allow units to practice instrument approaches under VFR. Which of the following apply? (AFI 11-202 Vol 3, AETC Sup)
A. maintain VFR cloud clearances and visibilities
B. use terminal radar service when available
C. make all position reports IAW AFMAN 11-217, Volume 2.
D. request ATC clearance to fly the published missed approach.
E. All of the above

E. All of the above

207

207. Operational check flights may be performed during student training sorties if the checks do not interfere with the training objectives. (AFI 11-2T-1 Vol 3)
A. True
B. False

A. True

208

208. On taxi, when obstacles affect only one wingtip, the marshaller may also act as the wing walker and direct the aircraft while monitoring the affected wingtip. This requirement does not apply at the home station when fixed taxi routes are marked and provide a minimum of ____ feet of wingtip clearance from obstacles and other aircraft. (AFI 11-2T-1 Vol 3)
A. 10
B. 25
C. 15
D. 5

A. 10

209

209. The minimum runway length for T-1A takeoffs is ______________________. (AFI 11-2T-1 Vol 3)
A. 6,000 feet
B. critical field length
C. 6,000 feet or critical field length, whichever is lower
D. 6,000 feet, critical field length, or the distance to reach reference zero whichever is greater

D. 6,000 feet, critical field length, or the distance to reach reference zero whichever is greater

210

210. What will cause the speed brakes to automatically retract? (Ref: T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. Flap extension beyond the 10° position
B. Either throttle advanced to approximately the "NORM T.O." position
C. A or B above
D. None of the above

C. A or B above

211

211. The minimum runway length for full stop landings is ____________________. (AFI 11-2T-1 Vol 3)
A. 6,000 feet
B. computed landing distance
C. 6,000 feet or computed landing distance, whichever is lower
D. 6,000 feet or computed landing distance, whichever is greater.
E. If a runway has landing distance available (LDA), the LDA must be at least 6,000 feet or landing distance whichever is greater

D. 6,000 feet or computed landing distance, whichever is greater.

212

212. Single engine and no flap tactical overheads are prohibited (simulated or actual). (AFI 11-2T-1 Vol 3)
A. True
B. False

A. True

213

213. Minimum runway length restrictions may be waived on a case by case basis by the _______________. (AFI 11-2T-1 Vol 3)
A. Operations Officer
B. Squadron Commander
C. Operations Group Commander
D. not applicable because this can never be waived

C. Operations Group Commander

214

214. If a Form F requires fuel to remain in the tank in order to keep the aircraft within CG limits under certain crew or cargo complements, crews may plan on utilizing this fuel for the planned sortie. (AFI 11-2T-1 Vol 3)
A. True
B. False

B. False

215

215. For student syllabus sorties, minimum briefing times are determined IAW the syllabus. For all other sorties, the minimum brief time will be ___________ prior to scheduled takeoff. The aircraft commander will determine briefing requirements for off-station sorties. (AFI 11-2T-1 Vol 3)
A. 2 hours
B. 1 hour and 30 minutes
C. 1 hour
D. 45 minutes

B. 1 hour and 30 minutes

216

216. Aircrew members must wear approved flight gloves during: (AFI 11-2T-1 Vol 3)
A. external aircraft inspection
B. takeoff and landing operations
C. aircraft servicing
D. A and C above
E. all of the above

D. A and C above

217

217. Failure to set the proper AOA value ________________. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. may cause an erroneous on-speed indication
B. has no affect, since it is only a reference marker
C. will turn off the AOA indexer lights
D. will cause of a failure of the AOA system

A. may cause an erroneous on-speed indication

218

218. Water droplets in the free air, unlike bulk water, do not freeze at 0 degrees C. Instead, their freezing temperature varies from -10 to -40 degrees C. The smaller the droplets, the lower the freezing point. As a general rule, serious icing is rare in clouds with temperatures below -20 degrees C since these clouds are almost completely composed of ice crystals. (AFH 11-203 Vol 1)
A. True
B. False

A. True

219

219. The secondary flight controls are ___________________. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. flaps
B. speed brakes
C. all trim systems
D. a and c above
E. All of the above

E. All of the above

220

220. Maintain a minimum of ______ feet behind other aircraft while taxiing in daytime. (AFI 11-2T-1 Vol 3)
A. 75
B. 100
C. 150
D. 200

C. 150

221

221. Simulated single-engine and no-flap approaches and patterns, as well as, circling approaches may be flown at night if the ceiling and visibility is at least ______ feet and _____ statute miles (sm) or circling minimums, whichever is greater. (AFI 11-2T-1 Vol 3)
A. 3000; 5
B. 3000; 3
C. 2000; 5
D. 2000; 3

D. 2000; 3

222

222. Aircrew will fly a minimum of _____ feet above the highest unseen obstacle within ____ NM of the aircraft. Once the obstacle is visually acquired, aircrews will fly a minimum of ____ feet above, or laterally avoid the obstacle by a minimum of ______ feet. (AFI 11-2T-1 Vol 3)
A. 1,000; 2; 500; 3,000
B. 1,000; 2; 500; 2,000
C. 500; 2; 500; 3,000
D. 500; 2; 500; 2,000

D. 500; 2; 500; 2,000

223

223. Aircrews will obtain required flight weather support from one of the following sources (in priority order): (AFI 11-202 Vol 3 AETCSUP)
A. Locally approved mission execution forecasts, local military weather unit, Servicing Air Force OWS, another military weather unit, FAA weather forecast or flight weather briefing agency, nearest flight service station
B. Local military weather unit, Servicing Air Force OWS, FAA weather forecast or flight weather briefing agency, nearest flight service station, another military weather unit
C. Servicing Air Force OWS, local military weather unit, another military weather unit, FAA weather forecast or flight weather briefing agency, nearest flight service station
D. Servicing Air Force OWS, local military weather unit, FAA weather forecast or flight weather briefing agency, nearest flight service station, another military weather unit

A. Locally approved mission execution forecasts, local military weather unit, Servicing Air Force OWS, another military weather unit, FAA weather forecast or flight weather briefing agency, nearest flight service station

224

224. When reading a METAR, AUTO refers to an observation taken from (AFH 11-203 Vol 2)
A. a scheduled hourly observation.
B. an unattended Automated Surface Observation System (ASOS).
C. Both A and B.
D. None of the above.

B. an unattended Automated Surface Observation System (ASOS).

225

225. Reported wind direction is in magnetic north because runways and aircraft instruments are oriented toward magnetic north. (AFH 11-203 Vol 2)
A. True
B. False

A. True

226

226. If winds are gusting, the next two or three digits immediately following the letter "G" (on the METAR line) will be the gust speed or _______ speed. (AFH 11-203 Vol 2)
A. peak wind
B. average wind
C. suspected wind
D. None of the above

A. peak wind

227

227. The weather requirements for USAF Aircraft flying VFR in FAA class B airspace are: (FLIP)
A. 3 sm; 500’ below; 1,000’ above; 2,000’ horizontally
B. 5 sm; 1,000’ below; 1,000’ above; 1,000’ horizontally
C. 3 sm; clear of clouds
D. 5 sm; 1,000’ below; 1,000’ above; 1,500’ horizontally

C. 3 sm; clear of clouds

228

228. Regarding VFR operations within class C airspace, pilot participation within the _____ nm outer area is ________. If class C radar services provided in the outer area are discontinued either through pilot request or ATC workload does not permit, USAF crews _____ continue to monitor the appropriate ATC frequency. (AFMAN 11-217 Vol 2)
A. 20; voluntary; should
B. 20; voluntary; must
C. 20; mandatory; must
D. 10; voluntary; should

A. 20; voluntary; should

229

229. Regarding runway visual range (RVR), if reading a METAR reporting P5000FT, this means: (AFH 11-203 Vol 2)
A. RVR is less than 5,000 feet.
B. RVR is approximately 5,000 feet +/- 500 feet.
C. RVR is greater than 5,000 feet.
D. RVR is variable between 4,000 feet and 6,000 feet.

C. RVR is greater than 5,000 feet.

230

230. Which of the following is true with an engine shutdown due to a failed turbine rotor shaft? (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. A loud report will be audible
B. An engine restart may be attempted
C. Engine restart is not possible
D. a & c

D. a & c

231

231. The aft fuselage door is designed such that the lower section must be opened prior to the upper section. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. True
B. False

A. True

232

232. You should never clean a dry window surface without using water or a mild soap solution. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. True
B. False

A. True

233

233. Discoloration, crazing, or scratches will weaken the structural strength of the windows. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. True
B. False

B. False

234

234. During _____, to avoid obscuring visibility, the sun visors must be in the stowed position. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. takeoff
B. landing
C. formation flight
D. A & B
E. All the above

D. A & B

235

235. The green overboard oxygen discharge indicator on the right side of the nose section, provides a visual indication when an overpressure condition has existed in the oxygen cylinder. When the blowout disk is missing, the entire oxygen supply has been vented overboard. Thermal expansion will cause the disc to blow out when the pressure in the oxygen cylinder reaches approximately _____. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. 1850 psi
B. 2500 psi
C. 2700 psi
D. 2000 psi

C. 2700 psi

236

236. For the instrument cockpit check, it is not necessary to check the heading system for the correct direction of turns during taxi and the proper heading displayed during runway alignment. (AFMAN 11-247)
A. True
B. False

B. False

237

237. All checklist items are to be read and the individual responsible for each item must reply with the appropriate response. (AFMAN 11-247)
A. True
B. False

A. True

238

238. During critical phases of flight, direct reference to the checklist is not required. (AFMAN 11-247)
A. True
B. False

A. True

239

239. Before takeoff, the PNF sets the airspeed marker on _____, the PF sets _____, and they memorize _____ if different than S1. (AFMAN 11-247)
A. Vco, S1, Vmb
B. S1, Vmb, Vco
C. S1, Vco, Vrot
D. Vco, S1, Vrot

C. S1, Vco, Vrot

240

240. Cross-check your _____ and _____ as the primary references for VFR recoveries, and general area orientation. (AFMAN 11-247)
A. MFD with the FMS courses set, navaids
B. chart, area landmarks
C. NAVAIDs, map
D. area landmarks, the center MFD map

B. chart, area landmarks

241

241. Because the TCAS will not be able to display all air traffic, the pilot is still responsible to clear for other aircraft. (AFMAN 11-247)
A. True
B. False

A. True

242

242. Before starting traffic pattern stalls, set the yaw damper to off, set the AOA indexer to 1.3, set the proper approach speed on the airspeed indicator, and calculate the MCT and set on the N1 indicator, and clear the area. (AFMAN 11-247)
A. True
B. False

A. True

243

243. Actual traffic pattern stalls or approach to stall situations frequently result from improper aircraft handling, maneuvering, or configuration. (AFMAN 11-247)
A. True
B. False

A. True

244

244. When accomplishing rectangular patterns, fly the base turn to arrive at a _____ to _____ mile final. (AFMAN 11-247)
A. 0.5, 0.75
B. 0.75, 1.5
C. 1, 1.25
D. 1, 1.5

D. 1, 1.5

245

245. Unless airspace is otherwise classified, Class G Airspace (uncontrolled) within the US extends up to _______ MSL. At and above this altitude is Class _____ Airspace. (FLIP, AP/1)
A. 10,000’; F
B. 12,500’; E
C. 14,500’; E
D. 18,000’; A

C. 14,500’; E

246

246. Do not block air distribution system return air grates and openings in the aircraft. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
A. True
B. False

A. True

247

247. When receiving your clearance from clearance delivery, you are informed that you are cleared as filed. This means the routes and altitudes in your flight plan have been approved. (FLIP)
a. True
b. False

b. False

248

248. When ATC authorizes “cleared for the option,” this allows an aircraft to perform which of the following? (FLIP)
a. touch and go
b. full stop
c. low/missed approach
d. stop and go
e. Any of the above.

e. Any of the above.

249

249. Class A airspace extends from _____ MSL to FL _____. (FLIP)
a. 10,000, 250
b. 10,000, 450
c. 18,000, 300
d. 18,000, 600

d. 18,000, 600

250

250. Height above airport (HAA) is associated with which of the following approaches? (FLIP)
a. Localizer
b. ILS
c. PAR
d. Circling

d. Circling

251

251. When cleared for a descent at the pilot's discretion, you may temporarily level off at any intermediary altitude; however, once that altitude is vacated, you may not return to that altitude. (FLIP)
a. True
b. False

a. True

252

252. When ATC requests a speed adjustment for spacing, pilots are expected to maintain that speed ± _____ knots or ±_____ mach. (FLIP)
a. 30, 0.03
b. 10, 0.02
c. 20, 0.01
d. 15, 0.025

b. 10, 0.02

253

253. On a Sectional or TAC, Class C airspace is depicted by ________ indicating radials and arcs of the sectors, with MSL ceiling and floor altitudes of each sector shown in _______ indicating hundreds of feet. (Sectional Legend).
a. solid magenta lines; solid magenta numbers
b. dashed blue lines, blue dashed-boxed numbers
c. solid blue lines, solid blue numbers
d. screened black lines, solid black numbers

a. solid magenta lines; solid magenta numbers

254

254. Students in formal flying training programs do not perform duties in excess of a 12-hour duty day, unless authorized in the applicable syllabus. (AETCI 36-2605 Vol 1)
a. True
b. False

a. True

255

255. The objective of CAP is to focus supervisory attention on a student's progress in training/screening, specific deficiencies, and potential to complete the program. (AETCI 36-2605 Vol 1)
a. True
b. False

a. True

256

256. Many items are required by aircrew to be considered Mission Ready. Out of those items listed below, which of the following must have been accomplished and/or maintained? (AFI 11-202 Vol 1)
a. satisfactory completion of initial and mission qualification(s) along with proficiency
b. a flight physical and egress training
c. instrument refresher and CRM training
d. A and B above
e. All of the above

e. All of the above

257

257. When throttles are advanced to ______ on the ground, the cabin is pressurized to a positive 80 to 120 foot differential. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
a. 66% N2
b. 70% N1
c. 70% N2
d. takeoff position

d. takeoff position

258

258. Aircrew members that fail to complete their semiannual CT requirements for the half are allowed to fly in Mission Ready status in the new period. This is because the Operations Group Commander has no need to review, waive, or assign additional training to the offending aircrew member. Furthermore there is no need to document anything in the individual’s training folder. (AFI 11-2T-1 Vol 1)
a. True
b. False

b. False

259

259. Verbal coordination between the pilot flying the aircraft and the applicable crew member will be required when control of the aircraft is transferred, repositioning fuel control switches (other than preflight checks), a crew member leaves position or goes On or Off interphone, a crew member goes On or Off oxygen, any electrical power source is changed (other than preflight checks), the autopilot is engaged or disengaged, the PF intends to perform any critical maneuver - takeoff or abort, landing, go-around, or touch and go. (T.O.1T-1A-1)
A. True
B. False

A. True

260

260. The cabin is manually depressurized in case of an emergency by turning the control counterclockwise _____ complete revolutions. This proportionately vents the outflow safety valve’s control chambers and when the outflow safety valves open, depressurizing the cabin to a maximum of _________ feet. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
a. 7; 12,500 ± 500
b. 15; 15,500 ± 1500
c. 7; 12,500 ± 1500
d. 7; 9,500 ± 500

c. 7; 12,500 ± 1500

261

261. Out of the answers listed below, what “other” conditions require an alternate? (AFI 11-202 Vol 3)
a. All compatible approaches require radar
b. Required navigational aids will be unmonitored
c. No weather reporting capability and/or the lowest compatible approach minimums are greater than or equal to 1,500 ft. ceiling or 3 sm visibility
d. Forecast winds exceed aircraft tech order limits ± 1 hour of ETA
e. All of the above

e. All of the above

262

262. Out of the answers listed below, what conditions disqualify an alternate? (AFI 11-202 Vol 3)
a. Any note disqualifying the airfield or all compatible approaches in the IFR Alternate Minimums section
b. All compatible approaches at the alternate require use of GNSS and planning to the destination was also based on the use of only GNSS approaches
c. half of the compatible approaches require radar
d. A & B
e. All of the above

d. A & B

263

263. Declare “minimum fuel” or “emergency fuel” to the appropriate controlling agency when the aircraft may land at the intended destination with less than the MDS-specific minimum or emergency fuel reserves. (AFI 11-202 Vol 3)
a. True
b. False

a. True

264

264. For manned aircraft night operations, each crewmember must have an operable flashlight. (AFI 11-202 Vol 3)
a. True
b. False

a. True

265

265. Before takeoff or while airborne, changes may be made to the original filed flight plan without re-filing provided: (AFI 11-202 Vol 3)
a. The change does not penetrate an ADIZ
b. The controlling agency approves the change for an IFR flight
c. The change complies with applicable host-nation rules
d. All of the above

d. All of the above

266

266. For operations on published RNAV routes (Q or T routes), if RNAV routes cannot be retrieved from the database, selecting and inserting ALL of the named fixes from the database is permitted.: (AFI 11-202 Vol 3)
a. True
b. False

a. True

267

267. By filing a fight plan, the PIC certifies all of the following except: (AFI 11-202 Vol 3)
a. The flight was properly ordered and released
b. The flight will be conducted IAW all governing directives
c. The aircraft has been inspected and is deemed suitable for flight
d. The flight plan was reviewed for completeness and accuracy

c. The aircraft has been inspected and is deemed suitable for flight

268

268. Pilots under instrument flight rules (IFR) or visual flight rules (VFR), whether or not under radar control, are relieved of their responsibility for avoiding traffic, terrain/obstacles, and environmental hazards.: (AFI 11-202 Vol 3)
a. True
b. False

b. False

269

269. Unauthorized or impromptu flight demonstrations, maneuvers or "fly-bys" are acceptable if approved by ATC. (AFI 11-202 Vol 3)
a. True
b. False

b. False

270

270. Aircrew members will not fly if any alcohol is consumed within _____ hours prior to _____ or if impaired by alcohol or any other intoxicating substance, to include the effects or after-effects.
(AFI 11-202 Vol 3)
a. 12; assuming preflight ground duties
b. 8; takeoff
c. 12; takeoff
d. 8; assuming preflight ground duties

c. 12; takeoff

271

271. If utilizing an RNAV system on a conventional route or procedure, it is permissible to retrieve all NAVAIDs, fixes, and procedures from an expired database provided you can verify with current FLIP. (AFI 11-202 Vol 3)
a. True
b. False

b. False

272

272. Pilots operating in VMC, under IFR or VFR, whether or not under radar control, are responsible to sense and avoid other traffic, terrain and obstacles. (AFI 11-202 Vol 3)
a. True
b. False

a. True

273

273. Aircrew have the requirement to tune, identify, monitor and _____ the appropriate ground-based NAVAID whenever practicable. (AFI 11-202 Vol 3)
a. disregard
b. ignore
c. deny
d. display

d. display

274

274. If the engine will not start with the ignition switch in STBY, the manual mode should be used. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
a. True
b. False

b. False

275

275. The horizontal stabilizer anti-ice and de-ice systems must operate together. Should either system fail, both must be turned off. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
a. True
b. False

a. True

276

276. For VFR operations within the Outer Area adjacent to Class C airspace, participation of radar services is: (FLIP, AP/1)
a. strongly encouraged
b. a requirement
c. can be discontinued at pilot request
d. a and c
e. all of the above

d. a and c

277

277. Prior to entering Class C airspace when operating under VFR, pilots must be in two way radio communication with ATC. What constitutes this “two-way” radio communication requirement? (AFMAN 11-217 Vol 2)
a. ATC merely stating, “Aircraft calling, standby.”
b. ATC including the aircraft’s call sign in the radio call.
c. ATC neither acknowledging nor responding to your radio call.
d. Any form is acceptable as long as you made a radio call, therefore all of the above answers are correct.

b. ATC including the aircraft’s call sign in the radio call

278

278. If the Manual Deice (Backup) switch for the horizontal stabilizer anti-ice system is held in the MANUAL position longer than momentarily, power to the gap heater elements will be maintained for more than ______ and overheating could result. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
a. 60 seconds
b. 30 seconds
c. 45 seconds
d. 2 minutes

b. 30 seconds

279

279. With respect to manual deice operation, to avoid damage to the electrothermal heating elements in the mats, manual mode must not be used for deicing on the ground due to: (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
a. potential overheating with insufficient airflow for cooling
b. a lack of bleed airflow in the piccolo tube
c. ice melting and refreezing in the spoiler area causing potential jammed flight controls during takeoff
d. none of the above

a. potential overheating with insufficient airflow for cooling

280

280. The air data systems anti-ice heaters are powered separately for the pilot and copilot systems from the left and right overhead bus respectively. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
a. True
b. False

a. True

281

281. Do not operate engine anti-ice on the ground at temperatures above _____°C OAT/SAT except for preflight check. (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
a. 0
b. 8
c. 10
d. 12

c. 10

282

282. Flight in visible moisture without pitot heat can result in erratic operation or failure of the following pilot and copilot systems: (T.O. 1T-1A-1)
a. Mach/airspeed indicator
b. RA/VSI
c. altimeters
d. all of the above
e. only a & c above

d. all of the above

283

283. The IFR Supplement: (AFMAN 11-217, Vol 2)
a. contains reference data and flight procedures for airdromes across the United States
b. includes runway dimensions and capabilities, available aircraft services, communications,
c. navigational aids, and various other airdrome details
d. none of the above
e. a & b

e. a & b

284

284. Only instructors may call “Knock it off.” (IFG)
A. True
B. False

B. False

285

285. Five minutes prior to actual low level entry time, aircrew will transmit the following on 255.4 MHz: “Attention all aircraft, (callsign), (type of aircraft), entering (low-level route) Pt (x), 5 minutes, Exiting Pt (x), xxx' AGL, xxx groundspeed.” (AFI 11-202V3_AETCSUP_479FTGSUP)
A. True
B. False

A. True

286

286. If aircrew is in doubt at any time about taxi spacing, get a _____. (AFI 11-202V3_AETCSUP_479FTGSUP)
A. Safety cone
B. Instructor Pilot
C. Ops Sup
D. Wing Walker

D. Wing Walker

287

287. When a Lightning Warning exists for lightning within 10 NM of the airfield, local flying may continue per Ops Sup discretion. (AFI 11-202V3_AETCSUP_479FTGSUP)
A. True
B. False

A. True

288

288. Whenever power is applied to the aircraft, ___ crewmember(s) must be onboard at all times. (TO 1T-1A-1)
A. 2
B. 1
C. 3
D. 4

B. 1

289

289. In a ditching situation, do not unstrap ____. (TO 1T-1A-1)
A. until just before touchdown
B. until you feel comfortable
C. until all motion stops.
D. Both A & B.

C. until all motion stops.

290

290. Before applying power, both instructor laptops should be plugged into the AC outlet. (T-1 CSO Mod User Manual)
A. True
B. False

B. False

291

291. Before shutting down either I-1 or I-2 system, all applications running on the computer should be manually exited. (T-1 CSO Mod User Manual)
A. True
B. False

A. True

292

292. Before applying power, unplug both instructor laptops from the AC outlet. (T-1 CSO Mod User Manual)
A. True
B. False

A. True

293

293. Any aircrew member will announce an altitude variation of 200 feet or more, an airspeed deviation of 10 knots from desired, any potential terrain or obstruction clearance problems, and airborne hazards (e.g. birds or traffic conflicts). (AFI11-2T-1V3)
A. True
B. False

A. True

294

294. At aircraft commander discretion, CSOs may unstrap shoulder harnesses during low level portions of formal training syllabi. (AFI11-2T-1V3)
A. True
B. False

A. True

295

295. The system will provide notification if the laptop battery level goes below 75%. What is the significance of this notification? (T-1 CSO Mod User Manual)
A. No significance
B. The laptop power cable is plugged into the AC power receptacle.
C. Indicates the A/C power is not applied to the laptop.
D. Laptop needs a new battery

C. Indicates the A/C power is not applied to the laptop.

296

296. The S-1 and S-2 Student Stations computer systems will boot-up when power is applied by: (T-1 CSO Mod User Manual)
A. Pressing the AUX Power switch
B. Engine start
C. Pressing the Cabin Power switch
D. Pressing the AFT Power switch

C. Pressing the Cabin Power switch

297

297. NASP ground control is authorized the use of a single clearance for multiple runway crossings when taxi distance between runway centerline distances is less than 1000 feet. (AFI 11-202V3_AETCSUP_479FTGSUP)
A. True
B. False

A. True

298

298. What is the minimum weather required for Course Rules at KNPA? (IFG)
A. 1500/3
B. 2000/5
C. 2500/3
D. 1500/5

C. 2500/3

299

299. Pattern altitude at NASP is ____ feet MSL. (IFG)
A. 1500
B. 1000
C. 800
D. 700

C. 800

300

300. Aircrew will ensure they have ____ minute(s) separation behind preceding aircraft on TRAWING 6 owned low-level routes. (AFI 11-202V3_AETCSUP_479FTGSUP)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

B. 2