Advanced Microbiology Flashcards

(67 cards)

1
Q

CRP and procalcitonin are

A

non-specific inflammatory markers

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2
Q

Legionella antigen detection tests are a form of

A

direct detection that can be used at the point of care

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3
Q

HSV can be treated with

A

Aciclovir

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4
Q

VZV can be treated with

A

Aciclovir

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5
Q

Influenza can be treated with

A

Ostelamivir (oral)

Zanamavir (inhaled)

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6
Q

Hep C is an exception because it is a

A

RNA virus

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7
Q

NRTIs like AZT work by

A

inhibiting HIV replication

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8
Q

What type of infection would show normal WCC, high lymphocytes and normal neutrophils?

A

viral

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9
Q

HIV pyrimidine analogues include

A

Zidovudine and Lamivudine

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10
Q

HIV purine analogues include

A

Abacavir and Terbfair

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11
Q

Lamivudine and Terbafavir also work against

A

Hep B

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12
Q

Acyclovir and Ganciclovir are

A

Herpes polymerase inhibitors

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13
Q

An example of a hep C polymerase nucleotide inhibitors is

A

Sofosbuvir

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14
Q

NNRTIs include

A

Efavirenz and Nevirapine

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15
Q

Ritonavir is used to boost the levels of other

A

Polymerase inhibitors

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16
Q

HAART is composed of

A

2 NRTIs and NNRTI or

2 NRTIs and a boosted PI/integrase inhibitor

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17
Q

A M18V4 HIV mutation leads to resistance to

A

Lamivudine

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18
Q

peptidoglycan is a polymer of

A

N-acetyl muramic acid and N-acetyl glucosamine

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19
Q

beta-1,3-glucan is a polymer of

A

UDP-glucose

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20
Q

Antivirals that inhibit replication can be

A

Polymerases
NRTIs
NNRTIs
Protease inhibitors

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21
Q

Echinocandins, beta-lactams and glycopeptides are

A

cell wall synthesis inhibitors

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22
Q

an example of a beta-lactam with G-VE activity only is

A

Aztreonam, a monobactam

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23
Q

Tazocin increases the spectrum of what beta-lactam

A

piperacillin

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24
Q

Echinocandins end in

A

-‘fungin’

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25
Aminoglycosides, MLS antibiotics, tetracyclines and omazolidinones are
protein synthesis inhibitors in bacteria
26
Gentamicin binds to
the 30S subunit
27
erythromycin binds to the 50S subunit and
inhibits protein elongation
28
Doxycycline binds to the
30S subunit
29
Which is more narrow spectrum, amoxicillin or meropenem?
Amoxicillin
30
Linezolid binds to the
50S subunit
31
what can be used in the nasal form in MRSA
Mupirocin
32
What is commonly used to treat UTIs?
Trimethoprim
33
What is effective against pneumocystis jirowecii and Toxoplasma gondii ?
Co-trimoxazole
35
Quinolone are effective against
bacteria only
36
Rifampin is used to treat
TB
37
The lower the MIC…
the more sensitive the antimicrobial agent
37
Azoles are used for
oral and vaginal thrush
38
Anaerobes and streptococci are innately resistant to
aminoglycosides
39
VRE reduce the binding of vancomycin by
1000 fold
40
Amino glycosides are concentration dependent which is
Cmax/MIC
41
Vancomycin is concentration dependent which is
AUC/MIC
42
beta-lactams are time dependent which is
Time>MIC
43
what antibiotic has the same bioavailability with with IV and PO
Ciprofloxacin
44
Trimethoprim can cause
hyperkalaemaia with ACEi
45
In pregnancy ciprofloxacin increases the risk of
arthropathy
46
Nitrofurantoin should be avoided at term because it can cause
neonatal haemolysis
47
Alcohol gel is suitable for everything but
C.diff and viral gastroenteritis which requires soap and water
48
catheter injection sites require disinfection with
2% chlorohexidine in 70% isopropyl alcohol
49
The standard investigation for meningitis is
lumbar puncture
50
what is the main cause of encephalitis?
viruses
52
What inhibits folate synthesis?
Trimethoprim and sulfonamides
53
In what condition should lumbar puncture be discouraged?
brain abscesses as it can increase the pressure in the brain
54
What is used to assess the severity of pneumonia?
CURB65
55
Mantoux, IGRA and Quantiferon is used to test exposure to what?
TB
56
What criteria is used to assess the severity of cystitis and pylonephritis?
KASS
57
What is the main method of testing for a H.pylori infection?
stool antigen test
58
In liver abscesses, it is important to carry out what test?
Hyatid serology
59
What infection requires three sets of blood cultures at different times in the first 24 hours?
Endocarditis and vascular graft infections
59
What does the catalase test help to distinguish between?
Strep and staph
60
High risk pneumonias should be treated with
Co-amoxiclav and clarithromycin
61
What should be used to treat C.difficile?
oral metronidazole
62
An upper UTI can be treated with
IV Cefuroxime
63
Sepsis requires 2 of the following:
Temp >38 HR>90 RR>20 WBC>12
64
How much fluid are needed to manage sepsis?
500ml IV saline over 15 mins
65
What should cellulitis be treated with?
Flucloxacillin
66
Necrotising fasciitis should be treated with?
Meropenem and Clindamycin
67
What can stain the teeth of babies born if used in pregnancy?
Tetracycline