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Aircraft Dispatch > AIM > Flashcards

AIM Flashcards

1
Q

Dispatcher must be vigilant of any NOTAMs regarding _____ navigational aids.

A

Inoperative

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2
Q

What is an NBD?

A

Non-directional beacon, non-precision approach aid, normally usable < 18,000’

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3
Q

What are some characteristics of the VHF Omni-Directional Range (VOR)?

A

360 usable radials, non-precision approach aid

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4
Q

What is a VORTAC?

A

A VOR combined with a TACAN (Tactical Air Navigation). Behaves in the same was as a VOR

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5
Q

What is DME?

A

Distance measuring equipment. It allows the pilot to determine position. Can be collocated with VORs, ILSs, or LOCs

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6
Q

What is an ILS?

A

Instrument Landing System. Provides exact alignment and decent information for an aircraft on final approach to a runway

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7
Q

What is a Straight-In (S-IN) Landing?

A

A landing made on a runway aligned within 30º of the final approach course following an instrument approach.

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8
Q

What is a Circling Maneuver?

A

A maneuver to align the aircraft with a landing runway when a S-IN landing is neighter possible nor desirable

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9
Q

What is a Precision Approach Procedure?

A

An instrument approach which utilizes an electronic glide scope.

Ex: ILS, ILS/DME, and PAR

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10
Q

True or False:
Non-Precision Approach Procedures use electronic glidepaths

A

False

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11
Q

Define Touchdown Zone (TDZ)

A

The first 3,000’ beyond the threshold

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12
Q

Define touchdown zone elevation (TDZE)

A

The highest elevation within the touchdown zone

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13
Q

What is Decision Altitude (DA)?

A

The MSL altitude in the precision approach at which a missed approach much be initiated if required visual reference has not been established.

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14
Q

What is Decision Height (DH)?

A

Height of the decision altitude above the ground (TDZE or threshold).

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15
Q

What information does a Localizer provide?

A

Azimuth (direcitonal) guidance

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16
Q

What information does the glidescope (GS)/glidepath (GP) provide?

A

Decent (vertical) guidance. Cannot operate without the LOC

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17
Q

What is Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA)?

A

The lowest authorized MSL altitude in the non-precision approach without visual reference established

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18
Q

What is Minimum Descent Height (MDH)?

A

Height of the MDA above ground (TDZE or threshold).

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19
Q

What does Height Above Touchdown apply to?

A

Applies to Straight-In minumums only

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20
Q

Define Height Above Airport

A

Height of the MDA above airport elevation. Used in conjunction with circling minimums only

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21
Q

What does the acronym WAAS stand for?

A

Wide Area Augmentation System. An enhancement to GPS systems

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22
Q

Define waypoint

A

Predetermined geographical position defined in latitude/longitude coordinates

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23
Q

Describe RNAV

A

Area Navigation - Reduces dependence on radar vectoring, altitude, and speed assignments. More efficient use of airspace

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24
Q

What is a Fly-By Waypoint?

A

A waypoint where the pilot should begin a turn PRIOR to reaching the waypoint

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25
Q

What is a Fly-Over Waypoint?

A

A waypoint where the aircraft must FLY OVER the point before starting a turn

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26
Q

What does the acronym ALS stand for? What is the importance?

A

Approach Light Systems.

The system makes the runway environment more apparent in low visibility conditions and assists with alignment guidance with the runway. Landing minimums change when the light system is inoperable.

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27
Q

What is SFL?

A

Sequenced flashing lights

loss may affect the landing minimums

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28
Q

What does RAIL stand for?

A

Runway Alignment Indicator Lights

loss may affect landing minimums

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29
Q

ALSF-II

A

Approach lighting system with sequenced flashing lights, category II configuration

loss may affect landing minimums

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30
Q

ALSF-I

A

Approach lighting system with sequenced flashing lights, category I configuration

loss may affect landing minimums

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31
Q

MALSR

A

Medium intensity approach lighting system with runway alignment indicator lights

loss may affect landing minimums

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32
Q

What are VASI lights?

A

Visual Approach Slope Indicator lights.

Rows of lights on the side of the runway that provide a visual reference for descent

No effect on instrument landing minimums

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33
Q

What are PAPI lights?

A

Precision Approach Path Indicator lights.

Similar to VASI lights, configued differently. Either red or white, adjacent to the side of the runway abeam the ideal touchdown point.

No effect on instrument landing minimums

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34
Q

What are REIL lights?

A

Runway End Identifier Lights.

Flashing white strobe lights on or near each side of the threshold

No effect on instrument landing minimums

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35
Q

What are HIRLs?

A

High Intensity Runway Lights

Outline the edge of the runway. RVR is based on these.

Loss may affect takeoff or landing minimums

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36
Q

Describe touchdown zone lights

A

In-runway lighting used to assist with landing in poor weather

Labeled as TDZL or TDZ

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37
Q

Describe Runway Centerline lights

A

In-runway lighting used to assist in poor weather.

Labeled as RCLS in NOTAMs or CL in Aeronautical Charts

Loss may affect takeoff minimums

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38
Q

Define threshold

A

Beginning of the runway that is available and suitable for landing

39
Q

Do runway centerline markings affect both takeoff and landing minimums?

A

No, only takeoff

40
Q

What is a displaced threshold?

A

A point on the runway other than the designated beginning of the runway.

Could be obstructions, pavement weakness, or noise abatement. Only affects landing and only in that direction (opposite end landing ok)

41
Q

What is a stopway?

A

An extension of the runway used to support and aircract during extended landing or aborted takeoff

42
Q

How is braking action reported?

A
  1. Good
  2. Good to medium
  3. Medium
  4. Medium to poor
  5. Poor
  6. Nil
43
Q

What are 5 examples of flow control?

A
  1. Gate holding (implemented when anticipated delays > 15 minutes)
  2. En route holding
  3. Rerouting traffic
  4. Designated one-way routes
  5. Cruise altitude/speed changes
44
Q

What’s the downside of ground stop programs?

A

No Excpected Departure Clearance Time (EDCT) issued, instead an “update time” given, making it difficult to plan for

45
Q

What is ASR?

A

Airport Surveillance Radar. Serves as expeditious means of handling terminal area traffic

46
Q

What is RVSM airspace?

A

Reduced Vertical Separation Minima. Opposite direction traffic is separated by 1,000’. In U.S. extends from FL290 to FL410

47
Q

What is an ACARS system?

A

Aircraft Communications Addressing and Reporting System.

Primarily used for company communications. Can also be used to request pre-departure clearance (PDC) from ATC

48
Q

What is CPDLC-DCL?

A

Controller Pilot Data Link Communication - Departure Clearance.

Allows instructions, requests, and position reports to be sent by text. Also commonly used in oceanic operations for position reports and/or amended clearances

49
Q

NAVAID/VOR high altitude range

A

≈ 130 NM

50
Q

NAVAID/VOR low altitude range

A

<18,000’ and/or ≈ 40 NM

51
Q

NAVAID/VOR terminal range

A

<12,000’ and/or ≈25 NM

52
Q

What do marker beacons provide?

A

Distance information
- Outer Marker (OM)
- Middle Marker (MM)
- Inner Marker (IM)

53
Q

What is a localizer back course (LOC BC)?

A

The approach to opposite end of runway. Uses same antenna as the localizer (LOC)

54
Q

What are the Category I ILS minimums?

A

-DH 200 ft
-RVR 2,400 ft

Can be made better with additional lighting, autopilot, flight director (FD), or heads up display (HUD)

55
Q

What are the Category II ILS minimums?

A

-DH 100 ft
-RVR 1,200 ft

56
Q

Under what conditions are Category II ILS minimums raised to DH 150 ft, RVR 1,200 ft

A

When there is a newly authorized pilot or when the airline is in their first year of CAT II operations

57
Q

Aircraft Approach Category

A

A grouping of aircraft based on 1.3 times the stall speed in the landing configuration (flaps and gear extended) at maximum gross landing weight

58
Q

Describe compulsory reporting points

A

Depicted as a solid triangle on aeronautical charts. When not in radar contact, must be used.

59
Q

The VOR and L/MF Airway system refers to what?

A

Victor (“V”) airways, low altitude, from 1,200 ft up to but NOT including 18,000 ft.

Depicted on En Route Low Altitude Charts

60
Q

Describe the jet route system

A

Routes established routes from 18,000’ MSL to FL450 inclusive. Depicted on En Route High Altitude Charts. Identified by a “J”

61
Q

What is a STAR?

A

Standard Terminal Arrival Procedure. Facilitates transition between en route and instrument approach procedures

62
Q

Describe an MSA

A

Minimum Safe/Sector Altitude. Published for emergency use on IAP charts. Provides 1,000 ft of clearance over all obstacles. 25 nm radius unless otherwise noted

63
Q

What is a procedure turn?

A

A 180º maneuver prescribed when necessary to reverse direction to establish the aircraft inbound on an intermediate or final approach course

64
Q

What is SOIA?

A

Simultaneous Offset Instrument Approach.

A procedure used to conduct simultaneous approaches to runways spaced less than 3,000 feet but at least 750 feet apart. Uses ILS approach on one runway, and LOC to/on another

65
Q

What do you do when converting RVR values that fall between listed values?

A

Use the next higher RVR value. DO NOT INTERPOLATE

66
Q

How can flow control be accomplished?

A
  1. Gate Holding
  2. En route holding
  3. Rerouting
  4. Designated one-way routes
  5. Cruise altitude/speed changes
67
Q

What is RVSM?

A

Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum.

Within RVSM airspace, opposite direction traffic will be separated by 1,000’. Enhances ATC flexibility and mitigates conflict.

68
Q

Domestic RVSM in the United States extends from _____ to _____.

A

FL290 to FL410

69
Q

What are the equipment requirements for an aircraft to enter RVSM airspace?

A
  1. Two independent altimeters
  2. One autopilot altitude hold system which may be coupled to either altimeter
  3. One autopilot altitude alert function
70
Q

What is RNP?

A

Required Navigation Performance Airspace

71
Q

What is RNAV 1?

A

Aircraft must maintain a total system error of not more than 1 NM for 95% of the total flight.

Typically used for DP’s and STARs

72
Q

What is RNAV 2?

A

Aircraft must maintain a total system error of not more than 2 NM for 95% of the total flight.

Typically used for en route operations

73
Q

What are the TWO categories of airspace?

A

Regulatory and nonregulatory

74
Q

What the FOUR types of airspace?

A
  1. Controlled
  2. Uncontrolled
  3. Special Use
  4. Other
75
Q

Describe Class A airspace

A

-IFR only
-18,000’ up to and including FL600
-Airspace overlying the waters within 12 nautical miles off the coast

76
Q

Describe Class B airspace

A

-Generally surface to 10,000’ MSL around the busiest airports
-ATC clearance required for all aircraft

77
Q

Describe Class C airspace

A

-Generally from the surface to 4,000’ AGL around busy airports that provide radar services.

78
Q

What is the purpose of a warning area?

A

To warn nonparticipating pilots of potential danger. Starts 3 NM off the coast and extends outward

79
Q

What is ADS-B?

A

Automatic Dependent Surveillance - Broadcast Capabilities and Procedures

Enables improved air-to-air and air-to-ground surveillance in areas where radar is ineffective

80
Q

What is a WSP?

A

Weather System Processor.

Enhances Airport Surveillance Radar. Provides warnings for hazardous wind shear and microbursts

81
Q

What is MU used for?

A

Used to designate friction value for runway surface conditions. Values range for 0-100 where 0 is the lowest value

82
Q

What is a transponder?

A

An airborne radar beacon transmitter-receiver automatically receives signals from the interrogator and replies with a specific code

83
Q

What is a Charted Visual Flight Procedure?

A

Charts for visual approaches that are extablished for safety and noise considerations. Depict landmarks, courses, and recommended altitudes to specific runway

84
Q

What does the acronym ADIZ mean?

A

Air Defense Identification Zone

85
Q

What is fuel dumping and what is it used for?

A

Airborne release of fuel.

Used to reduce aircraft weight to within safe landing limits

86
Q

What is a “Minimum Fuel Advisory”?

A

The flight cannot accept any undue delay. It is NOT emergent.

87
Q

What is an EWINS?

A

Enhanced Weather Information System.

System for tracking, evaluating, reporting, and forecasting the presence or lack of adverse weather.

Produces flight movement forecasts. CAN OVERRIDE other forecasts

88
Q

What is TDWR?

A

Terminal Doppler Weather Radar.

Advises of wind shear and microbursts events impacting all runways

89
Q

What are the standard IFR alternate minimums for a localizer approach?

A

C= 800’ V= 2SM

90
Q

What are the standard IFR alternate minimums for an ILS approach?

A

C= 600’ V= 2SM

91
Q

CAT I ILS minimums

A

DH(HAT)= 200’ RVR= 2,400’

92
Q

CAT II ILS minimums

A

DH(HAT)= 100’ RVR= 1,200’

93
Q

What is a circling maneuver?

A

A maneuver to align the aircraft

Aircraft Dispatch (8 decks)

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