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Immunology Flashcards

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1
Q

Undesirable reactions directed against innocuous agents in a pre-sensitised host is known as

A

an allergy

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2
Q

Coombs and Gell (1963) developed a

A

classification of hypersensitivity

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3
Q

IgE is involved in

A

anaphylaxis

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4
Q

Cytotoxic reaction occur in response to antigens

A

at the cell surface

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5
Q

Goodpasture’s nephritis and Erythroblastosis fetalis are examples of

A

Type II reactions

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6
Q

Type III reactions occur in response to antigens

A

that are soluble

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7
Q

SLE is an example of a

A

Type III reaction

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8
Q

Nickel is a common antigen that causes

A

Type IV reactions

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9
Q

The lack of infectious drive in contributing to allergic disease is known as

A

the hygiene hypothesis

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10
Q

The immune response to parasitic infections involves

A

increased IgE and CD4 cells that secrete IL4, IL5 and IL13

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11
Q

Th2 deviation leads to

A

antibody mediated immunity (likely chance of allergies)

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12
Q

Leukotrienes and prostaglandins form the late phase reaction in

A

IgE mediated allergic response

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13
Q

In children, what reduction in BP is classified as anaphylaxis?

A

greater than 30% in systolic bP

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14
Q

What is the atopic triad?

A

Asthma, Rhinitis and Eczema

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15
Q

What should rhinitis be treated with?

A

Antihistamines and nasal steroids

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16
Q

Atopic dermatitis is caused by

A

something endogenous

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17
Q

How do you diagnose an allergy?

A

Graded challenge test
Basophil activation test
Skin prick test

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18
Q

What can indicate severe hypersensitivity reactions?

A

Blistering disorders

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19
Q

Dendritic cells, macrophages and neutrophils are

A

phagocytic cells

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20
Q

Autoimmune disease is

A

the breakdown of self-tolerance

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21
Q

Central tolerance and selection of T cells occurs

A

in the thymus

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22
Q

MHC Class 1 present to

A

CD8 cells

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23
Q

MHC class 1 are found on

A

all nucleated cells, never on RBCs

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24
Q

FOXP3 mutations cause

A

severe autoimmunity from birth

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25
PTPN22 mutations cause
stronger immune responses
26
Rheumatic fever Abs can also react against
glycoproteins of the heart
27
Citrullination of proteins can lead to
Rheumatoid arthritis
28
What condition do antibodies destroy the thyroid?
Hashimotos
29
What condition do autoantibodies block ACh receptors at NMJs, causing drooping eyelids, weakness in neck and arms?
Myasthenia gravis
30
In what condition should you always check the MCV?
Pernicious anaemia
31
What does vitamin B12 need to be absorbed?
IF
32
In what condition do antibodies react against antigens in the nucleus?
SLE
33
scleroderma, polymyositis and Sjorgens syndrome are examples of
connective tissue diseases
34
[a/(a+c)] is
sensitivity
35
[d/(b+d)] is
specificity
36
the positive predictive value is
[a/(a+b)]
37
the negative predictive value is
[d/(c+d)]
38
ANAs are antibodies that
bind to the cell nucleus
39
ANAs can be detected using
indirect immunofluorescence
40
What antibody is commonly found in RA but not used in diagnosis?
rheumatoid factor- | it is directed at the Fc portion of IgG
41
What is more specific for RA than RF?
ACPA
42
What can be used to diagnose Wegener’s granulomatosis?
ANCA
43
cytoplasmic ANCA targets which antigens?
PR3 (70%) | MPO
44
What is immunodeficiency?
clinical situation in which the immune system is not effective enough to protect the body against infection
45
What type of immunodeficiency is usually due to genetics?
Primary
46
TLRs, a type of pathogen recognition receptors, trigger the production of inflammatory cytokines such as
MyD88 and IRAK4
47
Defects in which TLR leads to recurrent HSV encephalitis?
TLR3
48
IRAK4 and MyD88 deficiencies present as
recurrent bacterial infections | poor inflammatory response
49
one of the key proteins in the NADPH complex that has X-linked inheritance is
gp9/phox
50
Chronic granulomatous disease presents as
recurrent abscesses caused by unusual organisms
51
Dihydrothdamine reduction using flow cytometry can be used to investigate
chronic granulomatous disease
52
Deficiency in C2 and C4 can cause
SLE
53
Deficiency in C5-C9 (which form MAC) presents with
repeated episodes of bacterial meningitis
54
What investigation can be done to check if there is a complement deficiency?
complement function test
55
Antigens can be inactivated by antibodies by
Neutralisation Agglutination Precipitation Complement
56
X linked agammaglobulinaemia is caused by a defect in
BTK
57
IgA deficiency and CVID are examples if
B cell defects
58
B cell defects should be treated with
Abx and IV IgG for life
59
The CD20 receptor on the B cell is a target for what drug
Rituximab
60
SCID is can be caused by
an Absence of T cells | metabolic deficiencies
61
SCID is an emergency for what category of patients?
paediatric
62
Immunomodulators that target TNF are
Adalimunab Infliximab Entanercept Cetrolizumab
63
Immunomodulators can be
fusion proteins monoclonal antibodies identical signalling proteins
64
Passive immunisation is useful for
Hep B prophylaxis Botulism VZV
65
What type of immunisation has limited use in the immunocompromised?
Active
66
beta interferon can be used in therapy for what condition?
MS
67
alpha interferon can be used to treat what virus?
Hep C
68
Corticosteroids cause immunosuppression by
reducing T cell proliferation and the production of inflammatory cytokines
69
What antimetabolite is a folate antagonist?
Methotrexate
70
What antimetabolite cross links DNA?
cyclophosphamide
71
Tacromilus is a
calcineurin inhibitor (affects T cells)
72
What drugs are used in RA therapy?
Anti-TNF | Anti- IL6
73
What Ab can be used in the treatment of asthma against IgE?
Omalizumab
74
What Ab can be used in the treatment of asthma against IL-5?
Mepolizumab
75
What parasitic infection can be passed on by cats and their litter?
Toxoplasma gondii
76
Which MHC molecules are heterodimers?
class II
77
What HLA is involved with fighting malaria?
HLA-B53
78
What is allogenic transplantation?
Where an aggressive immunological response comes about due to foreign tissue
79
What is important to prevent rejection of grafts?
HLA typing

CP (12 decks)

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