AERODROME DESIGN – GEOMETRIC SPECIFICATIONS (PART 2) Flashcards
(215 cards)
1
Q
It is important for determining the thickness and strengths of the runway, taxiway, and apron pavements, and affects the takeoff and landing runway length requirements at an airport, which in turn to a large extent influences planning of the entire airport property.
A
Aircraft Weight
2
Q
It influence the size of parking aprons, which in turn influences the configuration of the terminal buildings.
A
wingspan and the fuselage length
3
Q
It dictates the width of runways and taxiways, the distances between these traffic ways, and affects the required turning radius on pavement curves
A
Wingspan and turning radii
4
Q
It has an important bearing on facilities within and adjacent to the terminal building.
A
aircraft’s passenger capacity
5
Q
known as revenue generating carrying capacity
A
payload
6
Q
world’s largest passenger aircraft
A
Airbus A-380
7
Q
It is defined as the distance from the front tip of the fuselage, or main body of the aircraft, to the back end of the tail section, known as the empennage
A
length of an aircraft
8
Q
It is used to determine the length of an aircraft’s parking area, hangars
A
length of an aircraft
9
Q
It determines the required amount of aircraft rescue and firefighting equipment on the airfield.
A
length of the largest aircraft to perform at least five departures per day
10
Q
defined as the distance from wingtip to wingtip of the aircraft’s main wings
A
wingspan of an aircraft
11
Q
used to determine the width of aircraft parking areas and gate spacing, as well as determining the width and separations of runways and taxiways on the airfield.
A
wingspan of an aircraft
12
Q
typically defined as the distance from the ground to the top of the aircraft’s tail section
A
maximum height of an aircraft
13
Q
defined as the distance between the center of the aircraft’s main landing gear and the center of its nose gear, or tail-wheel, in the case of a tail-wheel aircraft.
A
wheelbase
14
Q
defined as the distance between the outer wheels of an aircraft’s main landing gear
A
wheel track
15
Q
determine its minimum turning radius, which in turn plays a large role in the design of taxiway turnoffs, intersections, and other areas on an airfield which require an aircraft to turn
A
wheelbase and wheel track
16
Q
a function of the nose gear steering angle
A
Turning radii
17
Q
The larger the angle, the smaller the ___
A
radii
18
Q
The _____radius is the most critical from the standpoint of clearance to buildings or adjacent aircraft.
A
largest
19
Q
The minimum turning radius corresponds to the _______ nose gear steering angle specified by the aircraft manufacturer.
A
maximum
20
Q
defined as a main gear of having a total of two wheels, one on each strut.
A
single-wheel configuration
21
Q
defined as a main gear of having a total of four wheels, two on each strut.
A
dual-wheel configuration
22
Q
defined as two sets of wheels on each strut.
A
dual-tandem configuration
23
Q
The “lightest” measure of an aircraft’s weight
A
operating empty weight (OEW)
24
Q
OEW of an aircraft plus the weight of its payload.
A
zero fuel weight (ZFW)
25
term which refers to the total revenue-producing load. Includes the weight of passengers andtheir baggage, mail, express, and cargo.
payload
26
The maximum load which the aircraft is certified to carry,whether this load be passengers, cargo, or a combination of both. (ZFW - OEW)
maximum structural payload
27
the maximum weight authorized for ground maneuver including taxi and run-up fuel.
maximum ramp weight
28
the maximum weight authorized at brake release for takeoff. It excludes taxi and run-up fuel and includes the operating empty weight, trip and reserve fuel, and payload.
maximum gross takeoff weight
29
designed as the maximum gross takeoff weight for an aircraft operating at sea level elevation at a temperature of 59°F (15°C). It is also the maximum weight that the aircraft's landing gear can support.
maximum structural takeoff weight (MSTOW)
30
it is the structural capability of the aircraft in landing
maximum structural landing weight (MLW)
31
applies to all propeller-driven aircraft powered by high-octane gasoline-fed reciprocating engines.
Piston engine
32
Most ________ aircraft are powered by piston engines
small general aviation
33
refers to propeller-driven aircraft powered by turbine engines.
Turboprop
34
has reference to those aircraft which are not dependent on propellers for thrust, but which obtain the thrust directly from a turbine engine
Turbofan or jet
35
are typically powered using a form of diesel fuel, known as Jet-A
Jet engines
36
Jet engines can be classified into two general categories, ________ and _________
turbojet; turbofan
37
engine consists of a compressor, a combustion chamber, and a turbine at the rear of the engine
Turbojet
38
is essentially a turbojet engine to which has been added large-diameter blades, usually located in front of the compressor.
Turbofan
39
These blades (of turbofan) are normally referred to as the
fan
40
defined as the ratio between the mass flow rate of air drawn in by the fan but bypassing the engine core to the mass flow rate passing through the engine core
bypass ratio
41
These engines reduce fuel consumption by 25 to 35 percent
unducted fan (UDF) engines and ultrahigh bypass ratio (UHB) turbofan engines
42
Jet engine performance is made in measured both in terms of
power and efficiency
43
The power of an aircraft engine is typically measured in pounds of forward moving force, or
thrust
44
Aircraft engine power efficiency is measured in terms of the _______, defined simply as the pounds of thrust provided by the engine, divided by the weight of the engine
thrust-to-weight ratio
45
Early jet engines were produced with thrust-to-weight ratios of approximately
3:1
46
new light but powerful jet engines with thrust to weight ratios nearing ___ have significantly improved the operating efficiency of air transport aircraft
5:1
47
expressed in terms of pounds of fuel per hour per pound of thrust
Fuel consumption
48
defined as the amount of fuel required (in pounds) to create 1 lb of thrust, is a function of its weight, altitude, and speed
Specific fuel consumption
49
represents the average conditions found in the actual atmosphere in a particular geographic region
standard atmosphere
50
The greater the density of the air, the ___ air molecules flow over the wings, creating ___ lift, allowing the aircraft to fly.
more; more
51
When the air is less dense, what runway length is required?
longer runway length
51
As air density decreases, aircraft require larger ___ to maintain lift.
airspeed
52
A function of the air pressure.
density (of the air)
53
What happens to air density as air pressure decreases?
It also decreases.
53
When air temperature increases, velocity ___ and density ___.
increases; decreases
53
It represents the average conditions found in the actual atmosphere in a particular geographic region
Standard Atmosphere
53
From sea level to an altitude of about 36,000 ft.
Troposphere
53
What happens to the temperature at the troposphere?
It decreases linearly
54
Above 36,000 to about 65,000 ft.
Stratosphere
55
What happens to the temperature at the stratosphere?
It remains constant
56
The standard temperature at sea level.
59°F or 15°C
57
The standard pressure at sea level.
29.92126 inHg or 1015 (millibars) mb
58
Both standard pressure and standard temperature decrease with ___ altitude above sea level.
increasing
59
It is used to estimate the density of the air at any given time. It is also a function of the effect of barometric pressure on air density and the ambient temperature.
density altitude
60
Barometric pressure. It is also the altitude corresponding to the pressure of the standard atmosphere.
pressure altitude
61
Pressure altitude adjusted for temperature.
density altitude
62
speed of the aircraft relative to the ground
groundspeed
63
speed of an aircraft relative to the air flowing over the airfoil, or wing
true airspeed
64
wind is blowing in the opposite direction
headwind
65
wind is blowing in the same direction
tailwind
66
for takeoff and landings, an aircraft perform best when operating with ___.
headwind
67
allows an aircraft to achieve lift at slower groundspeeds, and thus allows takeoffs and landings with slower groundspeeds and shorter runway lengths
headwind
68
preferable for aircraft flying at altitude, as they achieve greater groundspeeds at a given airspeed, it is not preferable for takeoff or landing, for precisely the same reason
tailwind
68
airports tend to plan and design runways so that aircraft may operate most often with direct ___, and orient their primary runways in the direction of the prevailing winds
headwinds
69
direction toward which an aircraft is pointing
heading
70
direction as the aircraft is actually traveling over the ground
tracking
71
The aircraft heading is different than its track when operating with a ___.
crosswind
72
The angle between the desired track and the calculated heading and is known as angle x.
crab angle
73
component of the wind that is at a right angle to the track
crosswind
74
In order not to be blown laterally off the track by the wind, the aircraft must fly at what angle from the track?
crab angle
75
When the aircraft is moving slowly, as it does when it approaches a runway, and there is a strong crosswind, the crab angle or angle x will be ___.
large
76
As opposed to the primary runways that are oriented into the prevailing winds, crosswind runways are oriented into the direction of winds occurring ___ frequently.
less
77
An FAA category where aircraft are categorized by the airspeeds at which they make approaches to land at an airport
Aircraft Approach Category
78
The FAA provides requirements to airports that runways be provided that allow for safe operation of the aircraft that use the airport for at least what percent of the annual wind conditions at the airport?
95 percent
79
Aircraft performance data is typically made reference two airspeeds, namely
true airspeed (TAS) and indicated airspeed (IAS)
80
It works on the principle of the pitot tube, which compares the dynamic air pressure due to the forward motion of the aircraft with the static atmospheric pressure.
Airspeed indicator
81
At high altitudes the density becomes smaller and thus the ___ airspeed is less than the ___ airspeed.
indicated; true
82
aircraft manufacturers always report stalling speeds in terms of what airspeed?
indicated airspeed
83
The speed of sound is not a fixed speed; it depends on ___ and not on ___.
temperature; atmospheric pressure
84
the fastest an aircraft may cruise in smooth air to maintain safe structural integrity
Vne or Do-Not-Exceed Speed
85
the recommended speed for an aircraft performing maneuvers (such as turns) or operating in turbulent air
Va or Design Maneuvering Speed
86
the recommended speed at which the aircraft can safely liftoff.
Vlo or Liftoff Speed
87
the recommended speed at which the nose wheel may be lifted off the runway during takeoff
Vr or Rotate Speed
88
the speed at which, during a takeoff run, the pilot decides to continue with the takeoff, even if there might be an engine failure from this point before takeoff
V1 or Decision Speed
89
the minimum possible speed for an aircraft in landing configuration (landing gear down, flaps extended) to maintain lift
Vso or Stall Speed (landing configuration)
90
If the aircraft's airspeed goes below Vso, the airplane loses all lift and is said to ___.
stall
91
this speed is also typically the speed at which an aircraft will touch down on a runway during landing.
Vso or Stall Speed (landing configuration)
92
the speed at which an aircraft travels when on approach to landing. It is typically calculated as 1.3 × Vso.
Vref or Reference Landing Approach Speed
93
maximum distance that an aircraft can fly, given a certain level of fuel in the tanks
aircraft range
94
as the range is increased the payload is ___
decreased
95
"Who publish payload versus range diagrams in aircraft characteristics manuals for each aircraft which may
be used for airport planning purposes?"
aircraft manufacturers
96
the higher the ________ of the airport, the less dense the atmosphere, requiring longer runway lengths for the aircraft to get to the appropriate groundspeed to achieve sufficient lift for takeoff.
field elevation
97
At higher altitudes the rate of increase is ______ than at lower altitudes.
higher
98
the presence of ______ will also increase the amount of runway required for takeoff and landing.
crosswinds
99
To accommodate natural topographic or other conditions, runways are often designed with some level of ______ or _______.
slope; gradient
100
_______ or standing water on the runway has an undesirable effect on aircraft performance. It has a slippery texture which makes braking extremely poor.
Slush
101
Transport category aircraft are licensed and operated under the code of regulations known as the
Federal Aviaton Regulations (FAR)
102
primarily a function of tire inflation pressure and to some extent the condition and type of grooves in the tires.
Hydroplanning
103
The regulations govern the aircraft gross weights at takeoff and landing by specifying performance requirements, known as _______ which must be met in terms related to the runway lengths available.
Declared Distances
103
In the regulations for both piston-engine aircraft and turbine-powered aircraft, the word runway refers to
Full-strength pavement (FS)
104
A rectangular area beyond the runway not less than 500 ft wide and not longer than 1000 ft in length, centrally located about the extended centerline of the runway.
clearway
105
runway length declared available and suitable for the ground run of an aircraft during takeoff.
Takeoff run available (TORA)
105
The speed at which engine failure is assumed to occur is selected by the aircraft manufacturer
Critical Engine-failure speed or Decision speed
106
distance required, from beginning of the takeoff roll to the emergency stop is referred to as the
accelerate-stop distance (ASD)
107
an aborted takeoff is relatively rare and permit use of lesser strength pavement, known as
Stopway (SW)
108
runway plus stopway declared available and suitable for the acceleration and deceleration of an aircraft during an aborted takeoff suitable for the ground run of an aircraft during takeoff.
accelerate-stop distance available (ASDA)
109
takeoff run available plus the length of any remaining runway and clearway beyond the far end of the takeoff run available.
Takeoff Distance Available (TODA)
110
runway length available and suitable for landing an aircraft.
Landing DIstance Available (LDA)
111
forms near the ends of the wings whenever the wings lift an aircraft
Wingtip Vortices
112
The winds created by vortices are often referred to as __
wake turbulence
113
___ is intended to provide a smooth and safe allweather riding surface that can support the weights of aircraft on top of the natural ground base.
Airfield pavement
114
A pavement consisting of a mixture of bituminous material and aggregate placed on high quality granular materials
flexible pavement
115
When the pavement consists of a slab of portland cement concrete (PCC)
rigid pavement
116
base course may consist of two:
"Treated
Untreated"
117
consist of crushed or uncrushed aggregates.
Untreated bases
118
consist of crushed or uncrushed aggregate that has been mixed with a stabilizing material such as cement or bitumen.
Treated bases
119
composed of treated or untreated material, typically unprocessed pit-run material or material selected form a suitable excavation on the site.
Subbase course
120
are usually accomplished through soil borings to determine the soil of rock profile and its lateral extent.
Surveys and sampling
121
are tested to determine soil types, gradation or particle sizes, liquid and plastic limits, moisture-density relationships, shrinkage factors, permeability, organic content, and strength properties
sampled materials
122
soils are initially classified as
"Coarse-grained
FIne Grained
Highly Organic"
123
hose that do not filter through a No. 200 grade sieve
Coarse-grained soils
124
known also as silts and clays
Fine grained soils
124
CBR
California Bearing Ratio
125
value of the strength of material used in flexible pavement bases
California Bearing Ratio
126
"subgrade modulus"
k value
127
a value of the bearing capacity of the soil, estimated using a plate bearing test
k value
127
expresses an index of the shearing strength of soil
CBR test
127
enables the designer to determine the required thickness of the subbase, base, and surface course by entering a set of design curves using the results of a relatively simple soil test
Application of the CBR method
128
The modulus subgrade of reaction, or k value of the subgrade is determined by
Field Plate Bearing Test
128
This test consists of applying loads by means of a hydraulic jack through a jacking frame on to a steel plate 30 in in diameter on the soil.
Field Plate Bearing Test
128
the greater the coarseness of the soil, the ____ k value and the less deflection for a given loading can be expected.
higher
128
One factor that does significantly impact the strength of soil, however, is the presence of _____ on the surface of or within the soil, either on a seasonal or a permanent basis.
Frost
129
Frost action, if severe, results in nonuniform heave of pavements during the winter because of the formation of ice lenses within the subgrade, known as _______, and in loss of supporting capacity of the subgrade during periods of thaw.
ice segregation
129
The ___ method was based on approximation charts that factored in the ____value of the subgrade and the number and gross weight of equivalent annual departures of the design aircraft.
CBR
130
At gates where aircraft are being fueled every effort should be made to keep the apron slope within ________.
0.5 Percent
131
refers to the determination of the thickness of the components that make up an airfield pavement structure, rather than the design of pavement materials itself.
structural design of airport pavements
131
is intended to provide a smooth and safe all weather riding surface that can support the weights of such heavy objects as aircraft on top of the natural ground base.
Airfield pavement
132
Advisory Circular AC 150/5320-6E
Airfield Pavement Design and Evaluation
132
Is a structure consisting of one or more layers of processed materials.
Pavement or pavement structure
132
A pavement consisting of a mixture of bituminous material and aggregate placed on high-quality granular materials is referred to as _______.
Flexible pavement
133
When the pavement consists of a slab of portland cement concrete (PCC), it is referred to as ________.
Rigid pavement
133
consists of a mixture of bituminous material (generally asphalt) and aggregate ranging in thickness from 2 to 12 in for flexible pavements, and a slab of PCC 8 to 24 in thick for rigid pavements.
Surface course
134
may consist of treated or untreated granular material.
base course
135
consist of crushed or uncrushed aggregates.
Untreated bases
136
consist of crushed or uncrushed aggregate that has been mixed with a stabilizing material such as cement or bitumen.
Treated bases
137
Is also composed of treated or untreated material, typically unprocessed pit-run material or material selected form a suitable excavation on the site.
Subbase course
137
The two primary factors that contribute to the design thickness of airfield pavement layers are the ________ and the ________ using the pavement.
Soil base; volume and weight of the traffic
138
consists of a soil survey to determine the arrangement of the different layers of soil in relation to the subgrade elevation, a sampling and testing of the various layers of soil to determine the physical properties of the soil, and a survey to determine the availability and suitability of local materials for use in the construction of the subgrade and pavement.
Soil Investigation
139
are usually accomplished through soil borings to determine the soil of rock profile and its lateral extent.
Surveys and sampling
140
Poorly graded gravels and gravel-sand mixtures, little or no fines
GP
140
Well-graded gravels and gravel-sand mixtures, little or no fines
GW
141
Silty gravels, gravel-sand-silt mixtures
GM
142
Clayey gravels, gravel-sand-clay mixtures
GC
143
Poorly graded sands and gravelly sands, little or no fines
SP
143
Well-graded sands and gravelly sands, little or no fines
SW
144
Silty sands, sand-silt mixtures
SM
144
Clayey sands, sand-clay mixtures
SC
145
Inorganic silts, very fine sands, rock flour, silty or clayey fine sands
ML
146
Inorganic clays of low to medium plasticity, gravelly clays, silty clays, lean clays
CL
146
Organic silts and organic silty clays of low plasticity
OL
147
Inorganic silts, micaceous or diatomaceous fi ne sands or silts, plastic silts
MH
147
Inorganic clays or high plasticity, fat clays
CH
148
Organic clays of medium to high plasticity
OH
148
Peat, muck, and other highly organic soils
PT
149
ger
pp 281 - 288 =
150
While several procedures have been proposed for estimating the required amount of steel, experience indicates that it should be approximately____ of the gross crosssectional area and that the yield strength should be at least ______.
0.6 percent; 60,000 lb/ in2
150
The amount of reinforcing steel required to control volume changes is dependent primarily on
"slab thickness
concrete tensile strength,
yield strength of the steel"
151
It must also be capable of withstanding the forces generated by the expansion and contraction of the pavement due to temperature changes
longitudinal embedded steel
152
It is located at mid-depth or slightly above mid-depth of the slab.
Longitudinal embedded steel
153
is recommended for CPRP airport pavements to control random longitudinal cracking
Transverse embedded steel
154
Transverse steel is designed in the same way as
tie bars.
155
These are required when existing pavements are no longer serviceable due to either deterioration in structural capabilities of a loss in riding quality.
Overlay pavements
156
It is required when pavements must be strengthened to carry greater loads or increased repetitions of existing aircraft beyond those anticipated in the original design.
Overlay pavements
157
provide a solution for increased safety (e.g. provide improved skid resistance and reduced risk of hydroplaning)
Overays
158
A concrete pavement can be overlaid with
"additional concrete
bituminous surfacing
combination of aggregate base course and a bituminous surfacing"
159
A flexible type of pavement can be overlaid with
"concrete
bituminous surfacing
combination of aggregate base course and a bituminous surfacing"
160
The thickness of a rigid or flexible type of pavement placed on an existing pavement
Overlay pavement
160
various types of overlay pavements
"Overlay pavements
Portland cement conrete overlay
Bituminous overlay
Flexible overlay "
161
An overlay pavement constructed of portland cement concrete
Portland cement concrete overlay
162
An overlay consisting of a base course and a bituminous surfacing
Flexible overlay
162
The FAA's ______ pavement design program includes capabilities for designing airfield pavement overlays
FAARFIELD
163
An overlay consisting entirely of a bituminous surfacing
Bituminous overlay
164
four types of overlays considered in FAARFIELD are
"1. Hot mix asphalt overlay of existing flexible pavement
2. Concrete overlay of existing flexible pavement
3. Hot mix asphalt overlay of existing rigid pavement
4. Concrete overlay of existing rigid pavementFAARFIELD"
164
Based on the thickness and condition of the existing pavement layers, FAARFIELD estimates the
required thickness of the overlay
165
The condition of the existing rigid pavement is estimated using a
structural condition index (SCI)
166
structural condition index (SCI) values ranges
0 to 100
167
SCI value representing a pavement with no visible structural deficiencies
100
168
SCI value representing total structural failure
0
169
Visible distresses that contribute to a lower SCI include
"Corner breaks
Longitudinal, transverse, or diagonal cracking
Shattered slab
Shrinkage cracks
Spalling (cracking, breaking, or chipping of joint/crack edges)"
170
In the case when there are no visible or otherwise degradations in structural condition, the FAA calls for the estimation of a
cumulative damage factor used (CDFU).
171
For rigid pavement bases, CDFU is estimated using the FAARFIELD software, based on the
number of years the pavement has been in use to date
172
FAA Advisory Circular AC 150/5320-6E
Airfield Pavement Design and Evaluation
173
defined as landing areas intended for personal or other small aircraft engaged in nonscheduled activities, such as recreational, agricultural, or instructional activities, or small aircraft charter operations.
Pavements for light aircraft
174
designed to accommodate aircraft with less than 30,000 lb maximum gross weight.
Pavements for light aircraft
175
For rigid pavements, FAARFIELD will estimate the
slab thickness
176
For flexible pavements, FAARFIELD will estimate the
total thickness of the pavement, including a minimum 2 in surface course.
177
A mechanism for providing consistent, objective, and systematic procedures for evaluating pavement condition and for determining the priorities and schedules for pavement maintenance and rehabilitation within available resource and budgeting constraints.
pavement management system (PMS)
178
It is also used to maintain records of pavement condition and to provide specific recommendations for actions which may be required to maintain a pavement network at an acceptable condition while minimizing the cost associated with pavement maintenance and rehabilitation
pavement management system (PMS)
179
It evaluates present pavement condition and predicts future condition through the use of a pavement condition indicator.
pavement management system (PMS)
180
Analysis used to projecting the rate of deterioration in the pavement condition indicator and adopting some minimum acceptable level for this indicator
life-cycle cost analysis
180
, the total annual cost to maintain or rehabilitate a pavement in relatively poor condition can be_____ that of maintaining or rehabilitating a pavement in relatively good condition
4 to 5 times
181
Provided to relieve the tensile stresses due to temperature, moisture, and friction, thereby controlling cracking.
- Required to facilitate construction when two abutting slabs are placed at different times.
CONTRACTION JOINTS
181
effective PMS for use at airports should include the following components
"1. A systematic mechanism for regularly collecting, storing, and retrieving the necessary data associated with pavement use and condition
2. An objective system for evaluating pavement condition at regular intervals
3. Procedures for identifying alternative maintenance and rehabilitation strategies
4. Mechanisms for predicting and evaluating the impact of pavement maintenance and rehabilitation strategies and alternatives on pavement condition, serviceability, and useful service life
5. Procedures for estimating and comparing the costs of various strategies and alternatives
6. Techniques for identifying the optimal strategy or alternative based upon relevant decision criteria"
182
It is the load transfer device which permit joints to open by which prevent differential vertical displacement.
- It is usually solid, round steel bars, although pipe may also be used.
dowels
183
It considers the fact that the layers of pavement that support loads are impacted by both vertical and horizontal strains and stress.
LAYERED ELASTIC DESIGN THEORY
