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Aircraft Dispatch > Regulations > Flashcards

Regulations Flashcards

1
Q

What is the definition of a high minimum captain?

A

A pilot in command with less than 100 hours served as PIC in THAT TYPE of aircraft

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2
Q

What minimums are affected when a high minimum captain is flying?

A

Landing. Visibility is increased by 1/2 SM, and HAT is increased by 100’

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3
Q

When may a flight DEPART IFR?

A

When the reported weather at the departure airport is at or above takeoff minimums

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4
Q

When is a takeoff alternate required?

A

When REPORTED weather at departure airport is below landing minimums at departure airport

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5
Q

What are the distance limitations for a takeoff alternate when operating a twin-engine?

A

Not more than ONE hour, based on NORMAL CRUISE, STILL AIR, with one engine inoperative

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6
Q

When may a flight be DISPATCHED IFR?

A

When indicated weather at the destination airport, at the ETA, is at or above landing minimums.

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7
Q

When is an alternate for the destination required?

A

When weather indicated at the destination, at the ETA, +/- 1 HR, is less than C< 2,000’ and/or V< 3sm

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8
Q

When is an alternate for the destination NOT required for a flag flight?

A
  1. ETE ≤ 6 HR

AND WX indicated at the destination at the ETA +/- 1 HR shows

  1. C ≥ 1,500’ above lowest HAT or 2,000’, whichever is greater
    AND
  2. V ≥ 3sm or 2sm above the lowest landing min., whichever is greater
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9
Q

Where does a pilot of a 2 engine aircraft go if one engine is lost?

A

Nearest suitable airport, in point of time, at which a safe landing can be made

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10
Q

Where does a pilot of a 3 engine aircraft go if one engine is lost?

A

Any airport the PIC chooses, as long as it is as safe as landing at nearest suitable airport in point of time.

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11
Q

What are the required fuels for a DOMESTIC flight with two required alternates?

A
  1. Fuel to airport dispatched
  2. Fuel to fly to and land at most distant alternate
  3. 45 min at normal cruise fuel consumption
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12
Q

What are the required fuels for a FLAG flight with NO required alternate?

A
  1. Fuel to airport dispatched
  2. Contingency (10% of ETE between departure airport and airport dispatched)
  3. 30 min, AT HOLDING SPEED, 1,500’ above the airport, in ISA
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13
Q

What are the required fuels for a FLAG with NO AUTHORIZED alternate?

A
  1. Fuel to airport dispatched
  2. 2 HRS at normal cruise fuel consumption
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14
Q

List the four types of airspeeds (ICE-T)

A
  1. Indicated airspeed (IAS)
  2. Calibrated airspeed (CAS)
  3. Equivalent airspeed (EAS)
  4. True airspeed (TAS)
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14
Q

What are the two classes of aircraft?

A

Heavy = takeoff clearance limit > 300,000lbs

Large = takeoff clearance limit > 12,500lbs

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15
Q

Define ‘indicated airspeed’

A

Airspeed read directly from the airspeed indicator

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16
Q

Define ‘calibrated airspeed’

A

Indicated airspeed corrected for instrument and position error

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17
Q

Define ‘equivalent airspeed’

A

Calibrated airspeed corrected for compressibility

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18
Q

Define ‘true airspeed’

A

Equivalent airspeed corrected for non-standard temperature and pressure

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19
Q

What are the responsibilities (6) of an aircraft dispatcher?

A
  1. Preflight planning
  2. Sign dispatch release
  3. Cancel or delay flight
  4. Monitor flight progress
  5. Issue significant info to PIC
  6. Redispatch or amendments
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20
Q

What responsibilities are shared between the dispatcher and PIC?

A
  1. Preflight planning
  2. Signing dispatch release
  3. Canceling or delaying the flight
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21
Q

What items (8) are required to be in or attached to a dispatch release?

A
  1. Aircraft registration number
  2. Flight number
  3. All airports
  4. Type of registration (IFR)
  5. Minimum fuel
  6. 2 signatures
  7. All weather
  8. ETOPS duration
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22
Q

Define ‘alternate airport’

A

An airport at which an aircraft may land if landing at the intended airport becomes inadvisable

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23
Q

Define ‘night’

A

The time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight, converted to local time

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24
Q

Define ‘operational control’

A

The exercise of authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight.

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25
Q

Define ‘wet lease’

A

Any leasing agreement where a person agrees to provide an entire aircraft and at least one crewmember

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26
Q

What are the two GROUPS of aircraft?

A

Group I- Propeller-driven
Group II- Turbojet powered

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27
Q

What does ‘CDL’ refer to?

A

Configuaration Deviation List.

Items that may be missing during operations. May require weight/fuel adjustments

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28
Q

Define ‘fatal injury’

A

Any injury which results in death within 30 days of the accident

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29
Q

What is the title of Part I?

A

Definitions and Abbreviations

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30
Q

Define ‘crew member’

A

A person assigned to perform duty in an aircraft during flight time

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31
Q

Define ‘extended over-water operations’

A

An operation over water at a horizontal distance of more than 50 NM from the nearest shoreline

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32
Q

Define ‘mach number’

A

The ration of true airspeed to the speed of sound

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33
Q

At a refueling airport, payload may not be _____ or _____.

A

Added or removed

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34
Q

What is the title of Part 91?

A

General operating and flight rules

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35
Q

No person may operate an aircraft below 10,000’ MSL at _____ airspeed more than _____ knots.

A

Indicated airspeed, 250 knots

36
Q

The standard IFR alternate minimums for a precision approach are _____

A

C= 600’ and V= 2SM

37
Q

The standard IFR alternate minimums for a non-precision approach are _____

A

C= 800’ and V= 2SM

38
Q

What is the standard IFR takeoff minimum for aircraft having 2 engines or less?

A

V= 1SM

39
Q

What is the standard IFR takeoff minimum for aircraft having more than 2 engines?

A

V= 1/2SM

40
Q

What is the title of FAR PART 110?

A

General requirements

41
Q

Define ‘provisional airport’

A

An airport providing service to a community when the regular airport used by the certificate holder is not available

42
Q

What is the title of Part 119?

A

Certification: Air Carriers and Commercial Operators

43
Q

True or False?
Except for OPSECS paragraphs identifying authorized kinds of operations, OPSECS are not part of an Air Carrier’s certificate

A

True

44
Q

What are 6 things found in OPSPECS?

A
  1. Authorized aircraft and airports
  2. Authorized operations
  3. Authorization and limitations for routes and areas of operations
  4. Airport limitations
  5. Aircraft wet lease info
  6. Any authorized deviation and exemption granted
45
Q

The North Polar area means any area north of _____

A

78ºN latitude

46
Q

What 6 things may the FDR record?

A
  1. Altitude
  2. Airspeed
  3. Flap position
  4. Throttle position
  5. Thrust
  6. Time
47
Q

What is ‘initial training’?

A

Training required for crew members and dispatchers who have NOT QUALIFIED and served in the same capacity on another airplane of the same group

48
Q

Define ‘transition training’

A

The training required for crew members and dispatchers who HAVE QUALIFIED and served in the same capacity on another airplane of the SAME GROUP

49
Q

Recurrent training is required every _____ and will include at least _____, _____, and a _____.

A

12 calendar months.

Quiz, instruction, and a competence check

50
Q

Flight deck observation for aircraft dispatchers for flag or domestic carriers must be _____ hours every 12 calendar months in one of the types of airplanes in _____ to be dispatched.

A

5 hours

Each group

51
Q

Redispatch involves changing the _____ of the original dispatch release while _____.

A

Destination

The flight is en route

52
Q

The person declaring the emergency shall send a _____ through the certificate holder operations manager to FAA within _____ days.

A

written report

10 days

53
Q

List 5 things that make an airport “suitable” for diversion purposes

A
  1. Authorization
  2. Airplane limitations
  3. Airport conditions/NOTAMS
  4. Type of terrain
  5. Fuel required
54
Q

What is the title of Part 121 Subpart U?

A

Dispatching and flight rules

55
Q

A redispatch is required if ground time exceeds _____ hour prior to a domestic flight

A

1 HR

56
Q

A redispatch is required if ground time exceeds _____ hours prior to a flag flight

A

6 HRS

57
Q

What minimums apply to the alternate AFTER the decision is made to divert?

A

Landing minimums

58
Q

When taking off from an unlisted airport, use _____ minimums first

A

Prescribed

59
Q

If no prescribed minimums are available for an unlisted airport, what should you use? (sliding minimums)

A

C= 800’ and V= 2sm OR
C= 900’ and V= 1 1/2sm OR
C= 1000’ and V= 1sm

60
Q

Landing minimums for a high minimum captain increase at _____ airports, _____ airports, and _____ airports.

A

Regular, provisional, and refueling

61
Q

The PIC must carry what documents to the destination?

A
  1. Flight plan copy
  2. Dispatch release copy
  3. Load manifest copy
62
Q

What/who is the AOSC?

A

Aircraft operator security coordinator.

Serves as the aircraft operator’s primary contact for security related activities

63
Q

The TSA may issue a(n) _____ to notify aircraft operators of security concerns

A

Information circular

64
Q

When additional security measures are necessary, the TSA will issue a _____ setting forth mandatory measures

A

Security directive

65
Q

The NTSB 830 contains information on reporting _____ and _____.

A

Aircraft accidents and incidents

66
Q

What is ETOPS?

A

Extended operations. Portion of the flight is conducted beyond a time threshold identified.

60 minutes for Part 121
180 minutes for Part 135

67
Q

According to Part 65, aircraft dispatchers must have an _____ in his or her possession

A

Aircraft dispatcher certificate

68
Q

Where can flight and duty limitation requirements be found?

A

Part 117

69
Q

A flight recorder is required in what type of aircraft?

A
  • Large planes certificated for operations above 25,000
  • Turbine-engine powered airplanes
70
Q

Cockpit voice recorders are required for what type of aircraft?

A
  • Large turbine-engine airplanes
  • Large pressurized airplanes with 4 reciprocating engines
71
Q

What makes an airport suitable for diversion?

A
  1. Authorization
  2. Nature of malfunction
  3. Airplane limitations
  4. Usable fuel
  5. NOTAMS
72
Q

What is the title of Part 121 Subpart U?

A

Dispatching and Flight Rules

73
Q

Describe MEL

A

Minimum equiment list

Allows operation with certain items inoperable

74
Q

Describe CDL

A

Configuration Deviation List

Allows operation with certain items missing. Will usually have weight limitations and/or extra fuel required

75
Q

Normal cruise fuel consumption is _____

A

FFavg = 9,000lbs/hr

76
Q

The dispatcher may _____ to sign a release for a particular flight

A

Delegate authority to sign a release

77
Q

The AOSC, or an alternate, must be available _____

A

on a 24-hour basis

78
Q

What is the title of Part 117?

A

Flight and Duty Limitations and Rest Requirements

79
Q

Define ‘acclimated’

A

A flight crewmember has been in a theater for 72 hours

80
Q

Define ‘augmented flightcrew’

A

Crew with more than the minimum number of flightcrew members required

81
Q

Define ‘Rest facility’

A

A bunk or seat accommodation installed in an aircraft that provides a flightcrew member with a sleep opportunity

82
Q

No certificate holder may schedule and no flightcrew member may accept an assignment if the flightcrew member’s total flight duty period will exceed ______

A

60 flight duty period hours in any 168 consecutive hours

83
Q

What is a General Operating Manual (GOM)?

A

Broad resource for a variety of airline procedures. Covers generally how the air carrier is to operate

84
Q

What is EWINS

A

Enhanced weather information systems. Allows certificate holder to re-evaluate weather in real time and issue new forecasts

85
Q

How is situational awareness defined?

A

Awareness of the operational environment and the anticipaton of contingencies

86
Q

How is human factors defined?

A

A multidisciplinary field devoted to optimizing human performance and reducing human error

87
Q

What are the three key components to aeronautical decision-making?

A

Inquiry, advocacy, and assertion

Aircraft Dispatch (8 decks)

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