AERODROME DESIGN – GEOMETRIC SPECIFICATIONS (PART 1) Flashcards
(153 cards)
1
Q
In order to provide assistance to airport designers and a reasonable amount of uniformity in the design of airport facilities for aircraft operations, design guidelines have been prepared by
A
the FAA and the ICAO
2
Q
The FAA presents guidelines for airfield design in a series of
A
Advisory Circulars
3
Q
There are more than ________ pertaining to different aspects of airport planning and design
A
200 Advisory Circulars
4
Q
is the primary source of most airfield design standards
A
Advisory Circular 150/5300-13 “Airport Design”
5
Q
For design purposes, airports are classified based on
A
the aircraft they accommodate.
6
Q
airports are designed based on a series of ______ or ______ aircraft
A
“critical”or “design”
7
Q
The FAA defines the term ______ as the aircraft most demanding on airport design that operates at least 500 annual itinerant operations at a given airport
A
critical aircraft
8
Q
it is often the ______ aircraft that is critical to the orientation of runways, while the _______ aircraft determines most of the other dimensional specifications of an airfield.
A
smallest, largest
9
Q
Certain dimensional and performance characteristics of the critical aircraft determine the airport’s ________
A
airport reference code
10
Q
is a coding system used to relate the airport design criteria to the operational and physical characteristics of the aircraft intended to operate at the airport.
A
The airport reference code
11
Q
is determined by the aircraft approach speed, which is defined as 1.3 times the stall speed in the landing configuration of aircraft at maximum certified landing weight.
A
aircraft approach category
12
Q
Aircraft Approach Category A
A
<91 kn
13
Q
Aircraft Approach Category B
A
91-120 kn
14
Q
Aircraft Approach Category C
A
121-140 kn
15
Q
Aircraft Approach Category D
A
141-166 kn
16
Q
Aircraft Approach Category E
A
> 166 kn
17
Q
is a grouping of aircraft based upon wingspan or tail height
A
airplane design group (ADG)
18
Q
An airplane design group for a particular aircraft is assigned based on the _______ of that associated with the aircraft’s wingspan or tail height
A
greater (higher Roman numeral)
19
Q
is a two designator code referring to the aircraft approach category and the airplane design group for which the airport has been designed.
A
airport reference code
20
Q
The ICAO uses a two-element code, _________, to classify the geometric design standards at an airport
A
the aerodrome reference code
21
Q
The aerodrome code numbers __ through __ classify the length of the runway available, the reference field length, which includes the runway length and, if present, the stopway and clearway.
A
1 through 4
22
Q
The aerodrome code letters A through E classify the ______ and _________________ for the aircraft for which the airport has been designed.
A
wingspan and outer main gear wheel span
23
Q
The ___________ is the approximate required runway takeoff length converted to an equivalent length at mean sea level, 15°C, and zero percent gradient.
A
reference field length
24
Q
A __________ is defined as one which has been designed, constructed, and maintained to accommodate approach category A and B aircraft.
A
utility airport
25
The specifications for utility airports are grouped for small aircraft, those of maximum certified takeoff weights of ___________, and large aircraft, those with maximum certified takeoff weight in _______
12,500 lb or less, excess of 12,500 lb
26
Utility airports for small aircraft are called ______,______, and ______.
basic utility stage I, basic utility stage II, and general utility stage I
27
Utility airports for large aircraft are called __________.
general utility stage II
28
The visual and nonprecision instrument operation utility airports are the
basic utility stage I, basic utility stage II, and general utility stage I
29
The precision instrument operation utility airport is the
general utility stage II
30
A __________ airport has the capability of accommodating about 75 percent of the single engine and small twin engine aircraft used for personal and business purposes
basic utility stage I
31
This generally means aircraft weighing on the order of 3000 lb or less is given the airport reference code B-I
basic utility stage I
32
A __________ airport has the capability of accommodating all of the airplanes of a basic utility stage I airport plus some small business and air taxi-type airplanes.
basic utility stage II
33
This generally means aircraft weighing on the order of 8000 lb or less is also given the airport reference code B-I
basic utility stage II
34
A __________ airport accommodates all small aircraft. It is assigned the airport reference code of B-II
general utility stage I
35
A __________ airport serves large airplanes in aircraft approach categories A and B and usually has the capability for precision instrument operations. It is assigned the airport reference code of B-III.
general utility stage II
36
A _________ is defined as an airport which is designed, constructed, and maintained to accommodate aircraft in approach categories C, D, and E.
transport airport
37
is a rectangular area on the airport surface prepared for the takeoff and landing of aircraft.
runway
38
factors which affect the location, orientation, and number of runways at an airport
"local weather conditions
the type and amount of air traffic to be serviced at the airport
aircraft performance requirements
aircraft noise."
39
refers to the number and relative orientations of one or more runways on an airfield.
"runway configuration"
40
combinations of several basic runway configuration
"(1) single runways,
(2) parallel runways,
(3) intersecting runways
(4) open-V runways."
41
This is the simplest of the runway configurations
Single Runway
42
It has been estimated that the hourly capacity of a single runway in Visual Flight Rules (VFR) conditions is somewhere between ____ and _____ operations per hour
50 and 100
43
in _________ conditions this capacity is reduced to 50 to 70 operations per hour, depending on the composition of the aircraft mix and navigational aids available.
Instrument Flight Rules (IFR)
44
The capacities of parallel runway systems depend on the ___________ and ___________.
number of runways, on the spacing between the runways
45
the spacing is classified as _____, ________, and _______, depending on the centerline separation between two parallel runways.
close, intermediate, and far
46
are spaced from a minimum of 700 ft (for air carrier airports) to less than 2500 ft.
Close parallel runways
47
are spaced between 2500 ft to less than 4300 ft.
Intermediate parallel runways
48
Far parallel runways are spaced at least _______
4300 ft apart
49
Hourly capacity of a pair of parallel runways in VFR conditions
60 to 200 operations per hour
50
IFR conditions the hourly capacity of a pair of closely spaced parallel runways
50 to 60 operations per hour
51
pair of intermediate parallel runways hourly capacity
60 to 75 operations per hour
52
pair of far parallel runways hourly capacity
100 to 125 operations per hour
53
consists of two closely spaced parallel runways with appropriate exit taxiways.
dual-lane parallel runway
54
runway farthest from the terminal building (outer) for?
Arrival
55
runway closest to the terminal building (inner) for?
Departure
56
It is estimated that a dual-lane runway can handle at least ____ percent more traffic than a single runway in VFR conditions and about ____percent more traffic than a single runway in IFR conditions.
70; 60
57
recommended that the two runways be spaced not less than ____ ft apart (____ ft, where particularly larger wingspan aircraft are involved).
1000; 1200
58
The major benefit of a dual-lane runway is to provide an increase in _____ with minimal acquisition of land
IFR capacity
59
a runway with two or more runways in different directions crossing each other is referred to as?
Intersecting runways
60
Intersecting runways are necessary when ______ occur from more than one direction, resulting in excessive _____ when only one runway is provided.
relatively strong winds ; crosswinds
61
Runways in different directions which do not intersect are referred to as?
open-V runways.
62
In VFR the hourly capacity for this strategy ranges from _____ operations per hour
60 to 180
63
IFR the corresponding capacity is from _____ operations per hour.
50 to 80
64
When operations are toward the V it is referred to as a converging pattern and the capacity is reduced to ______ operations per hour in VFR
50 to 100
65
When operations are toward the V it is referred to as a converging pattern and the capacity is reduced to ______ operations per hour in IFR
50 and 60
66
what it is defined by the direction, relative to magnetic north, of the operations performed by aircraft on the runway?
Orientation of a Runway/ Runway Orientation
67
runways are typically oriented based on the area's _____ conditions.
wind
68
FAA recommends that runways should be oriented so that aircraft may be landed at least ___ percent of the time with allowable crosswind components not exceeding specified limits based upon the airport reference code associated with the critical aircraft that has the shortest wingspan or slowest approach speed.
95
69
"When the wind coverage is less than 95 percent a ____ is recommended.
"
crosswind runway
70
FAA Airport Reference Codes A-I and B-I Allowable Crosswind
10.5 kn (12 mi/h)
71
72
FAA Airport Reference Codes A-II and B-II Allowable Crosswind
13 kn (15 mi/h)
73
FAA Airport Reference Codes A-III, B-III, C-1, C-II, C-III, and C-IV, Allowable Crosswind
16 kn((18.5 mi/h)
74
FAA Airport Reference Codes A-IV through D-VI.Allowable Crosswind
20 knots (23 mph)
75
ICAO for runway lengths of 1500 m more
20 kn (23 mph)
76
ICAO for runway lengths between 1200 and 1500 m
13 kn (15 mi/h)
77
ICAO for runway lengths less than 1200 m
10 kn (11.5 mi/h)
78
direction of runways conditions: The entire wind coverage regardless of _____ or _____
visibility; cloud ceiling
79
direction of runways conditions: Wind conditions when the ceiling is at least _____ and the visibility is at least _____
1000 ft; 3 mi
80
"direction of runways conditions: Wind conditions when ceiling is between ______ and/or the visibility is between ______.
"
200 and 1000 ft½ and 3 mi
81
range of good visibility conditions not requiring the use of instruments for landing
Visual Meteorological Condition (VMC).
82
various degrees of poor visibility requiring the use of instruments for landing
Instrument Meteorological Conditions (IMC).
83
The appropriate orientation of the runway or runways at an airport can be determined through graphical vector analysis
wind rose
84
A standard wind rose consists of a series of ______ cut by radial lines using polar coordinate graph paper.
concentric circles
85
The template is placed over the wind rose in such a manner that the _____ on the template passes through the center of the wind rose.
centerline
86
By overlaying the template on the wind rose and rotating the centerline of the template through the origin of the wind rose one may determine the ____ a runway in the direction of the centerline of the template can be used such that the crosswind component does not exceed ____
percentage of time; 15 mi/h
87
It can be determined from this wind rose by the use of the template, typically made on a transparent strip of material.
Optimum runway directions
88
the template is rotated until the sum of the percentages included between the outer lines is a _____.
maximum
89
____ and ____ the length of a runway is critical to whether or not a particular aircraft can safely use the runway for takeoff or landing
planning; designing
90
Advisory Circular 150/5325-4b
Runway Length Requirements for Airport Design
91
In this publication, procedures are defined for estimating the design runway length of aircraft, based on their maximum takeoff weights (MTOW), certain aircraft performance specifications, and the airport's field elevation and temperature.
Advisory Circular 150/5325-4b
92
The FAA's procedure for estimating runway length is based on the following data:
"Designation of a critical aircraft
The maximum takeoff weight of the critical aircraft at the airport
The airport elevation
The mean daily maximum temperature for the hottest month at the airport
The maximum different in elevation along the runway centerline."
93
For small aircraft, design runway length is based on the aircraft's _______.
`
Reference approach speed, Vref
94
Aircraft with Vref < 30 kn are considered _______ aircraft.
Short Takeoff and Landing (STOL)
95
Runway length for small aircrafts
"Vref < 30 kn (STOL) = 300 ft (92 m)
30 ≤ Vref < 50 kn = 800 ft (244 m)
Vref ≥ 50 kn based on no. of passenger seat
"
96
For the design aircraft, a _______ of either 60 or 90 percent is selected.
Useful Load
97
The _______ at an airport consists of the structural pavement, the shoulders, the blast pad, the runway safety area, various obstruction-free surfaces, and the runway protection zone.
Runway system
98
The _______ supports the aircraft with respect to structural load, maneuverability, control, stability, and other operational and dimensional criteria.
Runway structural pavement
99
The _______ adjacent to the edges of the structural pavement resists jet blast erosion and accommodates maintenance and emergency equipment.
Shoulder
100
Is an area designed to prevent erosion of the surfaces adjacent to the ends of runways due to jet blast or propeller wash.
Blast pad
101
Is an area surrounding the runway prepared or suitable for reducing the risk of damage to aircraft in the event of an undershoot, overshoot, or excursion from the runway. Includes the structural pavement, shoulders, blast pad, and stopway, if provided.
Runway safety area
102
defined by the FAA as a two-dimensional ground area surrounding the runway which must be clear of parked aircraft and objects other than those whose location is fixed by function
runway object free area (OFA)
103
a defined volume of airspace above the runway which supports the transition between ground and airborne operations
runway obstacle-free zone (OFZ)
104
the airspace above a surface whose elevation is the same as that of the neatest point on the runway centerline and extending 200 ft beyond each end of the runway
runway obstacle-free zone (OFZ)
105
width of inner approach obstacle-free zone
same as OFZ: extending 200 ft beyond each end of the runway.
106
zone that applies only to runways with approach lighting systems
inner approach obstacle-free zone
107
slope of inner approach obstacle-free zone
"upward at the rate of 50 horizontal to 1 vertical
50:1"
108
an area on the ground used to enhance the protection of people and objects near the runway approach
runway protection zone (rpz)
109
zone that applies only to preciision instrument runway, defined as the volume of airspace along the sides of the runway and the inner approach obstacle-free zone
inner transitional obstacle-free zone
110
surface slopes of inner transitional obstacle-free zone from the edge of runway obstacle-free zone and the inner approach obstacle-free zone until it reaches 150 ft above the established airport elevation
3:1
111
FAA requirement for sight distance on individual runways
"runway profile permit any two points
5 ft above the runway centerline"
112
it is recommended that a __ transverse slope be provided for the first ___ of shoulder adjacent to a pavement edge
5%, 10 ft
113
the specification for transverse slope is to ensure ____
proper drainage
114
required by the FAA at the end of runways
protection zones
115
area on the ground beneath the approach surface to a runway from the end of the primary surface to the point where approach surface is 50ft above the primary surface
protection zones
116
TERPS
terminal instrument approach procedures
117
where is TERPS defined
FAA 8260.3b
118
primary basis of TERPS
"-performance characteristics of a/c
-instrument navigational aids present or around an airport
-currently existing object surrounding the airport"
119
TERPS defines ___
required obstacle clearance (roc) value
120
compilation of criteria used to design published standard procedures for a/c using instrument based navigation to depart and approach to airport facilities
TERPS: terminal instrument approach procedures
121
ROC value
required obstacle clearance (roc) value
122
ROC value within the airport environment
as low as 250 ft above the highest object near the runway
123
ROC values for a published procedure define ___
TERPS obstacle clearance surface (OCS)
124
typical slope for obstacle clearance surfaces from aircraft on approach
318 ft/nmi
125
typical slope for obstacle clearance surfaces for departures
200 ft/nmi
126
TERPS prcedure consists of
"series of segments:
-climb
-en route
-initial approach
-intemediate approach
-final approach
-missed approach segments"
127
these are defined paths on the airfield surface which are established for the taxiing of aircraft and are intended to provide a linkage between one part of the airfield and another
Taxiways
128
it refers to two taxiways parallel to each other on which airplanes can taxi in opposite directions
dual parallel taxiways
129
a taxiway located usually on the periphery of an apron intended to provide a through taxi route across the apron
apron taxiway
130
a portion of the aircraft parking area used for access between the taxiways and the aircraft parking positions
taxilane
131
ICAO defines an __________ as a portion of the apron intended to provide access to the aircraft stands only
aircraft stand taxilane
132
In order to provide a margin of safety in the airport operating areas, the trafficways must be ______ sufficiently from each other and from adjacent obstructions
separated
133
speeds of aircraft on taxiways are considerably ____ than on runways
less
134
lower speeds permit the width of the taxiway to be ____ than that of the runway
less
135
The separation criteria adopted by the FAA are predicated upon the _____ of the aircraft for which the taxiway and taxilane system have been designed and provide a minimum _______ clearance on these facilities
wingtips; wingtip
136
The required separation between taxiways, between a taxiway and a taxilane, or between a taxiway and a fixed or movable object requires a minimum wingtip clearance of _______ of the most demanding aircraft in the airplane design group plus ___.
0.2 times the wingspan; 10 ft
137
The clearance between a taxiway centerline and a fixed or movable object is __ times the wingspan of the most demanding aircraft plus 10 ft
0.7
138
It is recommended that a separation of at least ________ of the most demanding aircraft be provided to accommodate a ___ turn when the pavement width is designed for tracking the nose wheel on the centerline.
2.6 times the wheelbase; 180°
139
The required separation between taxiways or between a taxiway and a taxilane requires a minimum wingtip clearance, C1, of ___ for aerodrome code letter A and B runways, ___ for aerodrome code letter C runways, and ___ for aerodrome code letter D and E runways
3 m; 4.5 m; 7.5 m
140
As in the case of runways, the number of changes in longitudinal profile for taxiways is limited by sight distance and minimum distance between ________.
vertical curves
141
the sight distance along a runway from an intersecting taxiway needs to be _____ to allow a taxiing aircraft to enter or cross the runway safely
sufficient
142
The FAA specifies that from any point on the taxiway centerline the difference in elevation between that point and the corresponding point on a parallel runway, taxiway, or apron edge is ____of the shortest distance between the points
1.5 percent
143
The FAA specifies that the minimum distance for both utility and transport category airports should be not less than the product of ____ multiplied by the sum of the absolute percentage values of change in slope
100 ft
144
its function is to minimize runway occupancy by landing aircraft
exit taxiways, or runway turnoffs
145
When the angle is on the order of 30°, the term _____ is often used to denote that it is designed for higher speeds than other exit taxiway configurations
high-speed exit
146
The location of exit taxiways depends on
mix of aircraft, the approach and touchdown speeds, the point of touchdown, the exit speed, the rate of deceleration, condition of the pavement surface, and the number of exits.
147
The FAA has allowed for the design of taxiways that traverse beyond runway thresholds. These taxiways, known as______, are designed to both reduce the risk of runway incursions and increase the overall efficiency operations on the airfield
end-around taxiways
148
End-around taxiways must remain outside of the runway safety area, and outside of any ____
ILS critical areas
149
the tail height of the critical design aircraft at the airport must not exceed any critical _______, when on the end-around taxiway
Part 77 or TERPS surfaces
150
the location of the end-around taxiway should provide for any aircraft departing on the runway to clear any object on the taxiway by at least _______________ from the runway centerline.
35 ft vertically and 200 ft horizontally
151
runways and taxiways must be located and oriented so that a clear line of sight is maintained to all traffic patterns, the final approaches to all runways, all runway structural pavements, all apron taxiways, and other operational surfaces controlled by the
air traffic control tower
152
Operational surfaces not having a clear unobstructed line of sight from the tower are designated as
uncontrolled or nonmovement areas
153
A typical air traffic control tower site requires
between 1 and 4 acres of land.
