Skin & MSK Pathology Flashcards

(64 cards)

1
Q

Are vocal cord polyps unilateral or bilateral?

A

Unilateral

They usually occur in the anterior half of Reinke’s space

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2
Q

hoarsness, obstruction, dysphagia and dysphonia can be seen in

A

contact ulcer of the pharynx

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3
Q

Where do contact ulcers usually occur in the pharynx?

A

The posterior aspect of the vocal cords

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4
Q

Juvenile laryngeal papillomatosis is common with

A

HPV 6/11

it is a benign neoplasm

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5
Q

Which regions of the larynx are most affected by SCC?

A

Supraglottic and glottic regions

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6
Q

What is a spindle cell carcinoma?

A

SCC with sarcomatous pattern

It affects the anterior aspect of the true vocal cords

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7
Q

What is a verrucous carcinoma?

A

well differentiated SCC of the larynx with favourable prognosis

It has a ‘church spire’ appearance

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8
Q

Rhinorrhea, nasal stuffiness, obstruction and chronic headache are all features of

A

sinonasal polyps

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9
Q

Allergic fungal sinusitis is most commonly due to

A

Aspergillus

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10
Q

septal erosion and perforation as well as nasal pain and stuffiness are features of

A

Wegener’s granulomatosis

It also affects the kidneys and the lungs

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11
Q

Where are exophytic papillomas located?

A

Exclusively on the nasal septum

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12
Q

Inverted papillomas affect

A

the lateral nasal wall and middle meatus

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13
Q

Nasopharyngeal angiofibromas can present as

A

anosmia
headaches
obstruction

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14
Q

Cranial nerve involvement can occur in

A

SCC of the nose and paranasal sinuses

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15
Q

What are the clinical features of oral lichen planus?

A

fine white lace like striae

atrophic oedematous mucosa with ulcerations

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16
Q

Apthous stomatitis presents as

A

ulcers with a white, yellow or grey membrane with an erythematous halo

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17
Q

SCC of the oral cavity is often preceded by

A

leukoplakia and erythroplakia

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18
Q

SCC of the oropharynx is associated with

A

HPV 16 and 18

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19
Q

Salivary gland mucoceles often arise due to

A

blockage/rupture of a salivary gland duct

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20
Q

Pleomorphic adenomas are benign neoplasms that make up what percentage of parotid, submandibular and minor salivary gland tumours?

A

60%

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21
Q

What is a biphasic tumour composed of bilayered oncocytic cells in a dense lymphoid stroma?

A

Warthin’s tumour

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22
Q

What are the 3 stages of eczema?

A
Acute: 
skin is red, weeping with exudate 
Subacute: 
itching with crusting 
Chronic: 
thick and leathery skin secondary to scratching
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23
Q

Coin shaped lesions are seen in

A

nummular dermatiits

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24
Q

What commonly shows the Auspitz sign?

A

Psoriasis

When you peel the scale, it causes bleeding

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25
what presents as a butterfly rash on the cheeks and nose?
SLE
26
What would show a IMF-LE band microscopically?
SLE IgG is deposited in the basement membrane of the kidneys
27
Dermamyositis can present as
heliotropic rash and peri-ocular oedema
28
What is the difference between a pemphigus and pemphigoid bullous?
``` Pemphigus= intraepidermal blister Pemphigoid= subepidermal blister ```
29
Dermatitis Herpetiformis is associated with what disease?
Coeliac It presents as small, intensely itchy blisters on extensor surfaces
30
BCC is often formed on
sun exposed sites
31
SCC is classified as high risk if it is
2cm or >4mm thick
32
From where to melanocytes hail?
Neural crest cells
33
What is the ABCD to consider in melanoma?
Asymmetrical Borders uneven Colour variation Diameter >6mm
34
Melanomas are often common in those with
fair skin and sunburn
35
chronic skin damage in elderly people can lead to
lentigo maligna melanoma
36
Acral lentigenous melanoma presents in
Afro-Caribbeans and on the palms and soles
37
The commonest type of melanoma in the UK is
superficial spreading melanoma
38
The most important prognostic factor melanomas is
Breslow thickness
39
Where are melanomas most common?
BANS | back, arms, neck and scalp
40
How can melanomas be treated?
BRAF Inhibitors
41
subchondral cysts and osteophytes are features of
OA
42
Morning stiffness, serum RF and swollen, warm joints are common features of
RA
43
Sero negative arthritides that lack RF include
Ankylosing spondylitis Psioratic arthiritis Reiter's syndrome
44
Allopurinol should not be used to treat
acute gout attacks NSAIDs and steriods can be used in an acute attack
45
pyogenic osteomyelitis can be caused by
bacteria due to haematogenous spread
46
Infective arthritis can be caused by
trauma, IV drug abuse and debilitating illness
47
chalk stick fractures are common in what disease?
Paget's
48
Lack of vit D is related to
osteomalacia
49
What is osteitis fibrosa cystica?
Loss of bone mineral with osteoporosis
50
Osteomas and osteoblastomas are
benign bone tumours
51
60% of cases of osteosarcoma occur
around the knee
52
Secondary bone tumours come from
``` prostate kidney breast thyroid GIT ```
53
CREST syndrome is associated with
systemic sclerosis ``` Calcinosis Raynaud's Oesophageal dysfunction Sclerodactyly Telangiectasia ```
54
Polymyalgia rheumatica is
stiffness, weakness, aching and pain in the muscles of the neck, limb girdles and UL
55
Rhambomyolysis is
destruction of skeletal muscle myoglobin ins released into the blood
56
Viral warts can be treated with
salicylic acid, silver nitrate and cryrosurgery
57
How can HPV be prevented?
Gardasil vaccine | Barrier protection
58
cysts or abscesses in the natal cleft are known as
Pilonidal cysts
59
Impetigo can be caused by
S. aureus
60
Erysipelas is caused by
S. pyogenes
61
dishwater exudate is a feature of
necrotising fasciitis
62
In sickle cell what can cause osteomyelitis?
Salmonella
63
lymphadenopathy is associated with what stage of syphilis?
Primary
64
Rashes all over the body are associated with what stage of syphilis?
Secondary