Airlaw Flashcards by Nicolai Thomsen

1: Where is the headquarters of ICAO?

A New York

B Montreal

C London

D Paris

B Montreal

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2: Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains minimum for a crew license to have international validity?

A Annex 4,

B Annex 2.

C Annex 1.

D Annex 3

C Annex 1.

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5: Which ICAO annex is dedicated to facilitate the passage of passengers at the aerodromes?

A Annex 9.

B Annex 2.

C Annex 8.

D Annex 3.

A Annex 9.

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6: A detailed description of the visual ground aids can be found in ICAO:

A Annex 14

B Annex 12

C Annex 3

D Annex 9

A Annex 14

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7: Annex 14 to the Convention on International civil aviation contains SARPS for:

A security.

B aerodromes.

C facilitation.

D non of the above.

B aerodromes.

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8: Which of the following ICAO documents contain International Standards and Recommended Practices (SARPS)

A Procedures for Air Navigation Services (PANS).

B Annexes to the Convention on International civil aviation.

C ICAO Technical Manuals.

D Regional Supplementary Procedures (SUPPS).

B Annexes to the Convention on International civil aviation.

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9: The ICAO Annex dealing with the registration and marking of aircraft is:

A Annex 6.

B Annex 11.

C Annex 14.

D Annex 7.

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10: According to the Chicago Convention, aircraft of Contracting States shall have the right to make flights into or in transit non stop across the territory of other contracting States and to make stops for non-traffic purposes without the necessity of obtaining prior permission. This applies to the following flights:

A to aircraft of scheduled air services only.

B to aircraft engaged in commercial non-scheduled flights only.

C to aircraft on non-commercial flights only.

D to aircraft not engaged in scheduled international air services.

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11: Which Freedom of the Air will be exercised by an airline planning a flight that will require a technical stop in neighbouring State?

A 2nd freedom of the air.

B 3nd freedom of the air.

C 1st freedom of the air.

D 4th freedom of the air.

A 2nd freedom of the air.

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12: If a state finds that it is impracticable to comply with an International Standard:

A it shall give immediate notice to ICAO of the differences between its own practices and the International Standard.

B it shall give 45 days notice to ICAO of the differences between its own practices and the International Standard.

C it shall give 60 days notice to ICAO of the differences between ist own practices and the International Standard.

D it shall give 90 days notice to ICAO of the differences between its own practices and the International Standard

A it shall give immediate notice to ICAO of the differences between its own practices and the International Standard.

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14: Concerning the Chicago Convention of 1944:

A each State has total sovereignty over the airspace above its territory.

B each State was required to recognize the other States attending.

C only 52 nations were permitted to attend.

D all States in the world attended.

A each State has total sovereignty over the airspace above its territory.

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15: The president of the ICAO Council is elected for:

A 1 year.

B 3 years.

C 5 years.

D 10 years.

B 3 years.

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16: Which international organisation was founded with the Chicago Agreement?

A AOPA

B JAA

C ICAO

D IATA

C ICAO

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17:International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) establishes:

A standards and recommended international practices for contracting member States.

B standards and recommended practices applied without exception by all States, signatory to the Chicago convention.

C aeronautical standards adopted by all States.

D proposals for aeronautical regulations in the form of 18 annexes.

A standards and recommended international practices for contracting member States.

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18: According to Article 73 of the German Basic Law, the legislative right concerning aviation is:

A jointly possessed by the Federal Government and the Länder

B exclusively possessed by the Deutsche Flugsicherung GmbH (DFS)

C exclusively possessed by the Federal Government

D. exclusively possessed by the aeronautical authorities of the Länder

C exclusively possessed by the Federal Government

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20: 5th Freedom of the Air:

A the right to carry revenue traffic from treaty partner’s territory (B) to carrier’s base nation (A).

B the right to carry revenue traffic between any points of landing on flights between 3 or more treaty partner nations (B to C to D).

C revenue traffic flown between two nations (C to A) by carrier of a third nation (B).

D the right to carry revenue traffic between two points within a treay nation (B) by the carrier of another nation (A).

B the right to carry revenue traffic between any points of landing on flights between 3 or more treaty partner nations (B to C to D).

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21: Regarding air operations what is the role of the national aviation authorities in relation to EASA?

A EASA is the regulatory authority whereas national aviation authorities can implement or reject the rules on air operations.

B EASA proposes recommendations about safety in aviation to national aviation authorities which thereupon implement thier own rules.

C EASA proposes rules and regulations to the national aviation authorities, which they can implement or reject.

D EASA proposes implementing rules and regulations and the national aviation act as competent authorities.

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22: In which area of Air Traffic Control in Europe does Eurocontrol have a logical and operationally essential role to play?

A National airspace management within in Europe.

B Regulation of civil aviation in Europe.

C Regional air naviagtion planning in Europe.

D Air Traffic Flow Management in Europe.

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23: What is the main role of EASA in European civil aviation?

A EASA provides legislative proposals to NAAs and promotes the highest common standards of safety and environmental protection in civil aviation.

B EASA provides legislative proposals to NAAs only, without any obligation of implementation.

C EASA provides legislative proposals to the European Commission for implementation and promotes the highest common standards of safety and environmental protection in civil aviation.

D EASA provides legislative proposals to CAAs only, without any obligation of implemenatation.

C EASA provides legislative proposals to the European Commission for implementation and promotes the highest common standards of safety and environmental protection in civil aviation.

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24: What is the mission statement of EASA?

A EASA suggest new rules to National Aviation Authorities, which these authorities are free to implement if they see fit.

B EASA suggests the implementation of rules to the European Commission, and promotes the highest common standards of civil aviation safety and environmental protection in Europe and worldwide.

C EASA produces guidlines for National Aviation Authorities, and promotes the highest common standards of civil aviation safety and environmental protection in Europe and worldwide.

D EASA produces rules and regulations, and promotes the highest common standards of civil aviation safety and environmenal protection in Europe and worldwide.

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26: What is the mission statement of IATA?

A IATA’s mission is to represent, lead and serve the airline industry. IATA seeks to improve understanding of the industry among decision makers and increase awareness of the benefits that aviation brings to national and global economies. It fights for the interests of airlines across the globe, challenging unreasonable rules and charges, holding regulators and goverments to account, and striving for sensible regulation.

B IATA produces rules and regulations, and promotes the highest common standards of civil aviation safety and environmental protection in Europe and worldwide.

C IATA’s mission is to serve as the global forum of States for international civil aviation. IATA develops policies and Standards, undertakes compliance audits, performs studies and analyses, provides asstistance and builds aviation capacity through many other activities and the cooperation of ist Member States and stakeholders.

D IATA procedures rules and regulations, and promotes the highest common standards of civil aviation safety and environmental protection in Asia and worldwide. It is a counterpart of EASA for countries in Asia.

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28: The ICAO Annex dealing with the safe transport of dangerous goods by air is:

A Annex 15.

B Annex 16.

C Annex 17.

D Annex 18.

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29: The privilege for an aeroplane registered in one State and enroute to or from that State, to take on passengers, mail and cargo in a second State and put them down in a third State is called:

A 3rd Freedom of the air.

B 4th Freedom of the air.

C 5th Freedom of the air.

D 1st Freedom of the air.

C 5th Freedom of the air.

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30: Which is the permanent body of ICAO being responsible to the Assembly?

A The Secretary General of ICAO.

B The President of the Assembly.

C The Council.

D The Air Navigation Commission.

C The Council.

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31: Which freedom gives the privilege to land for non-traffic purposes in another ICAO contracting state? A 3rd freedom of the air B 4th freedom of the air C 1st freedom of the air D 2nd freedom of the air

D 2nd freedom of the air

32: The right to land in another state for technical purpose such as refueling or maintenance is the freedome of the air. A 4th B 2nd C 1st D 3rd

B 2nd

34: The Second Freedom of the Air is the right to: A land for a technical stop. B operate acommercial passenger flight with passengers on board between two states. C "cabotage" traffic, (Trans-border traffic). D overfly without landing.

A land for a technical stop.

35: The First Freedom of the Air is: A the right to board passengers from the State where the aircraft is registered and to fly to another State. B the right to overfly without landing C the right to land for a technical stop. D the opportunity to operate a commercial flight with passengers on board bewtween two States.

B the right to overfly without landing

37: What does the International Air Transport Agreement provide for? A Free and unhindered transit of aeroplanes over the high seas. B The freedom for aeroplanes to fly over the territority of any other State without landing. C. The carriage of traffic between the state of registration of the aircraft and any other participating state. D The freedom for aeroplanes of one State to land in the territory of another State for the purpose of refuelling

C. The carriage of traffic between the state of registration of the aircraft and any other participating state.

39: The objectives of ICAO were ratified by the: A Warsaw Convention 1929. B Montreal Convention 1948. C Geneva Convention 1936. D Chicago Convention 1944.

D Chicago Convention 1944.

40: The Air Navigation Commission consists of: A 33 members appointed by the ICAO Council. B 19 members appointed by the ICAO Council. C 19 members appointed by the ICAO Assembly. D 33 members appointed by the ICAO Assembly.

B 19 members appointed by the ICAO Council.

43: The aviation supervision may prohibit a pilot to depart from an airfield: A in order to protect against dangers and for ensuring air traffic safety B in order to maintain flight discipline on the airfield C because the destination airfield may only be approached after prior permission (PPR) D for separating the aircraft approaching the airfield

A in order to protect against dangers and for ensuring air traffic safety

45: Standards and Recommended Practices for Security are contained in ICAO Annex: A 17 B 15 C 12 D 8

A 17

48: The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of persons and their baggage international flights is: A annex 9 B annex 6 C annex 8 D annex 15

A annex 9

49: The "Standards" contained in the Annexes to the Chicago convention are to be considered: A binding for all member States B advice and guidance for the aviation legsiation within the member States C binding for all airline companies with international traffic D binding for the member States that have not notified ICAO about a national difference

D binding for the member States that have not notified ICAO about a national difference

51: Annex 17 to the Convention of Chicago covers: A Security B Operation of aircraft C Facilitations D Aerodromes

A Security

52: The International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) was established by the convention of: A Warsaw B Montreal C Hague D Chicago

D Chicago

55: Which of the following Annexes to Chicago convention contains minimum specifications for the design of aerodromes? A Annex 11 B Annex 6 C Annex 14 D Annex 10

C Annex 14

56: Who issues the certificate of airworthiness? A State of registry B State of design C ICAO D Operator

A State of registry

57: Which state shall ensure there exists a continuing integrity program to ensure the airworthiness of aeroplanes above 5700 kg? A State of registry B State of design C State of the operator D. The state of registry or the state of the operator

B State of design

58: When is an Airworthiness Certificate required to be on board an aircraft? A For any flight operation B For international flights C For any flight with passengers D Only for flights that land in an airport different from the departure airport

A For any flight operation

60: The Standards of Airworthiness, detailed in Annex 8 part III are applicable to: A aeroplanes over 5700 kg Maximum Certified Take-off Mass, intended for the carriage of passengers, cargo or mail in international air navigation B aeroplanes of over 5700 kg Maximum Certified Take-off Mass, intended for the carriage of passengers only C aeroplanes over 5700 kg Maximum Certified Take-off Mass, intended for the carriage of cargo or mail in international air navigation D aeroplanes over 25 700 kg Maximum Certified Take-off Mass, intended for the carriage of passengers, cargo or mail in international air navigation

A aeroplanes over 5700 kg Maximum Certified Take-off Mass, intended for the carriage of passengers, cargo or mail in international air navigation

62: What is the definition of the State of Registry? (ICAO ANNEX /7 A The State on whose register the aircraft is entered B The State where the lessor is registered C The State where the operator is registered D The State where the aircraft is based

A The State on whose register the aircraft is entered

63: According to Annex 7, the definition of heavier-than-air aircraft is: A A power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft, deriving ist lift in flight chiefly from aerodynamic reactions on surfaces which remain fixed under given conditions of flight B Any machine that can derive support in the atmosphere from the reactions of the air other than the reactions of the air against the Earth's surface C A non-power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft, deriving ist lift in flight chiefly from aerodynamic reactions on surfaces which remain fixed under given conditions of flight D Any aircraft deriving ist lift in flight chiefly from aerodynamic forces

D Any aircraft deriving ist lift in flight chiefly from aerodynamic forces

66: Which of the following gets its lift chiefly through aerodynamis forces? A Heavier - than - air aircraft B Aeroplanes C Lighter-than-air aircraft D Rotorcraft

A Heavier - than - air aircraft

69: According to Annex 7, the registration mark shall be letters, numbers or a combination of letters and numbers and shall be that assigned by: A the State of Registry or common mark registering authority B the State of Registry only C the international Civil Aviation Organisation D the International Telecommunication Union

A the State of Registry or common mark registering authority

73: The assignment of the common mark to a common mark registering authority will be made by: A the State of Registry and accepted by the international Telecommunication Union B the International Telecommunication Union C the State of Registry D the International Civil Aviation Organization

D the International Civil Aviation Organization

75: According to Annex 7, the definition of aircraft is: A A power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft, deriving its lift in flight chiefly from aerodynamic reactions on surfaces which remain fixed under given conditions of flight B Any machine that can derive support in the atmosphere from reactions of the air other than the reactions of the air against the Earth's surface C A non-power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft, deriving its lift in flight chiefly from aerodynamic reactions on surfaces which remain fixed under given conditions of flight D Any aircraft supported chiefly by its buoyancy in the air

B Any machine that can derive support in the atmosphere from reactions of the air other than the reactions of the air against the Earth's surface

77: Aircraft required to be registered with an airworthiness certificate are: A ultralight aircraft and winches for gliders B powered gliders, gliders, hang gliders C manned balloons, hang gliders, flying models of more than 150 kg D airplanes, rotorcraft, airships

D airplanes, rotorcraft, airships

80: Except when necessary for take-off or landing; a VFR flight over congested areas of Cities; towns or settlements or over an open air assembly of persons shall not be flown at a height less than: A 300 m above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 ft from the aircraft:. B 300 m above the highest obstacle. C 300 m above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft. D 600 m above the highest obstacle within a radius of 300 m from the aircraft.

C 300 m above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft.

81: An aircraft taxiing on the maneuvering area of an aerodrome shall give way to: A Follow me vehicles and pedestrians B Aircraft taking off C Aircraft landing and taking off D Aircraft landing

C Aircraft landing and taking off

When two-way radio communication is lost, a pilot should select ____ on the transponder. A) Code 7500 B) Code 2000 C) Code 7700 D) Code 7600

D) Code 7600

89 Whilst flying in an aerodrome's traffic circuit, an aircraft receives a series of green flashes from the tower. The aircraft: A. Must come back to land and the landing clearance will be sent in due time. B. Is cleared to land. C. Must give way to another aircraft. D. Must land immediately and clear the landing area.

A. Must come back to land and the landing clearance will be sent

What is the minimum flight altitude for VFR flights permitted over towns, settlements, and populated areas? A. 500 ft within a radius of 1 NM of the aircraft position. B. 1,000 ft within a radius of 8 km of the aircraft position. C. 1,000 ft above the highest obstacle within 600 m of the aircraft position. D. The altitude which permits the aircraft to land safely in the event of an engine failure.

C. 1,000 ft above the highest obstacle within 600 m of the aircraft position.

An aircraft operated on, or in the vicinity of, an aerodrome shall whether or not within an ATZ: 1. Observe other aerodrome traffic for the purpose of avoiding collision. 2. Conform with or avoid the pattern of traffic formed by other aircraft in operation. 3. Make all turns to the right, when approaching for landing or taking-off unless otherwise instructed. 4. Land and take-off into the wind unless safety, the runway configuration, or an air traffic consideration determines that a different direction should be used. Which statements are correct? A. 2, 3, 4 B. 1, 3, 4 C. 1, 2, 4 D. 1, 2, 3

C. 1, 2, 4

Two aircraft are approaching each other in a controlled airspace class D in VMC at approximately the same level on converging courses. Aircraft "A" is flying under IFR, Aircraft "B" is flying under VFR. Who has the right of way? A. Aircraft "B", providing it has "A" on its left. B. Aircraft "A", providing it has "B" on its right. C. Aircraft "B" regardless of the direction from which "A" is approaching. D. Aircraft "A" regardless of the direction from which "B" is approaching.

A. Aircraft "B", providing it has "A" on its left.

A red flare light signal addressed to an aircraft in flight means: A. Aerodrome unsafe, do not land. B. Slow down speed to minimum, give way to other aircraft in the circuit, and continue circling. C. Notwithstanding any previous instructions, do not land for the time being. D. Return for approach, clearance to land to be expected on final.

C. Notwithstanding any previous instructions, do not land for the time being.

No aircraft shall be flown over the congested area of cities, towns, or settlements unless at a height that will permit, in the event of an emergency, a landing to be made safely. Exceptions to this rule are: A. Take-off and landing, or permission from the appropriate authority. B. Take-off and landing. C. Permission from the appropriate authority. D. None of the above.

A. Take-off and landing, or permission from the appropriate authority.

An aircraft being towed by night must display: A. An anti-collision beacon. B. Steady navigation lights. C. Navigation lights and taxi lights. D. The same lights that are required in flight.

D. The same lights that are required in flight.

Anti-collision lights on an aircraft must be displayed: A. By all aircraft moving on the manoeuvring area. B. By all aircraft operating on the movement area. C. Between sunset and sunrise or any period specified by the appropriate authority. D. As soon as the engines are running.

D. As soon as the engines are running.

When a pilot raises his arms extended, palms facing outwards, and moves his hands inwards to cross in front of the face, this means: A. Brakes engaged. B. Brakes released. C. Insert chocks. D. Remove chocks.

C. Insert chocks.

You are flying on a VFR flight in VMC in a controlled airspace. Suddenly, you realize you are unable to maintain VMC. What are your actions according to ICAO Annex 2? A. Request a special VFR clearance if flying in a control zone. B. Continue to fly in VMC as best as possible and land at the nearest suitable airport immediately. C. Continue in IMC and land on the next airport which is equipped for instrument approaches. D. Continue in IMC and land on the next suitable airport.

A. Request a special VFR clearance if flying in a control zone.

The minimum flight visibility for a VFR flight in ATS airspace classified as D at an altitude above 10,000 ft MSL is: A. 1500 m B. 8 km C. 5 km D. 5 NM

B. 8 km

Which signal from a marshaller indicates "all clear"? A. Raise arm and hand with fingers extended horizontally in front of the body, then clench fist. B. Arms raised above the head with palms facing the pilot. C. Right arm raised bent at elbow with thumb extended. D. Arms pointing down with palms pointing inwards, moving arms inwards from extended position.

C. Right arm raised bent at elbow with thumb extended.

A steady green light from aerodrome control tower directed towards an aircraft on ground means: A. Cleared for taxi. B. Cleared for take-off. C. Cleared to enter the runway and wait for take-off clearance signal. D. Taxi back to the starting point on the aerodrome (return back to the parking stand).

B. Cleared for take-off.

Aerodrome control can use light signals when radio communications are not possible. For an aircraft taxiing on the ground, a red flashing light means: A. Stop taxiing. B. Continue to taxi to the take-off area. C. Vacate the landing area in use. D. Return to the point of departure (taxi back to parking stand).

C. Vacate the landing area in use.

VMC minima for VFR flights in Class B airspace, above 3050 m (10,000 ft) AMSL, are: A. 5 km visibility, 1,500 m horizontal and 1,000 ft vertical distance from clouds. B. 8 km visibility, 1,500 m horizontal and 1,000 ft vertical distance from clouds. C. 8 km visibility, and clear of clouds. D. Not applicable - VFR flights are not permitted.

B. 8 km visibility, 1,500 m horizontal and 1,000 ft vertical distance from clouds.

A VFR flight, at an altitude of 5000 ft in ATS airspace classified as C, has to maintain the following minima of flight visibility and distance from clouds: A. 8 km visibility; 1,000 m vertically and 1,500 ft horizontally clear of cloud. B. 5 km visibility; 1,500 m vertically and 1,000 ft horizontally clear of cloud. C. 8 km visibility; 1,000 ft vertically and 1,500 m horizontally clear of cloud. D. 5 km visibility; 1,000 ft vertically and 1,500 m horizontally clear of cloud.

D. 5 km visibility; 1,000 ft vertically and 1,500 m horizontally clear of cloud.

Above 3050 m (10,000 ft) AMSL, the VMC minima for VFR flights in all classes of airspace (except class A) are: A. Flight visibility: 8 km, clear of clouds. B. No minima defined, VFR flights are not permitted. C. Flight visibility: 8 km; distance from clouds: 1,500 m horizontal; 1,000 ft vertical. D. Flight visibility: 5 km; distance from clouds: 1,500 m horizontal; 1,000 ft vertical.

C. Flight visibility: 8 km; distance from clouds: 1,500 m horizontal; 1,000 ft vertical.

The light signal from aerodrome control tower directed towards an aircraft in flight indicating "give way to other aircraft and continue circling" is: A) steady red. B) steady green. C) series of red lights. D) series of green lights.

A) steady red.

122 On a VFR flight, your magnetic is track 005°, the magnetic heading 355°. Which of the following flight level is correct? A FL60 B FL55 C FL65 D FL70

B FL55

123 On a VFR fligth, your magnetic track is 200°. Which of the following flight levels shold be used? A FL 65, FL 85 or FL 105 B FL 75, FL 95 or FL 115 C FL 60, FL 85 or FL 100 D FL 70, FL 90 or FL 110

A FL 65, FL 85 or FL 105

125 In order to operate under visual flight rules above FL100 in uncontrolled airspace, there must be: A flight visibility of 8 km. B horizontal separation from cloud of 1 5 km. C 8 km visibility, 1000 ft vertical and 1500 m horizontal distance from clouds. D vertical separation from cloud of 1 000 ft.

C 8 km visibility, 1000 ft vertical and 1500 m horizontal distance from clouds.

126 The planned cruising speed for the first leg or all of the cruising portion of the flight be entered in the speed box of a flight plan form. This speed is the: A indicated air speed (IAS). B estimated ground speed (GIS). C true air speed (TAS) D true true air speed at 65% power.

C true air speed (TAS)

127 The VMC minima for a VFR flight inside an ATS airspace classified as B, is: A 8 km visibilty when at or above 3050 m (1000 ft) AMSL and 1500 m honzontal and 300m vertical from clouds. B 8 km visibility when at or above 3050 m (10000 ft) AMSL and dear of douds. C 5 NM visibility below 3050 m (10000 f) AMSL, clear of douds. D 5 NM visibility when below 3050 m (10000 ft) AMSL, 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from cloud.

A 8 km visibilty when at or above 3050 m (1000 ft) AMSL and 1500 m honzontal and 300m vertical from clouds.

128 Except where necessary for landing and over congested areas of cities, towns or take-off, VFR flights are not permitted settlements, or over an open air assembly of persons a height less than above the highest obstacle within a radius of from the aircraft. A 300 m; 600 m B 300 m; 600 ft C 500 ft; 600 m D 1000ft; 600 ft

A 300 m; 600 m

129 An aircraft operating in accordance with VFR, above the sea at altitudes between 4500 ft and 9000 ft, outside controlled airspace shall maintain at least: A a distance from cloud of 1 000 m horizontally and 1000 ft vertically and a flight visibilty of 5 km. B a distance from cloud of 1 500 m horizontally and 1000 ft vertically and a flight visibility of 8 km B a distance from cloud of 600 m horizontally and 1000 ft vertically and a flight visibility of 5 km D a distance from cloud of 1500 m horizontally and 1000 ft vertically and a flight visibilty of 5 km

D a distance from cloud of 1500 m horizontally and 1000 ft vertically and a flight visibilty of 5 km

132 A VFR flight, at an altitude of 5000 ft MSL in ATS airspace classified as C, has to maintain the following minima of flight visibility and distance from clouds A 8 km visibility: 1000 m vertically and 1500 ft horizontally clear of cloud. B 5 km visibility: 1500 ft vertically and 1 000 ft horizontalty clear of cloud. C 8 km visibility: 1000 ft vertically and 1500 ft horizontally clear of cloud. D 5 km visibility: 1000 ft vertically and 1 500 m horizontally clear of cloud.

D 5 km visibility: 1000 ft vertically and 1 500 m horizontally clear of cloud.

136 A series of red flashes from aerodrome control tower directed towards an aircraft in flight means: A give way to other aircraft in emergency. B aerodrome unsafe, do not land. C continue circling and wait for further instruction. D aerodrome temporarily closed, continue circling.

B aerodrome unsafe, do not land.

141 A pilot needs a permit issued by the appropiate aeronautical authority for: A dropping tow ropes B dropping animal feed for wild animals C airdropping parachutists D dropping the banner

B dropping animal feed for wild animals

142 Aerobatic flights are prohibited in heights of less than: A 2000 ft GND B 1500 ft GND C 2500 ft GND D 1000 ft GND

B 1500 ft GND

145 After having entered a control zone on a VFR-flight, the radio fails. How shall the pilot behave? A proceed according to the acknowledged air traffic control clearance and wait for the light signals of the aerodrome control tower B leave the control zone on the shortest way possible, land and inform air traffic control C enter the traffic circuit immediately and land according to given light signals D fly across the runway and wait for light

A proceed according to the acknowledged air traffic control clearance and wait for the light signals of the aerodrome control tower

149 An aircraft overtakes another aircraft when it approaches from behind in a direction of flight having an angle of less than: A 090° towards the direction of flight of the other aircraft B 070° towards the direction of flight of the other aircraft C 110° towards the direction of flight of the other aircraft D 120° towards the direction of flight of the other aircraft

B 070° towards the direction of flight of the other aircraft

156 A radiotelephony signal comprising of the word "PAN PAN" means that an aircraft A accidentally entered a danger area B has been hijacked C has a very urgent message to transmit concerning the safety of a ship, aircraft or other vehicle, or of some person on board or within sight. D is threatened by grave and imminent danger, and immediate assistance is requested

C has a very urgent message to transmit concerning the safety of a ship, aircraft or other vehicle, or of some person on board or within sight.

160 On aerodromes, aircraft taxiing by own power means A to have no priority over other vehicles and pedestrians B to have priority over pedestrians, but no priority over motor-driven vehicles C to have priority over other vehicles and pedestrians D to have the same rights as other vehicles and pedestrians unless the vehicles are police vehicles

C to have priority over other vehicles and pedestrians

162 The aeronautical chart ICAO 1:500,000 describes an airspace “D ctr” with: “2800 (HX)”. Does a pilot, whose radio has failed, have the possibility to cross this airspace on a Saturday? A. only if the status of the deactivation of the control zone has been confirmed just before the radio failure happens. B. yes, if a flight plan has been filed and a permit of the competent aviation supervision is received. C. yes, because this aerodrome is closed on Saturdays and Sundays. D. only with transponder A/C 7600.

A. only if the status of the deactivation of the control zone has been confirmed just before the radio failure happens.

163 You hear on the radio that another pilot repeatedly transmits “MAYDAY”. It is: A. a distress signal. B. a check of the ground station. C. a warning signal. D. an urgency signal.

A. a distress signal.

168. In the event that a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its track given in the current flight plan, action should be taken in order to: A) Adjust the heading of the aircraft to regain track as soon as practicable B) Notify the appropriate ATS unit immediately, notifying the new track and complying with instructions from ATS C) Maintain VMC, wait for instructions from the appropriate ATS unit D) Immediately inform ATC

A) Adjust the heading of the aircraft to regain track as soon as practicable

170. While on the ground, the navigation lights shall be turned on: A) Only from sunrise to sunset if instructed by ATC B) By all aircraft moving on the movement area of an aerodrome from sunset to sunrise to indicate the relative path of the aircraft to an observer, and other lights shall not be displayed if they are likely to be mistaken for these lights C) From sunrise to sunset so that an observer on the ground can see in which direction the aircraft is moving D) At night and during the daytime unless otherwise instructed by ATC

B) By all aircraft moving on the movement area of an aerodrome from sunset to sunrise to indicate the relative path of the aircraft to an observer, and other lights shall not be displayed if they are likely to be mistaken for these lights

173. The following signal means that an aircraft wishes to give notice of difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance (urgency signals): A) The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights B) Switching on and off of the landing lights in a sequence consisting of the letter group SOS C) Switching on and off three times the navigation lights D) Switching on and off three times the landing lights

A) The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights

174. ICAO Annex 2: 4.6 - Except when necessary for take-off or landing, or except by permission from the appropriate authority, a VFR flight shall not be flown: a) Over the congested areas of cities, towns, or settlements or over an open-air assembly of persons at a height less than 300 m (1000 ft) above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft; b) Elsewhere than as specified in 4.6 a), at a height less than ___ (___) above the ground or water. A) 150 m; (500 ft) B) 900 m; (3000 ft) C) 600 m; (2000 ft) D) 500 m; (1500 ft)

A) 150 m; (500 ft)

176. Aircraft equipped with red anti-collision lights shall display them: A) Outside the daylight-period in flight, but not on the ground when it is being towed B) Outside the daylight-period at engine start. During the daylight-period, this is not applicable C) On the ground when the engines are running D) While taxiing, but not when it is being towed

C) On the ground when the engines are running

177. What is the meaning of red pyrotechnic from an airfield to an aircraft flying next to this airfield? A) Notwithstanding any previous instructions, do not land for the time being B) Give way to other aircraft in emergency C) Give way to other aircraft and continue circling D) The aircraft must not land because the airport is not available for landing

A) Notwithstanding any previous instructions, do not land for the time being

179. While flying at night another aircraft reports that you are on his 100° relative bearing. Assuming you are on converging courses, you should see his: A) White navigation light B) Red navigation light C) Green and white navigation lights D) Green navigation light

D) Green navigation light

180. Describe the lights to be displayed by an aircraft in flight at night: A) Navigation lights and anti-collision lights B) Navigation lights only C) Anti-collision lights only D) Navigation lights, anti-collision lights, and landing lights

A) Navigation lights and anti-collision lights

181. What is the meaning of the term "DANGER AREAS"? A) An airspace of defined dimensions above the land areas or territorial waters of a State within which flight of aircraft is prohibited B) An airspace of defined dimensions within which activities dangerous to the flight of aircraft may exist at specified times C) A NOTAM activated airspace where the general flight rules are disregarded D) An airspace of defined dimensions within which air traffic control service is provided to IFR flights and to VFR flights in accordance with the airspace classification

B) An airspace of defined dimensions within which activities dangerous to the flight of aircraft may exist at specified times

182. Who is in charge of the safe conduct of a flight? A) The pilot-in-command B) The ATC controller whenever the aircraft is flying in controlled airspace C) The aircraft owner D) The airline operator

A) The pilot-in-command

183. Which of the following defines "FLIGHT VISIBILITY"? A) Visibility determined in flight not obscured by cloud, dust, haze, or precipitation B) The forward visibility from the flight cockpit of an aircraft in flight C) The ability to determine in the air the distance and identity of unlighted objects by day and lighted objects by night D) The forward distance at which objects can be discerned in the air with reference to atmospheric conditions

B) The forward visibility from the flight cockpit of an aircraft in flight

189. In general, the ICAO Annex 2 (Rules of the Air) applies: A) To all IFR traffic B) To all VFR traffic C) Only to aircraft registered in the State being overflown D) To all IFR and VFR traffic

D) To all IFR and VFR traffic

191. The final authority as to the disposition of an aircraft in flight lies with the: A) Aircraft operator B) Pilot-in-command C) Aircraft owner D) ATC controller if the aircraft is flying in a controlled airspace

B) Pilot-in-command

199. In Germany, control zones are classified: A. in the vicinity of military aerodromes as airspace B, in the vicinity of airports as airspace C, all others as airspace D. B. as airspace D. C. predominantly as airspace D, only a few as airspace C. D. in the vicinity of aerodromes as airspace C, all others as airspace D.

B. as airspace D.

200. The phases related to an aircraft in emergency or believed in emergency are, in the increasing order of seriousness: A. INCERFA, ALERFA, DETRESFA B. ALERTFA, DISTRESFA, RESCUEFA C. DETRESFA, ALERTFA, INCERFA D. INCERFA, ALERTFA, DISTRESFA

A. INCERFA, ALERFA, DETRESFA

207. If a pilot lands at an airfield other than the destination specified in the flight plan, he must inform the ATC unit at the original destination within: A 10 minutes of the original destination ETA B 45 minutes of the original destination ETA. C. 30 minutes of the original destination ETA. D. 60 minutes of the original destination ETA.

C. 30 minutes of the original destination ETA.

209. The minimum lateral limits of a CTR are: A. 5NM. B. 5 NM in the direction from which approaches may be made. C. 5 NM in direction in which approaches and departures may be made. D. there are no minimum lateral limits.

B. 5 NM in the direction from which approaches may be made.

216. Who is responsible for setting into movement the Alert Phase? A. ATC and the FIC. B. The State and ATC. C. The Area Control and the RCC. D. RCC and the FIR.

A. ATC and the FIC.

220. Aerodrome traffic is: A. All traffic on the movement area and flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome. B. All traffic on the manoeuvring area and flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome. C. All traffic on the manoeuvring area. D. All traffic in the aerodrome traffic circuit.

B. All traffic on the manoeuvring area and flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome.

227. What is the meaning of the abbreviation "ATIS"? A. Automatic Traffic Information System. B. Automatic Terminal Information Service. C. Automatic Traffic Information Service. D. Air Traffic Information System.

B. Automatic Terminal Information Service.

230. In accordance with ICAO legislation, what minimum ground visibility is required to enable a SVFR flight to take-off from an aerodrome in a CTR? A. 1000 m B. 1500m C. 2000 m D. 3000 m

B. 1500m

236. An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all participating IFR 501 flights receive an air traffic advisory service and all flights receive flight information service if requested, is classified: A. airspace F. B. airspace G. C. airspace E. D. airspace D.

A. airspace F.

238. ATS airspaces where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control service and are separated from each other are classified as: A. airspace E. B. airspace A. C. airspace D. D. airspace B.

D. airspace B.

239. In which situation would a METAR result in a prompt ATIS update? A. When receiving a "Special Aerodrome Meteorological Report" B. When receiving of any official weather, regardless of content change or reported Values. C. Only when the ceiling and/or visibility changes by a significant value. D. Every 30 minutes if weather conditions are below those for VFR (otherwise every 60 minutes).

A. When receiving a "Special Aerodrome Meteorological Report"

240. Which condition is requested so that an aerodrome may be considered controlled? A. The aerodrome shall be located within a Control Zone (CTR) and provided with a Control Tower. B. The aerodrome shall be located within a Control Zone. C. The aerodrome shall be located within a controlled airspace. D. The aerodrome shall be provided with a Control Tower.

D. The aerodrome shall be provided with a Control Tower.

242 Air Traffic Control Service is provided for the purpose of: A avoiding collisions between all aircraft and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic. B applying separation between aircraft and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic. C preventing collisions between controlled air traffic and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic. D preventing collisions between aircraft, between aircraft and obstacles on the manoeuvring area and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic.

D preventing collisions between aircraft, between aircraft and obstacles on the manoeuvring area and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic.

243 Whenever ATIS is provided, the preparation and dissemination of the ATIS message shall be the responsibility of: A the meteorological office serving the aerodrome(s). B the air traffic services. C both air traffic services and the meteorological office. D the unit as prescribed the states.

B the air traffic services.

244 The speed limitation for VFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as C, when flying below 3050m (10000 ft.) AMSL, is: A 240 kts IAS. B 250 kts TAS. C 250 kts IAS. D not applicable.

C 250 kts IAS.

245 The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as E, when flying below 3050m (10000 ft.) AMSL, is: A 250 kts TAS. B 250 kts IAS. C 240 kts IAS. D not applicable.

B 250 kts IAS.

247 An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted and all flights are subject to air traffic control service; IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and receive traffic information in respect of VFR flights; VFR flights receive traffic information in respect of all other flights, is classified as: A airspace E. B airspace B. C airspace D. D airspace A.

C airspace D.

248 When are you required to report your position? A Before the position point. B 5 min before the position point. C At or after the position point. D On request of ATC.

C At or after the position point. and D On request of ATC

250 When an aircraft is experiencing difficulties, triggering of the alert phase is the responsibility of: A search and rescue coordination centres. B air traffic control and flight information centres. C control centres only. D air traffic coordination centres.

B air traffic control and flight information centres.

251 Flight information service provided to flights shall include the provision of information concerning collision hazards to aircraft operating in airspace classes: A A to G (inclusive). B C to G (inclusive). C F and G. D A to E (inclusive).

B C to G (inclusive).

252 The objectives of an Aerodrome Control Service include the prevention of collisions between: 1) aircraft flying in the aerodrome traffic circuit and local area around the aerodrome. 2) aircraft operating on the manoeuvring area. 3) aircraft landing and taking off. 4) aircraft and vehicles operating on the manoeuvring area. A 1, 2, 3, 4 B 1, 2, 3 C 2, 3, 4 D 1, 2

A 1, 2, 3, 4

254 Alerting Service shall be provided: A to any aircraft known or believed to be subject of unlawful interference, only. B for all aircraft provided with Air Traffic Control Services, only. C for all controlled flights, to any aircraft known or believed to be subject of unlawful interference, and in so far as practicable to all aircraft having filed a flight plan or otherwise known to the ATS. D in so far as practicable to all aircraft having filed a flight plan or otherwise known by the ATS.

C for all controlled flights, to any aircraft known or believed to be subject of unlawful interference, and in so far as practicable to all aircraft having filed a flight plan or otherwise known to the ATS.

255 Whenever ATIS is provided, the broadcast information shall be updated: A as prescribed by the meteorological office. B at least every half an hour independently of any significant change. C immediately a significant change occurs. D as prescribed by the state.

C immediately a significant change occurs.

257 To perform a VFR flight in airspace classification E: A a clearance is required. B two-way radio communication is not required. C a clearance and two-way radio communication is required. D a clearance and/or two-way radio communication is required.

B two-way radio communication is not required.

258 What is the speed limit (IAS) in airspace class E? A 250 kts only for IFR up to FL 100. B 250 kts for IFR and VFR up to FL 100. C 250 kts VFR and IFR, all levels. D 250 kts only for VFR up to FL 195.

B 250 kts for IFR and VFR up to FL 100.

264 Area Control Centres issue clearances for the purpose of: A achieving separation between controlled flights. B achieving separation between IFR flights. C providing flight information service. D providing advisory service.

A achieving separation between controlled flights.

269 Which air traffic services are provided by the German Air Navigation Services (DFS)? A alerting and rescue service. B air traffic control service, search and rescue service. C weather service, advisory service. D aeronautical information service, air traffic control service, flight information service.

D aeronautical information service, air traffic control service, flight information service.

270 When should position reports be made? A At intervals not exceeding 1 hour. B At the discretion of the commander. C When passing each designated compulsory reporting point. D When passing designated significant points referred to as "on request reporting points."

C When passing each designated compulsory reporting point.

277 Which of the following has the highest order of priority? A Aircraft taking-off. B Aircraft landing. C Aircraft taxiing. D Aircraft being towed by a vehicle.

B Aircraft landing.

281 What does the term "air traffic control clearance" mean? A the acknowledgement to conduct a flight coordinated before take-off, issued by an air traffic control unit. B a flight permission, coordinated with air traffic control and issued by the aviation supervision office. C the authorisation to conduct a flight under particular conditions, issued by an air traffic control unit. D the approval for a flight according to the flight plan filed, issued by an aeronautical information service unit.

C. the authorisation to conduct a flight under particular conditions, issued by an air traffic control unit.

288 A VFR cross country flight leads through a radio mandatory zone (RMZ) at an uncontrolled aerodrome. Which VMC for this airspace and which special conditions shall be observed? A flight visibility 5 km; cloud distance 1.5 km horizontally, 1000 ft vertically; mandatory transponder operation; surface in sight, RMZ active Monday till Friday, establish radio contact and maintain constant listening watch, when leaving RMZ discontinue transponder operation B cloud distance 1000 ft vertically and 1.5 km horizontally, flight visibility 5 km; surface in sight, ATC-clearance from the competent aviation supervision, RMZ active for IFR approaches/departures only, establish radio contact and maintain constant listening watch, report leaving RMZ C clear of clouds, surface in sight, in case of helicopters flight visibility 3000 m but not less than 800 m if manoeuvred at a speed excluding the opportunity to observe other traffic or any obstacles in time to avoid collision, establish radio contact and maintain constant listening watch, report leaving RMZ D clear of clouds, surface in sight; flight visibilities 5 km, or reduced to not less than 1500 m for flights operating at speeds of 140 kts IAS or less, in case of helicopters less than 1500 m but not less than 800 m, if manoeuvred at a speed that will give adequate opportunity to observe other traffic or any obstacles in time to avoid collision, establish radio contact/maintain listening watch, report leaving RMZ

D clear of clouds, surface in sight; flight visibilities 5 km, or reduced to not less than 1500 m for flights operating at speeds of 140 kts IAS or less, in case of helicopters less than 1500 m but not less than 800 m, if manoeuvred at a speed that will give adequate opportunity to observe other traffic or any obstacles in time to avoid collision, establish radio contact/maintain listening watch, report leaving RMZ

293 A transition altitude shall normally be specified for each aerodrome by the State in which the aerodrome is located. The calculated height of the transition altitude shall be rounded up to the next full: A 50 ft. B 100 ft. C 500 ft. D 1 000 ft.

D 1 000 ft.

303 With regard to the wake turbulence category aircraft classification, the Maximum Take-off Mass of MEDIUM aircraft is: A less than 136 000 kg but more than 7 000 kg. B less than 132 000 kg but more than 7 000 kg. C less than 136 000 kg but more than 9 000 kg. D less than 132 000 kg but more than 9 000 kg.

A less than 136 000 kg but more than 7 000 kg.

306 When must a pilot of an aircraft during a VFR flight operating at night report the position? A In airspaces D, E, F. B Never. C In airspaces E to G. D When requested by the appropriate ATS unit.

D When requested by the appropriate ATS unit.

313 What are the controlled traffic separation methods applied by ATC? A Vertical, horizontal and angular separation. B Time separation and track separation. C Vertical and horizontal separation. D Composite separation.

C Vertical and horizontal separation.

316 Essential local traffic consists of: A any aircraft, vehicle or personnel on or near the runway to be used, or traffic in the take- off and climb-out area or the initial approach area, which may constitute a collision hazard to I FR aircraft. B any aircraft, vehicle or personnel on or near the runway to be used, or traffic in the take- off and climb-out area or the final approach area, which may constitute a collision hazard to IFR aircraft. C any aircraft, vehicle or personnel on or near the runway to be used, or traffic in the take- off and climb-out area or the initial approach area, which may constitute a collision hazard to a departing or arriving aircraft. D any aircraft, vehicle or personnel on or near the runway to be used, or traffic in the take- off and climb-out area or the final approach area, which may constitute a collision hazard to a departing or arriving aircraft.

D any aircraft, vehicle or personnel on or near the runway to be used, or traffic in the take- off and climb-out area or the final approach area, which may constitute a collision hazard to a departing or arriving aircraft.

318 Before flight, transition level information can be obtained by consulting: A AIP, ATIS, ATC B AIP, ATIS CATC D ATIS, ATC

D ATIS, ATC

319 When should ATC provide the pilot with a local QNH altimeter setting? A With clearance to enter the traffic pattern. B At the start of radar vectoring. C With initial taxi clearance. D With clearance to enter the traffic pattern and with initial taxi clearance.

D With clearance to enter the traffic pattern and with initial taxi clearance.

322 What is the standard colour code for an administrative document when considering the aeronautical information circular (AIC)? A. green B. red C. white D. pink

C. white

323 At least how many days in advance of the effective date must AIRAC information be distributed? A. 14 B. 28 C. 42 D. 60

C. 42

325 In order to avoid confusion, the identification numbers given to each prohibited area, restricted area and danger area shall not be re-used for a period of: A. at least 6 months after cancellation of the area to which they refer. B. at least 3 months after cancellation of the area to which they refer. C. at least one year after cancellation of the area to which they refer. D. at least 2 months after cancellation of the area to which they refer.

C. at least one year after cancellation of the area to which they refer.

326 Which of the following is information that is not given in AIP Visual Approach and Landing charts? A. DME frequencies B. Visibility minima. C. OCH or OCA. D. Obstacles penetrating the obstacle free area in the final approach sector.

B. Visibility minima.

335 Whenever practicable, NOTAMs are distributed by: A. AFTN B. e-mail. C. fax. D. printed brochure.

A. AFTN

340 Geographical co-ordinates indicating latitude and longitude are expressed in terms of: A. WGS 84 B. WGS 94 C. GPS 84 D. GPS 94

A. WGS 84

349 Which part of the AIP contains a list of differences between the national regulations/practices and the related ICAO Standards, Recommended Practices and Procedures? A. GEN B. AD C. ENR D. REG

A. GEN

355 A notice providing information on Rules of the Air, Air Traffic Services and Air Navigation Procedures and distributed in advance of its effective date is: A. A NOTAM RAC. B. An AIRAC. C. An ATS NOTAM. D. An Advisory NOTAM.

B. An AIRAC.

362 What is the standard colour code for an ATC document when considering the aeronautical information circular (AIC)? A. green B. mauve C. pink D. yellow

D. yellow

366 Which part of the AIP gives detailed information about refueling facilities and the fuel grades available? A. FAL B. GEN C. ENR D. AD

D. AD

368 The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar indicates that: A. landing, take-off and taxiing is allowed on runway and/or taxiway only. B. aircraft are required to land and take off on runways only, but other manoeuvres need not to be confined to runways and taxiways. C. glider flying is performed outside the landing area. D. this aerodrome is using parallel runways.

B. aircraft are required to land and take off on runways only, but other manoeuvres need not to be confined to runways and taxiways.

369 Taxiway markings and aircraft stand markings are: A. white B. grey C. yellow D. red

C. yellow

371 Runway end lights shall be: A. Fixed unidirectional lights showing red in the direction of the runway. B. Fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the direction of the runway. C. Fixed lights showing variable red. D. Fixed lights showing variable white.

A. Fixed unidirectional lights showing red in the direction of the runway.

372 What is the colour of runway edge lights? A. Red B. Blue C. Green D. White

D. White

373 Which of the following systems describes an abbreviated precison approach path indicator? A. Twenty light units symmetrically disposed about the runway centre line in the formof two wing bars of four light units each, with bisecting longitudional lines of six lights. are B. A wing bar of 4 sharp transition multi-lamp units equally spaced and normaty located on the left side of the runway unless it is physicalty impracticable to do so. C. Ten light units arranged on one side of the runway in the form of a single bar of four light units, with a bisecting longitudinal line of six lights. D. A wing bar of 2 sharp transition multi-lamp units normally located on the left side of the runway unless it is physically impracticable to do so.

D. A wing bar of 2 sharp transition multi-lamp units normally located on the left side of the runway unless it is physically impracticable to do so.

374 Two or more white or yellow crosses, displayed on runways (taxiways), indicate that: A. the threshold has been displaced. B. the runway or taxiway should be used in emergency only C. the runway or taxiway should be used with caution. D.the section of the runway or taxiway is unfit for aircraft movement

D. the section of the runway or taxiway is unfit for aircraft movement

375 In a precision approach category I lighting system, the centre line and crossbar lights shall be: A. fixed lights showing variable green. B. flashing lights showing variable white C. fixed lights showing variable white. D. flashing lights showing variable green

C. fixed lights showing variable white.

376 What does a white line drawn across a runway indicate? A. The threshold. B. A displaced threshold. C. The beginning of the touch down zone. D. 1 000 ft from the end zone.

B. A displaced threshold.

386 In the "PAPI" system the Pilot doing an approach will see the two unitsnearest the runway as red and the two units farthest from the runway as white when: A. above the approach slope. B. on or close to the approach slope. C. below the approach slope. D. only on the approach slope

B. on or close to the approach slope.

413 Each wing bar of "VASIS" system has __ light units. A. 4 B. 3 C. 2 D. 5

B. 3

415 Mandatory signs consist of a _____ inscription on a _____ background. A. red; white. B. yellow; white. C. white; black. D. white; red.

D. white; red.

416 What is the general shape of the landing indicator? A. T B. --> C. V D. Y

A. T

417 When taxiing on a surface with white markings, you are on a: A. movement area. B. taxiway. C. clearway. D. runway.

D. runway.

419 What is the principle requirement for a signals area on an aerodrome? A. It must be big enough to contain all signals. B. It must be clearly visible from the air. C. It must be clearly visible from all parts of the manoevring area. D. It is used for VFR + IFR operations.

B. It must be clearly visible from the air.

421 Runway edge lights, except in the case of a displaced threshold, shall be: A. Fixed lights showing variable white or yellow. B. Flashing white. C. Fixed lights, white or yellow color. D. Fixed lights showing variable white.

A. Fixed lights showing variable white or yellow.

423 For planning purposes, an aerodrome is categorized by aerodrome reference code. This code is composed of two elements a number and a letter. What does the number relate to? A. Load classification number. B. Single wheel loading classification. C. Crash/Rescue category. D. Aeroplane reference field length.

D. Aeroplane reference field length.

A volume of airspace extending upwards and outwards from an inner portion of the strip to specified upper limits which is kept clear of all obstructions is called: A. sensitive area B. critical area C. non-transgression zone D. obstacle free zone

D. obstacle free zone

441 The length of a clearway should not exceed: A. 1/2 TORA B. 1/2 TODA C. 1/2 LDA D. 1/2 ASDA

A. 1/2 TORA

An "aerodrome reference point" is defined as the: A. Elevation of the highest point of the landing area. B. Location of the landing threshold. C. Pre-flight altimeter check location. D. The designated geographical location of the aerodrome.

D. The designated geographical location of the aerodrome.

A runway may be contaminated by frozen water deposits. What are the three states of frozen water reported by ATC? A. Clear ice, rime ice and snow. B. Light snow, heavy snow, blizzard. C. Snow, ice and slush. D. Thin ice, occasional ice, heavy ice.

C. Snow, ice and slush.

472. Clearway is defined rectangular area established to: A. Reduce the risk of damage to aircraft running off a runway. B. Permit aircraft to make a portion of its initial climb to a specific height. C. Protect aircraft during take-off or landing operations. D. Permit the aircraft to stop if it fails the take-off.

B. Permit aircraft to make a portion of its initial climb to a specific height.

477. The “PAPI” shall consist of: A. A wing bar of 2 sharp transition multi-lamp equally spaced. B. Two wing bars of 4 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced. C. Two wing bars of 6 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced. D. A wing bar of 4 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced.

D. A wing bar of 4 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced.

482. A double white crossing displayed horizontally in the aerodrome signal area means: A - Special precautions must be observed due to bad state of the taxiways. B - Need special precautions while approaching for landing. C - An area unit for the movement of aircraft. D - The aerodrome is being used by gliders and that glider flights are being performed.

D - The aerodrome is being used by gliders and that glider flights are being performed.

486. Alert phase is defined as follows: A - A situation to an aircraft which reports that the fuel on board is exhausted. B - An emergency event in which and aircraft and its occupants are considered to be threatened by a danger. C - A situation related to an aircraft and its occupants are considered to be in a state of emergency. D - A situation where an apprehension exists to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants.

D - A situation where an apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants.

488. “A situation wherein apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants” is definition for: A - Uncertainty phase. B - Alert phase. C - Distress phase. D - Emergency phase.

B - Alert phase.

489. Search and rescue on the high seas is conducted: A - By agreements of the EASA committee. B - By agreements of the ICAO committee. C - By the basis of Regional Air Navigation agreements. D - These areas cannot be served by SAR.

C - By the basis of Regional Air Navigation agreements.

490. What is each contracting state of ICAO required to provide? A - Facilities for SAR operations to be undertaken in its airspace. B - Oceanic control facilities in oceanic areas adjacent to its territorial airspace. C - Details of Aerodrome Operating Minima to each operator using its airspace. D - Adequate radio navigation facilities for aeroplanes transiting its airspace.

A - Facilities for SAR operations to be undertaken in its airspace.

491. The unit responsible for promoting efficient organization for search and rescue service in each SAR region is the: A - Alerting Centre. B - Rescue Co-ordination Centre. C - Area Control Centre. D - Flight Information Centre.

B - Rescue Co-ordination Centre.

492. Which of the following frequencies are used for emergency operations by SAR aircraft? A - 119.7 MHz and 2182 kHz. B - 119.7 MHz and 6182 MHz. C - 121.5 MHz and 243.0 kHz. D - 121.5 MHZ and 243.0 MHz.

D - 121.5 MHz and 243.0 MHz.

494. When an aircraft crashes in an area not owned by a certain state who is responsible for carrying out SAR activities? A - The state closest to the place of occurrence. B - The state of the operator. C - The state of registry. D - The one who is determined on the basis of regional air navigation agreements.

D - The one who is determined on the basis of regional air navigation agreements.

495. The ground - air visual signal code for use by survivors on ground in order to indicate “REQUIRE MEDICAL ASSISTANCE” is (search and rescue signals): A - N B - x C - y D - v

B - x

496. Contracting States shall establish a rescue co-ordination centre: A - At every international airport. B - In each search and rescue region. C - At every ATS facility. D - If they are adjacent to the sea.

B - In each search and rescue region.

499. What frequency does the emergency locator transmit on? A - 243 kHz. B - 121.5 MHz C - 2182 kHz. D - 243 MHz.

B - 121.5 MHz.

500. Which signal indicates “Operations complete”? A - LLL B - N C - v D - NN

A -LLL

501. At night an aircraft observes a luminous signal requesting help. to indicate that he has recieved these search and rescue ground signals, the pilot shall: A - Fly over the group of people in difficulty as low as possible. B - Switch his landing lights on and off twice or, if he is not so equipped, his navigation lights twice. C - Make at least one complete turn over the group of people in difficulty. D - Transmit, by luminous Morse signal, a series of the letter “R” using his navigational lights.

B - Switch his landing gear lights on and off twice or, if he is not so equipped, his navigation lights twice.

502. Containers or packages containing survival equipment for dropping should have the general nature of the content indicated by colour code. The colour for blankets and protective clothing is: A - Yellow B - Red C - Black D - Blue

A - Yellow

503. Containers or packages containing survival equipment for dropping should in have the general nature of the content indicated by a colour code. The colour of droppable containers and streamers for medical supplies is: A - Yellow B - Red C - Black D - Blue

B - Red

504. The ground - air visual signal code for use by survivors on ground to indicate “AFFIRMATIVE” is (search and rescue signals): A - N B - x C - Y D - v

C - Y

505. What does the signal “N” mean? A - All personnel found. B - Unable to continue - returning to base. C - “No” or “Negative”. D - Nothing found, continuing search.

C - “No” or “Negative”.

511. What is the meaning of a symbol “V” seen on the ground in the vicinity of an aircraft crash site? A - Proceeding in this direction. B - Search terminated. C - Request assistance. D - Request medical assistance.

C - Request assistance.

512. Which of the following signals is a distress signal? A - A parachute flare showing a red light. B - The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights. C - The repeated switching on and off of the navigation lights. D - In radiotelephony the spoken words PAN, PAN.

A - A parachute flare showing a red light.

513. The ground - air visual signal code for use by survivors on ground in order to indicate “REQUIRE ASSISTANCE” is (search and rescue signals): A - N B - y C - v D - x

C - v

510. The colour identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing survival equipment should take the form of coloured streamers according to the following code: A - Black for miscellaneous equipment. B - Blue for blankets and protective clothing. C - Yellow for medical supplies and first aid equipment. D - Red for food and water.

A - Black for miscellaneous equipment.

509. You are flying in a mountainous region and you see a symbol “X” on the ground. What does this mean? A - Require assistance. B - Search terminated. C - Place suitable for helicopter landing. D - Require medical assistance.

D - Require medical assistance.

508. At night you observe ground signals from survivors of a disaster. What do you do to indicate that you have seen and understood the signals? A - Rock the wings. B - Turn off the anti-collision light. C - Make a low pass over the survivors. D - Flash your landing lights or navigation lights.

D - Flash your landing lights or navigation lights.

507. The ground - air visual signal code for use by survivors on ground to indicate “NEGATIVE” is (search and rescue signals): A - N B - x C - y D - v

A - N

506. How does a pilot confirm that he/she understood instructions from ground signaling during the daytime? A - By flying a 360 degree turn. B - By switching on and off twice the aircraft’s navigation lights. C - By rocking the aircraft’s wings. D - By flashing on and off twice the aircraft’s landing lights.

C - By rocking the aircraft’s wings.

498. When flying en-route you intercept an emergency transmission from an aircraft in distress. Your actions will include, where possible: A - Acknowledge the transmission, and begin to search the aircraft in distress. B - Record the bearing of the transmission, and continue on your way. C - Hold at your current position and coordinate the SAR operation. D - Enter a holding pattern and await instructions.

A - Acknowledge the transmission, and begin to search for the aircraft in distress.

497. Search and rescue services within the territory of ICAO Contracting States are provided: A - When an emergency has been declared. B - When the authority of the Contracting State decides to do so. C - From sunset to sunrise. D - On a 24-hour basis.

D - On a 24-hour basis.

493. Which sign can be written in the sand by survivors on an island to give people in an aircraft a NEGATIVE response? A - (-) B - N C - x D - B

B - N

487. At which phase should search and rescue (SAR) services prepare their personnel and equipment for a potential SAR operation? A - Alert phase. B - Distress phase. C - Uncertainty phase. D - At the discretion of the SAR service unit manager.

A - Alert phase.

485. The part of and aerodrome provided for the stationing of aircraft for the purpose of embarking and disembarking passengers, loading and unloading of cargo and refueling and parking is known as: A - The movement area. B - The maintenance area. C - The apron. D - The maneuvering area.

C - The apron.

484. The “stopway” is a defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of take-off run available prepared as a suitable area where: A - A landing aircraft can be stopped only in emergency. B - A landing aircraft can be stopped if overcoming the end of runway. C - An aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off. D - An aircraft taking-off or landing can be stopped.

C - An aircraft can be stopped in the case of and abandoned take-off.

483. Taxiways edge markers should be: A - Retroreflective blue. B - Retroreflective green. C - Yellow or green. D - Yellow or white.

A - Retroreflective blue.

481. A red square panel with a yellow strip along each diagonal, displayed in the signals area of an aerodrome indicates: A - Aerodrome is unfit for aircraft movements, and landings are prohibited. B - Exercise special care when landing. C - Normal safety services are not available. D - Land on paved surface only.

A - Aerodrome is unfit for aircraft movements, and landings are prohibited.

480. “A defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of take-off run available prepared as a suitable area in which an aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off” is the definition for: A. Obstacle Free Zone (OFZ). B. Runway end safety area. C. Stopway. D. Clearway.

C. Stopway.

479. A black letter “C” on a yellow background indicates: A. Rest-room facilities for visiting pilots. B. The location of the aerodrome control tower. C. The location of ATC on an airfield. D. The location where visiting pilots should report.

D. The location where visiting pilots should report.

478. A horizontal white dumb-bell with a black bar placed perpendicular to the shaft across each circular portion placed in the aerodrome signal area indicates that: A. Aircraft are required to land and take-off on runways and all other manoeuvres need to be confined to runways or taxiways. B. A parallel runway system is used at this aerodrome. C. Aircraft are required to land and take-off on runways only, but other manoeuvres need not be confined to runways or taxiways. D. The aerodrome is being used by gliders and that glider flights are being performed on a parallel runway.

C. Aircraft are required to land and take-off on runways only, but other manoeuvres need not be confined to runways or taxiways.

476. The number of stripes on each side of the centreline of a runway which has a width of 45 m is: A. 8 B. 3 C. 4 D. 6

D. 6

475. Describe where a threshold should normally be located: A. A threshold should normally be located at a distance of 10 m from the runway end unless operational considerations justify the choice of another location. B. A threshold should normally be located at a distance of 5 m from the runway end unless operational considerations justify the choice of another location. C. A threshold should normally be located at the extremity of a runway unless operational considerations justify the choice of another location. D. A threshold should normally be located at a distance of 50 ft from the runway end unless operational considerations justify the choice of another location.

C. A threshold should normally be located at the extremity of a runway unless operational considerations justify the choice of another location.

474. “An area symmetrical about the extended runway centreline and adjacent to the end of the strip primarily intended to reduce the risk of damage to an aeroplane undershooting or overrunning the runway” is the definition for: A. Clearway. B. Runway end safety area. C. Stopway. D. Runway strip.

B. Runway end safety area.

473. Taxiway edge lights shall be: A. Fixed showing green. B. Fixed showing blue. C. Fixed showing yellow. D. Flashing showing blue.

B. Fixed showing blue.

471. ICAO Annex 14 states a simple approach lighting system shall consist of a row of lights on the extended centre line of the runway extending, whenever possible, over a distance of not less than ___ m from the threshold with a row of lights forming a crossbar. A. 600 m; 300 m B. 420 m; 300 m C. 420 m; 150 m D. 300 m; 200 m

B. 420 m; 300 m

What is the name for a taxiway connected to a runway at an acute angle designed to allow aeroplanes to turn off at higher speeds than are achieved on other exits thereby minimizing runway occupancy time? A. Rapid turn-off lane. B. High-speed exit lane. C. Rapid exit taxiway. D. Acute angle exit.

C. Rapid exit taxiway.

A right-hand arrow of conspicuous colour indicates (visual ground signal): A. That turns are to be made to the right before landing and after take-off. B. The position of the Aerodrome Reference Point/ARP. C. That turns in the aerodrome circuit have to be made to the left, but gliders have to make the turns to the right. D. That 180-degree turns on the runway for backtrack have to be made to the right.

A. That turns are to be made to the right before landing and after take-off.

Runway edge lights, except in the case of a displaced threshold and/or at the remote end of the runway from the end at which the take-off run is started, are: A. Fixed lights showing steady green. B. Flashing lights showing variable green. C. Flashing lights showing variable yellow. D. Fixed lights showing variable white.

D. Fixed lights showing variable white.

Aerodrome signs should be in the following configuration: A. Information signs: yellow or black background with black or yellow inscriptions. B. Mandatory instruction signs: black background with red inscriptions. C. Information signs: orange background with black inscriptions. D. Mandatory instruction signs: red background with black inscriptions.

A. Information signs: yellow or black background with black or yellow inscriptions.

466 On an aerodrome equipped with parallel runways, the designation number of each runway shall be supplemented as follows: A. In case of three parallel runways by the letter "L" and "R" for the outer runways and no letter supplement for the central runway. B. In case of two parallel runways by the letter "L" and "R" in the sequence from left to right. C. In case of two parallel runways by adding "10" to the left runway designation and by subtracting "10" from the right runway designation. D. In case of three parallel runways by adding "L" to the designation of the runway farthest to the left, adding one "R" to the central runway and adding two "R" to the designation of the runway farthest to the right.

B. In case of two parallel runways by the letter "L" and "R" in the sequence from left to right.

465 Mandatory instructions signs on an aerodrome shall have the following colours: A. black inscription on a yellow background. B. yellow inscription on a black background. C. black inscription on a red background. D. white inscription on a red background.

D. white inscription on a red background.

464 How many red lights must a pilot see, whose aircraft in final approach is following a normal glide path defined by a PAPI? A. 1 B. 3 C. 0 D. 2

D. 2

463 Taxiway centreline lights other than an exit taxiway shall be: A. fixed lights showing white. B. fixed lights showing blue. C. fixed lights showing yellow. D. fixed lights showing green.

D. fixed lights showing green.

How does a pilot see the PAPI Wing bar lights, when the position of the aircraft is far above the approach slope? A. The unit nearest to and the unit farthest from the runway are Mute, the two others are red. B. All four light units are steady white. C. All four light units are flashing white. D. The unit nearest to and the unit farthest from the runway are steady white, the two on the centre are flashing white.

B. All four light units are steady white.

Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies dimensions of aerodromes are codes for different runways. Which is the minimum width of a runway with runway code 4? A. 35 metres. B. 45 metres. C. 40 metres. D. 55 metres.

B. 45 metres.

A pattern "A" runway-holding position marking shall be supplemented at a taxiway/runway intersection with a: A. Taxiway designation sign, only for paved runways. B. Taxiway designation sign. C. Runway designation sign. D. Runway designation sign, only for precision approach runways.

C. Runway designation sign.

Which of the following is not a mandatory instruction sign? A. Runway designation sign. B. Road holding position sign. C. Direction sign. D. Taxi-holding position sign.

C. Direction sign.

The centreline and crossbar lights of a precision approach Category I lighting system shall be fixed lights, showing variable intensity of the following colour: A. Blue B. Yellow C. White D. Green

C. White

How many red lights must a pilot see, whose aircraft in final approach is following a normal glide path defined by a PAPI? A. 1 B. 3 C. 0 D. 2

D. 2

How is a taxiway holding position marked? A. One or three different line arrangements painted across the taxiway. B. Flashing yellow "guard" lights. C. A red marker board either side of the taxiway. D. A red light stop bar.

C. A red marker board either side of the taxiway.

The colour of fixed, unidirectional Runway End Lights shall be: A. Yellow B. White C. Green D. Red

D. Red

Regarding declared airfield distances, the ASDA is: A. The distance from the start of the take-off run to the end of the clearway. B. The distance from the start of the take-off run to the last point capable of bearing the full weight of the aircraft under normal operating conditions. C. The distance from the start of the take-off run to the end of the stopway. D. The area beyond the end of the prepared surface only available to aircraft stopping in an emergency.

C. The distance from the start of the take-off run to the end of the stopway.

A runway friction coefficient for a specific runway is reported by the ATC as "0.36". This corresponds to _ braking action. A. Poor B. Medium/Poor C. Medium/Good D. Good

C. Medium/Good

450 The "aerodrome elevation" is the height of: A. the airfield reference datum. B. the threshold of the main precision runway. C. the highest point in the landing area. D. the apron.

C. the highest point in the landing area.

449 Dry snow is snow which: A. has a specific gravity over 0.5. B. will fall apart again if compacted by hand. C. will form a snowball if compacted by hand. D. has a low water content.

B. will fall apart again if compacted by hand.

448 The "Aerodrome Reference Code" is a code composed of two elements which are related to the aeroplane performance characteristics and dimensions. These elements are a combination of a number and a letter as in the example under listed: A. 4G B. 6D C. 5E D. 2B

D. 2B

447 The purpose of a radio-altimeter operating area is: A. to accommodate aircraft making any kind of precision and non-precision approaches. B. to accommodate aircraft making automatic landings. C. to accommodate aeroplanes making auto-coupled approaches and automatic landings. D. to accommodate aircraft making autopilot-coupled approaches.

C. to accommodate aeroplanes making auto-coupled approaches and automatic landings.

A defined rectangular area, selected or prepared as a suitable area over which an aeroplane may make a portion of its initial climb to a specified height is called: A. Clearway. B. Stopway. C. Take-off run available (TORA). D. Runway end safety area (RESA).

A. Clearway.

"TODA" take-off distance available is: A. The length of the runway available plus the length of clearway (if provided). B. The length of the take-off run available plus the length of clearway (if provided). C. The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stopway and clearway (if provided). D. The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stopway.

B. The length of the take-off run available plus the length of clearway (if provided).

A runway friction coefficient for a specific runway is reported by the ATC as "0.25". This corresponds to _ braking action. A. Medium/Poor B. Good C. Poor D. Medium

C. Poor

Which of the statements below describes the take-off run available (TORA)? A. The length of the runway declared available and suitable for the ground run of an aeroplane taking off. B. The length of the runway plus the length of the clearway. C. The length of the runway plus the length of the stopway. D. The length of the runway declared available and suitable for the ground run of an aeroplane landing.

A. The length of the runway declared available and suitable for the ground run of an aeroplane taking off.

442 The declared take-off run available at an aerodrome is: A. the take-off distance available less the stopway. B. the take-off distance available less the clearway. C. the take-off distance available less the clearway and the stopway. D. the same as the landing distance available.

B. the take-off distance available less the clearway.

440 In the "Aerodrome Reference Code" the code element 2 shall identify A. the aircraft wingspan and the outer main gear wheel span. B. only the aircraft wingspan. C. the width of the aircraft Wing. D. the length of the aircraft fuselage.

A. the aircraft wingspan and the outer main gear wheel span.

439 A specific point, measured and reported to the aeronautical Information services authority in degrees, minutes and seconds, which normally corresponds to the geometric centre of an airport is: A. the threshold position of runway in use. B. the aerodrome reference point. C. the position of the tower. D. the midpoint of the runway.

B. the aerodrome reference point.

438 "ASDA" (Acceleration Stop Distance Available) is: A. the length of the take-off run available plus the length of stopway (if stopway provided). B. the length of the runway plus the length of stopway available (if stopway provided). C. the length of the take-off run available plus the length of stopway and clearway (if provided). D. the length of the take-off run available plus the length of the clearway.

A. the length of the take-off run available plus the length of stopway (if stopway provided).

437 Where is a stopway situated? A. At the end of the LDA. B. At the end of the TORA. C. At the end of the ASDA. D. At the end of the TODA.

B. At the end of the TORA.

436 Runway centreline markings shall be provided on: A. paved runways B. instrument runways C. runways which have a width of 45 m or more. D. runways which have a length of 1 200 m or more

A. paved runways

435 A runway friction coefficient for a specific runway is reported by the ATS as "040´. This corresponds to ___ braking action. A. poor B. medium/good C. medium/poor D. good

D. good

434 On a FLOODED runway A. the surface shows a change of colour due to moisture. B. the surface is soaked but no significant patches of standing water are visible. C. extensive standing water is visible. D. significant patches of standing water are visible.

C. extensive standing water is visible.

433 On a DAMP runway: A. the surface is soaked but no significant patches of standing water are visible. B. significant patches of standing water are visible. C. the surface shows a change of colour due to moisture. D. extensive standing water is visible.

C. the surface shows a change of colour due to moisture.

432 On a WET runway: A. extensive standing water is visible. B. the surface shows a change of colour due to moisture. C. significant patches of standing water are visible. D. the surface is soaked but no significant patches of standing water are visible.

D. the surface is soaked but no significant patches of standing water are visible.

431 When the runway surface is soaked but there is no standing water, the correct term describing the runway surface condition is A. damp B. wet C. water patches D. flooded

B. wet

430 According with the "Aerodrome Reference Code" the "Code number 4" shall identify an aircraft reference field length of: A. +1200 m. B. +1600 m. C. +1500 m. D. 1 800 m and over.

D. 1 800 m and over.

428 The "Aerodrome Reference Code" is a code composed of two elements which are related to the aeroplane performance characteristics and dimensions. These elements are a combination of a number and a letter as in the example under listed: A. 4G B. 6D C. 5E D. 2B

D. 2B

427 Dry snow is snow which: A. has a specific gravity over 0.5. B. will fall apart again if compacted by hand. C. will form a snowball if compacted by hand. D. has a low water content.

B. will fall apart again if compacted by hand.

426 With reference to a runway strip you can se that it includes part of runway and: A. a runway end safety area. B. a clearway to execute part of the airborne operations. C. a clearway for take-off and landing operations. D. a stopway in which an aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off.

D. a stopway in which an aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off.

425 A ___ is defined as an area of specific dimensions enclosing a runway or taxiway to provide for the safety of aircraft operations. A. strip B. shoulder C. obstacle free zone D. threshold

A. strip

424 Explain the term "runway strip": A. A defined area including the runway, stopway and clearway, if provided. B. A defined area including the runway and stopway, if provided. C. A defined area including the runway, taxiway and stopway, if provided. D. A defined area including the runway, taxiway, stopway and clearway, if provided.

B. A defined area including the runway and stopway, if provided.

422 What colour are emergency vehicles painted that are used on the manouevring area of an aerodrome? A. Green B. Orange C. A single conspicuous colour, preferably red or yellowish green. D. White and red chequered.

C. A single conspicuous colour, preferably red or yellowish green.

420 Runway centreline lights must be provided: A. on runways equipped for category 1 precision approaches. B. on a precision approach runway category II or III C. on runways intended to be used for take-off with an RVR > 400 m aeroplanes with high landing speeds. D. on runways equipped for category 1 precision approaches where the runway width is less than 45 m.

B. on a precision approach runway category II or III

418 How many pairs of touchdown zone markings are required on a runway with a length of 1500 m? A. 6 B. 5 C. 4 D. 3

C. 4

414 A runway threshold marking shall consist of a pattern of longitudinal stripes symmetrical about the centreline of the runway. If the runway is 45 m wide, how many stripes are required? A. 6 B. 8 C. 12 D. 16

C. 12

412 The standard configuration of a full CAT 1 approach light system includes ____ crossbars. A. 5 B. 4 C. 3 D. 2

A. 5

411 Where are taxiway centreline lights showing alternating green and yellow installed? A. On that part of the apron being under control of an apron control unit. B. On that parts of taxiways which are not separated from a runway within the perimeter of the ILS/MLS critical/sensitive area. C. On all taxiways within the perimeter of the ILS/MLS critical/sensitive area. D. From the beginning of a taxiway near the runway centreline to the perimeter of the ILS/MLS critical/sensitive area.

D. From the beginning of a taxiway near the runway centreline to the perimeter of the ILS/MLS critical/sensitive area.

410 Which of the following represents a valid configuration for aerodrome signs? A. Black inscription on red background. B. Yellow inscription on black background: or black inscription on yellow background. C. Red inscription on white background. D. Orange inscription on black background.

B. Yellow inscription on black background: or black inscription on yellow background.

409 A red square panel with one yellow diagonal strip, displayed in the signals area of an aerodrome indicates: A. aerodrome control is not available. B. the state of the manoeuvring area is poor. C. the airfield is unusable. D. glider flying is in progress.

B. the state of the manoeuvring area is poor.

408 Low intensity obstacle lights on fixed objects shall be: A. flashing yellow. B. flashing red. C. fixed red. D. fixed orange.

C. fixed red.

407 "Fixed distance markings" on certain precision approach runways are located: A. 300 m from the threshold. B. 1500 ft from the threshold. C. 650 m from the threshold. D. 150m from the threshold.

A. 300 m from the threshold.

406 High intensity obstacle lights should be: A. fixed orange. B. flashing red. C. fixed red. D. flashing white.

D. flashing white.

405 Low-intensity obstacle lights, Type C, displayed on vehicles associated with emergency shall be: A. flashing blue or red. B. flashing blue or green. C. flashing yellow. D. flashing blue.

D. flashing blue.

404 Low intensity obstacle lights on mobile objects shall be: A. fixed red or preferably blue. B. flashing blue. C. fixed red or preferably orange. D. flashing-blue or flashing-yellow.

D. flashing-blue or flashing-yellow.

403 The pre-threshold area of a runway fit for use by aircraft as a stopway, but not for normal movement of aircraft is marked with: A. white arrows directing approaching aircraft to the displaced threshold. B. yellow chevrons pointing towards the threshold. C. a yellow X. D. a white X.

B. yellow chevrons pointing towards the threshold.

402 How is a paved pre-threshold area which is greater than 60 m in length but not suitable for use by aircraft, marked? A. By white arrows directing approaching aircraft to the displaced threshold. B. By yellow chevrons pointing towards the threshold. C. By a yellow X. D. By a white X.

D. By a white X.

401 A sequence of white arrows painted on the runway surface along the centreline indicate: A. a non-load bearing surface. B. a pre-threshold area marking C. a temporarily or permanently displaced threshold. D. the touchdown zone marking.

C. a temporarily or permanently displaced threshold.

400 The following markings are used to indicate a runway or a taxiway is closed: A. White crosses for runways and yellow crosses for taxiways. B. Yellow crosses for runways and white crosses for taxiways. C. White crosses for runways only closed to operations aircraft with a take-off mass greater 5700 kg. D. Yellow crosses for runways only closed to operations by aircraft with a take-off mass greater 5700 kg.

A. White crosses for runways and yellow crosses for taxiways.

399 The abbreviation PAPI stands for A. precision approach path installation B. precision approach path indicator C. presumed aviation procedure instruction D. precise aerodrome parking information

B. precision approach path indicator

398 In which cases is the aerodrome lighting of an aerodrome being turned on as a basic principle? A. in case of poor weather, e.g. rain or snow B. in IMC C. after sunrise D. on request by pilot

B. in IMC and D. on request by pilot

397 The abbreviation PAPI stands for: A. Precision Approach Power Index. B. Precision Approach Path Index. C. Precision Approach Power Indicator D. Precision Approach Path Indicator

D. Precision Approach Path Indicator

396 A runway end safety area includes: A. the full runway and a symmetrically disposed area either side of the centerline which can be used by aircraft in an emergency. B. an area symmetrical about the extended runway centre line and adjacent to the end of the strip primarily intended to reduce the risk of damage to an aeroplane undershooting or overrunning the runway. C. the clearway and a symmetrically disposed area either side of the centerline which can be used by aircraft in an emergency. D. the stopway and an area symmetrical about the extended runway centre line and adjacent to the end of the strip primarily intended to reduce the risk of damage to an aeroplane undershooting or overrunning the runway.

B. an area symmetrical about the extended runway centre line and adjacent to the end of the strip primarily intended to reduce the risk of damage to an aeroplane undershooting or overrunning the runway.

395 In what colour shall mobile objects, like airport service vehicles, be painted? A. red B. green C. blue D. yellow

D. yellow

394 What colour are apron markings (apron safety lines)? A. White B. Red C. Green D. A contrasting colour from the taxiway markings.

D. A contrasting colour from the taxiway markings.

393 Alternating taxiway centreline lights shall show and near the runway centreline to the perimeter of the ILS/MLS critical/sensitive area. A. yellow; white B. red; green C. green; yellow D. green; white

C. green; yellow

392 The standard color used for runway markings shall be: A. yellow. B. white. C. white or yellow. D. contrasting to the runway surface and accepttable to the authority.

B. white.

391 What lighting is required for runways to be used for take-off in an operating 908 minimum below an RVR of approximately 400 m? A. Centerline lights. B. Edge lights. C. Edge lights and centerline lights. D. Either edge lights or centerline lights

C. Edge lights and centerline lights.

390 An "aiming point marking" shall be provided at the approach end of a paved instrument runway if the runway length is greater than: A. 600m. B. 800 m. C. 1000m. D. 1200m.

B. 800 m.

389 Runway edge lights shall consist of at least: A. fixed lights showing variable white. B. fixed lights showing steady green. C. flashing lights showing variable yellow. D. flashing lights showing variable green. Points:

A. fixed lights showing variable white.

388 The light shown by an "Aerodrome Identification Beacon" at a land aerodrome shall be: A. White and green color identification given by Morse Code B. Green color identification given by Morse Code. C. Blue color identification given by Morse Code D. White color Identification given by Morse Code.

B. Green color identification given by Morse Code.

387 Alternating yellow/ green centreline lights of a taxiway indicate: A. a rapid exit taxiway. B. an ILS/MLS critical / sensitive area. C. a speed restriction area. D. the proximity of a runway.

B. an ILS/MLS critical / sensitive area.

385 Which of the following describes a "Location sign" A. Red writing on a white background. B. Yellow writing on a black background. C. White writing on a red background. D. Red writing on a yellow background.

B. Yellow writing on a black background.

384 Aerodrome aeronautical beacons usually show: A. a two letter identification code in red. B. a two letter identification code in green. C. a white flashing strobe light. D. a two letter identification code in white.

C. a white flashing strobe light.

383 Runway edge lights are: A. fixed variable intensity unidirectional showing green. B. fixed variable intensity unidirectional showing blue. C. fixed variable intensity unidirectional showing red. D. fixed variable intensity unidirectional showing white or yellow.

D. fixed variable intensity unidirectional showing white or yellow.

382 Which of the following aerodrome ground signals displayed in the Signals area indicates that glider flying is in progress? A. A white double cross. B. A black letter -C- on a yellow background. C. A green ball suspended from a mast D. A white dumbbell.

A. A white double cross.

381 The colour of the fixed, unidirectional runway threshold wing bar lights shall be: A. Yellow B. White C. Green D. Red

C. Green

380 When a runway threshold is displaced, what colour shall the runway edge lights have in approach direction between the beginning of the runway and the displaced threshold? A. Blue, this portion of the runway is considered as taxiway. B. White C. Red D. Flashing red, intermittent with flashing white.

C. Red

379 Touchdown zone markings are placed: A. 150 m from the runway threshold. B. 300 m from the runway threshold C. 450m from the runway threshold D. 900 m from the upwind end of the runway

A. 150 m from the runway threshold.

378 Which of the following describes runway threshold lights? A. Red undirectional. B. Green omni-directional. C. Red omni-directional D. Green unidirectional.

D. Green unidirectional.

377 In the case of parallel runways, each runway designation number shall be supplemented: A. by a number like "O" and "01" for 2 parallel runways. B. by a letter - for example 2 parallel runways "L" and "R" - for 3 "L", "C" and"R". C. by a letter for 2 parallel runways. D. by a letter - for example 3 parallel runways -"L" and "R" and the central has no letter.

B. by a letter - for example 2 parallel runways "L" and "R" - for 3 "L", "C" and"R".

370 When on or close to the approach slope, the wing bar of a PAPI shows: A. two red lights and two white lights. B. four red lights. C. four white lights. D. three white lights and one red light

A. two red lights and two white lights.

367 Runway threshold lights shall be: A. fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the direction of approach to the runway. B. fixed unidirectional lights showing green in the direction of approach to the runway. C. fixed lights green colours. D. fixed lights showing green or white colours.

B. fixed unidirectional lights showing green in the direction of approach to the runway.

365 From which of the following would you expect to find details of the Search and Rescue Organisation and procedures (SAR)? A. ATCC broadcasts. B. AIP. C. NOTAM. D. SIGMET.

B. AIP.

364 What is the standard colour code for maps/charts when considering the aeronautical information circular (AIC)? A. white B. yellow C. green D. mauve

C. green

363 SIGMET information can be found in which part of the AIP? A. GEN B. AGA C. ENR D. MET

A. GEN

361 Which part of the AIP contains a list with "Location Indicators"? A. GEN B. ENR C. LOC D. AD

A. GEN

360 The closure of a runway for a year, because of maintenance, will be published: A. in NOTAM and AIP, inclusive Supplement. B. only in AIP. C. NOTAM. D. only in NfL.

A. in NOTAM and AIP, inclusive Supplement.

359 What is the standard colour code for a safety document when considering the aeronautical information circular (AIC)? A. Pink B. Red C. Yellow D. White

A. Pink

358 Which part of the AIP contains information relating to existing prohibited, restricted, and danger areas? A. GEN B. ENR C. MAP D. AGA

B. ENR

357 Which part of the AIP contains information on holding, approach, and departure procedures? A. MAP B. GEN C. ENR D. AD

C. ENR

356 In which part of the AIP will you find information about special lights during landing (communication failure)? A. AD B. GEN C. ENR D. AD and GEN

C. ENR

354 Operationally significant changes to the AIP shall be published in accordance with: A. NOTOC B. NOTAM followed by a number C. AIRAC D. AIC

C. AIRAC

353 Which part of the AIP contains a brief description of the service(s) responsible for search and rescue? A. ENR B. SAR C. GEN D. AD

C. GEN

352 "A publication issued by or with the authority of a State and containing aeronautical information of a lasting character essential to air navigation" is the definition of: A. NOTAM B. Aeronautical Information Circular (AIC) C. Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP) D. Aeronautical Information Regulation and Control (AIRAC).

C. Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP)

351 What is the purpose of AIS? A. To ensure the flow of information necessary for the safety, regularity and efficiency of international air navigation. B. To ensure good contact between ATC services and flight crews. C. Providing the ATC service to pilots in the air. D. To ensure that all aeronautical documents and publications are kept up to date.

A. To ensure the flow of information necessary for the safety, regularity and efficiency of international air navigation.

350 The system notifying in advance the circumstances requiring important changes in the methods of operation, based on common effective dates, is identified by the acronym: A. AIRAC B. NOTAM C. PANS D. IFPS

A. AIRAC

348 Temporary changes of long duration and information of "short duration" with text and/or graphics are published as AIP supplements. The period of "long duration" is defined as: A. 3 months or longer. B. 2 months or longer. C. 1 year or longer. D. 6 months or longer.

A. 3 months or longer.

347 An AIRAC is: A. A notice distributed by means of telecommunication containing information concerning the establishment, condition or change in any aeronautical facility, service, procedure or hazard, the timely knowledge of which is essential to personnel concerned with flight operations. B. A package which consists of the following elements: AIP, supplements to the AIP, NOTAM, AIC, checklists and summaries. C. A publication issued by or with the authority of a state containing aeronautical information of a lasting character essential to air navigation. D. An acronym for a system aimed at advance notification based on common effective dates, of circumstances necessitating significant changes in operating procedures.

D. An acronym for a system aimed at advance notification based on common effective dates, of circumstances necessitating significant changes in operating procedures.

346 How are restricted (R), prohibited (P) and dangerous (D) areas represented? A. By the letters R, P or D. B. By the letters R, P or D and additionally with an ID number. C. By the letters RPD and an ID number. D. By the letters RAY, PA or DA and additionally with an ID number.

B. By the letters R, P or D and additionally with an ID number.

345 Select the acronym corresponding to the following definition: "A special NOTAM series notifying, by means of a specific format, an important change for the aircraft operations, due to a volcano activity, a volcano eruption or a volcanic ash cloud". A. VULTAM B. NAVTAM C. ASHTAM D. VOLCAM

C. ASHTAM

344 The identification of each prohibited, restricted and danger area shall be composed by: A. The nationality letters for the location indicators assigned to the state, followed by P, R and D. B. The letters P (Prohibited), R (Restricted) and D (Dangerous) for the area concerned and figures. C. The nationality letters for location indicators assigned to the state or territory, followed by the letters P, R and D and figures. D. The letters P (Prohibited), R (Restricted) and D (Dangerous) followed by figures.

C. The nationality letters for location indicators assigned to the state or territory, followed by the letters P, R and D and figures.

343 An Integrated Aeronautical Information Package consists of the following elements: A. AIP, including amendment service; supplements to AIP, NOTAM, AIC and checklist summaries. B. AIP, including amendment service; supplements to AIP; NOTAM and pre-flight information bulletin (PIB); AIC; checklists and summaries. C. AIP, including amendment service; supplements to AIP; NOTAM, AIC; AIRAC. D. AIP, supplements to AIP; NOTAM and PIB; AIC and checklist summaries.

B. AIP, including amendment service; supplements to AIP; NOTAM and pre-flight information bulletin (PIB); AIC; checklists and summaries.

342 Information concerning snow, ice and standing water associated with snow on aerodrome pavement areas is to be reported by: A. ASHTAM B. ICETAM C. SNOWTAM D. NOTAM Class I

C. SNOWTAM

341 Each contracting state shall provide an Aeronautical Information Service (AIS) in its territory and for areas in which the state is responsible for the Air Traffic Services outside its territory, and this shall include the preparation and origination of: A. only NOTAMs and Circulars B. integrated Aeronautical Information Package. C. only AIP and NOTAMs. D. AIP, NOTAMs, Circular and AIRAC.

B. integrated Aeronautical Information

339 The temporary, long-term modification (3 months or more) and the short-term extensive or graphical information are published as follows: A. AIP Amendments. B. Trigger NOTAM. C. AIP Supplements. D. NOTAM.

C. AIP Supplements.

338 What is the standard colour code for a danger area map when considering information circular (AIC)? A. Green B. White C. Mauve D. Yellow

C. Mauve

337 In which section of AIP would you find the information elements referring to routes (and/or areas) for which meteorological services are provided? A. MET B. GEN C. RAC D. ENR

B. GEN

336 A notice containing information concerning flight safety, air navigation, technical, administration or legislative matters and originated at the AIS of a state is called: A. Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP). B. Aeronautical Information Circular (AIC). C. AIRAC. D. NOTAM.

B. Aeronautical Information Circular (AIC).

334 The contents of Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP) are: A. GEN, ENR (en-route) and AD (aerodromes) B. GEN, AGA, COM, RAC, FAL SAR, MET, MAP C. GEN, AGA, COM, ENR, FAL D. GEN, ENR, RAC, AD

A. GEN, ENR (en-route) and AD (aerodromes)

333 The aeronautical information publication (AIP-) VFR shows the entry "PPR" for an aerodrome in item "operating hours". What does this abbreviation stand for? A. It is a military aerodrome. Pilots with a private licence may only approach this aerodrome with a special permission of the BMVI. B. Landing on this aerodrome may only be performed with prior permission of the person responsible for flight operations. There is no obligation to operate. C. Only PPL holders with a special permit issued by the aeronautical authority may approach and land on this aerodrome. D. Only holders of a permit issued by the Federal Ministry of Transport and Digital Infrastructure may land on this aerodrome. Obligation to operate exists "upon demand".

B. Landing on this aerodrome may only be performed with prior permission of the person responsible for flight operations. There is no obligation to operate.

332 The Aeronautical Information Service has the following tasks, among others A. to transmit meteorological reports B. to inform Search and Rescue Services C. to issue take-off clearances D. to accept, check and forward flight plans

D. to accept, check and forward flight plans

331 What are the contents of an “NFL 1”? A. important regulation for aviation concerning realisation of flight operations B. information via electronic means about short-term failures of ground facilities or operational limitations if information can not be conveyed by regular mail in time C. aviation personnel and airworthiness directives D. planned modifications of annexes, regulations, procedures, restrictions and hazards which are of special significance for border-crossing air traffic

A. important regulation for aviation concerning realisation of flight operations

330 A checklist of valid NOTAM currently in force shall be issued over the Aeronautical Fixed Service (AFS) at intervals of not more than: A. one month. B. 28 days. C. 15 days. D. 10 days.

A. one month.

329 Operationally significant changes to the AIP shall be published in accordance with: A. AIP supplements and shall be clearly identified. B. NOTAM procedures and identified by acronym NOTAM followed by a number. C. AIRAC procedures and identified by the acronym AIRAC. D. AIC procedures and identified by the acronym AIC followed by a number.

C. AIRAC procedures and identified by the acronym AIRAC.

328 A checklist of AIP supplements currently in force shall be issued at intervals of: A. not more than 28 days. B. not more than 2 months. C. not more than three months. D. not more than one month.

D. not more than one month.

327 Which part of the AIP contains the information concerning charges for the use of aerodromes/heliports and for the provision of Air Navigation Services? A. AD B. GEN C. FAL D. AIP does not contain this information

B. GEN

324 Which part of the AIP contains a detailed description of meteorological information provided at an aerodrome? A. GND B. GEN C. MET D. AD

D. AD

321 The ASHTAM provides information on the status of activity of a volcano when a change in its activity is, or is expected to be of operational significance. This information is provided using the volcano level of colour code. When volcanic eruption in progress or volcano dangerous, eruption likely, with ash plume/ cloud is reported above FL250 or is expected to rise above FL250, the level of alert colour code is: A. YELLOW B. RED C. GREEN D. ORANGE

B. RED

320 Which part of the AIP contains a detailed description of lower ATS routes? A. RTE B. ENR C. REG D. GEN

B. ENR

317 What is the objective of filing an ATIR (Air Traffic Incident Report)? A To promote aircraft flight safety. B To allocate blame for an incident. C To increase the efficiency of the investigation. D All of the above.

A To promote aircraft flight safety.

315 IFR cruising levels within controlled airspace shall be given as Flight Level pery (FL): A only in airspace class A. B when QNH is higher than the standard pressure 1 013 hPa. C above the Transition Altitude when applicable. D if the obstacle clearance is more than 2000 feet.

C above the Transition Altitude when applicable.

314 The Transition Level: A is published on the approach and landing chart for each aerodrome. B will be passed to aircraft by ATS units. C is calculated by the pilot in command. D is published and updated in the NOTAM.

B will be passed to aircraft by ATS units.

312 Essential traffic information shall be given to: A all controlled flights at any time. B all flights that are "known" to ATC. C controlled flights, whenever they constitute essential traffic to each other. D all aircraft at the discretion of the air traffic controller.

C controlled flights, whenever they constitute essential traffic to each other.

311 A controlled flight is: A any flight in C, D or E class airspace. B any flight in controlled airspace. C any flight which is subject to an ATC clearance. D any IFR flight.

C any flight which is subject to an ATC clearance.

310 Following an AIRPROX incident, an Air Traffic Incident Report (ATIR) should be submitted: A within 24 hours. B within 7 days. C to the air traffic service unit concerned. D immediately after landing.

C to the air traffic service unit concerned.

309 Controlled airspace is: A an area within a FIR in which an ATC service is provided. B an area within a FIR/UIR in which an ATC service is provided. C an area within a UIR only in which an ATC service is provided. D an area with a lower limit which is above ground level.

B an area within a FIR/UIR in which an ATC service is provided.

308 What is the meaning of abbreviation "ACC"? A Airways Clearance Cancelled. B Area Control Centre. C Acknowledge. D Approach Control Centre.

B Area Control Centre.

307 The letter "L" is written in the wake turbulence box of a flight plan form when the maximum certified take-off weight of an aircraft is less than or equal to: A 20000 kg. B 14000 kg. C 7000 kg. D 5 700 kg for airplanes and 2 700 kg for helicopters.

C 7000 kg.

305 In an incident report, how can you find "aircraft proximity" in form of an abbreviation? A PROXIMITY B ACPROX C AIRPROX D PROXAIR

C AIRPROX

304 Control Area (CTA) is defined as follows: A A controlled airspace extending upwards from a height of 1 000 feet above the Earth. B A controlled airspace extending upwards from a height of 900 feet above the Earth. C A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the Earth to a specified limit D A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the Earth.

D A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the Earth.

302 Unless instructed otherwise by an air traffic controller, when passing through 625 the Transition Layer, a pilot shall report the vertical position of the aircraft as: A either altitude or flight level in a climb. B flight level in a descent. C altitude in a climb. D altitude in a descent

D altitude in a descent

301 Whenever unlawful interference with an aircraft is suspected, and where automatic distinct display of SSR Mode A code 7500 and code 7700 is not provided, the radar controller shall attempt to verify this suspicion by: A setting the SSR decoder to Mode A 7500 then to standby and thereafter to code 7700. B setting the SSR decoder to Mode A code 7000 and thereafter to code 7500. C setting the SSR decoder to Mode A code 7500 and thereafter to code 7700. D setting the SSR decoder to Mode A 7700 then to standby and thereafter to code 7500.

C setting the SSR decoder to Mode A code 7500 and thereafter to code 7700.

300 Regarding Aerodrome Flight Information Service (AFIS): A it can only supply limited services to the users and under no circumstances may supply ATC services. B its purpose is to supply ATC services but it is not a state organisation. C it has the same privileges and prerogatives as an ATC organisation but its activity is neither continuous nor regular. D its only purpose is to relay ATC information to the aircraft in flight or on the ground.

A it can only supply limited services to the users and under no circumstances may supply ATC services.

299 A Special Air Report shall be made by the pilot: A following an AI RP ROX incident. B when experiencing severe icing or turbulence. C in case an unruly passenger is identified to be on board. D when the destination ETA changes by plus or minus 10 minutes.

B when experiencing severe icing or turbulence.

298 If an ATC clearance is not suitable to the pilot-in-command of an aircraft the following applies: A The flight crew may propose another clearance. ATC has to amend the clearance in accordance with the flight crew's request. B The flight crew may request an amended ATC clearance from the ATC unit. Amended ATC clearances will only be given when VMC prevails. C The flight crew may request and, if practicable, obtain an amended ATC clearance. D The flight crew has to accept the ATC clearance. The ATC clearance is based on the flight plan filed with ATC unit.

C The flight crew may request and, if practicable, obtain an amended ATC clearance.

297 Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, the horizontal radar separation minimum shall be: A 3 NM B 3.5 NM C 5 NM D 10 NM

C 5 NM

296 An Air Traffic Control Unit: A may not ask an aircraft to change its call sign after accepting the flight plan B may instruct an aircraft to temporarily change its call sign for safety reasons when there is a risk of confusion between two or more similar call signs. C may require to change the call sign for safety reasons when there is a risk of confusion between two or more similar call signs providing the aircraft is on a repetitive flight plan. D must not ask an aircraft to change its call sign.

B may instruct an aircraft to temporarily change its call sign for safety reasons when there is a risk of confusion between two or more similar call signs.

295 Air Traffic Service unit means: A Flight Information Centres and Air Services reporting offices. B Air Traffic Control units and Flight Information Centres. C Air Traffic Control units and Air Services reporting offices. D Air Traffic Control units, Flight Information Centres or Air Traffic Services reporting offices.

D Air Traffic Control units, Flight Information Centres or Air Traffic Services reporting offices.

294 Altimeter settings provided to aircraft shall be rounded: A down to the nearest lower half hectopascal. B up to the nearest higher half hectopascal. C down to the nearest lower whole hectopascal. D up to the nearest higher whole hectopascal.

C down to the nearest lower whole hectopascal.

292 What is the ceiling needed for at a controlled aerodrome? A to give a reason to switch on the aerodrome lighting system B to advice pilots about areas of bad weather C to determine the status of the control zone IMC/VMC D to enable pilots to hold sufficient distance to other VFR-flights

C to determine the status of the control zone IMC/VMC

291 Which statements about German danger areas and restricted areas are correct? A danger areas are never found above land territory B restricted areas might be entered if the BAF has given a permission generally C restricted areas might be entered if using adequate caution D restricted areas might be entered by rescue-flights after prior coordination

A danger areas are never found above land territory B restricted areas might be entered if the BAF has given a permission generally D restricted areas might be entered by rescue-flights after prior coordination

290 Which types of air traffic control services are executed by the DFS (Air Navigation Services) as a basic principle? A aerodrome control service B alerting service C approach control service D flight information service

A aerodrome control service C approach control service

289 Which airspace/airspaces in Germany require additionally to other requirements, "visual ground contact" for VFR flights? A D B E C G D A

C G

287 Is there a distance from clouds prescribed for a VFR flight in airspace G below altitude 3000 ft or 1000 ft GND? A yes, at least 1.5 km horizontal and 1000 ft vertically B yes, but it depends on specific conditions - such as altitude/height, speed, type of aircraft C yes, at least 500 m horizontal and 500 ft vertically D no

D no

286 Air traffic control clearances at aerodromes are issued by the A aerodrome operator B aerodrome service C respective air traffic control unit D respective aviation supervision

C respective air traffic control unit

285 Which minimum requirements and air traffic services apply for VFR flights in airspace D (below FL100)? A flight visibility 5 km, cloud distance 1500 ft vertically, 1500 m horizontally, listening watch, max. 250 kts IAS, air traffic control clearance, separation to IFR flights. B flight visibility 5 km, cloud distance 1000 ft vertically, 1000 m horizontally, max. 250 kts IAS, air traffic control clearance, listening watch, no separation to IFR flights, air traffic control, traffic information. C flight visibility 8 km, cloud distance 1000 ft vertically, 1500 m horizontally, listening watch, air traffic control clearance, separation to IFR flights, air traffic control, max. 250 kts IAS. D flight visibility 5 km, cloud distance 1500 m horizontally, 1000 ft vertically, air traffic control, continuous air-ground voice communications, max. 250 kts IAS, traffic information in respect of all other flights and traffic avoidance advice on request.

D flight visibility 5 km, cloud distance 1500 m horizontally, 1000 ft vertically, air traffic control, continuous air-ground voice communications, max. 250 kts IAS, traffic information in respect of all other flights and traffic avoidance advice on request.

284 At which altitude/FL in Germany do flight information regions (FIR) end? A FL 190 B FL 245 C FL 460 D unlimited

B FL 245

283 How are VFR flights separated in airspace C and which air traffic control services do apply? A VFR flights are only separated at nighttime – air traffic control, flight information service. B VFR flights are separated from IFR flights – air traffic control, traffic information VFR/VFR flights (traffic avoidance advice upon request). C All VFR flights are separated – air traffic control. D VFR flights are separated from IFR flights – air traffic advisory service, if possible.

B VFR flights are separated from IFR flights – air traffic control, traffic information VFR/VFR flights (traffic avoidance advice upon request).

282 Which does ATC Term "radar contact" signify? A Your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight instructions will be provided until radar identification is terminated. B Your aircraft has been identified and you will receive separation from all aircraft while in contact with this radar facility. C You will be given traffic advisories until advised that the service has been terminated or that radar contact has been lost. D ATC is receiving your transponder and will furnish vectors and traffic advisories until you are advised that contact has been lost.

A Your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight instructions will be provided until radar identification is terminated.

280 When operating under Special VFR clearance, the responsibility for remaining clear of obstacles on the ground rests with: A the pilot in the controls. B Air Traffic Control (ATC). C the pilot-in-command. D both the ATC and the pilot-in-command.

C the pilot-in-command.

279 A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the Earth is: A control area. B control zone. C advisory airspace. D flight information region.

A control area.

278 Traffic to which the provision of ATC is applicable, but which, in relation to a particular controlled flight, is not separated there from by the minima set forth is called: A emergency traffic. B essential traffic. C urgent traffic. D crossing traffic.

B essential traffic.

276 A pilot encountering windshear should report the fact to ATC: A only if windshear has not been previously reported. B if windshear has not been forecast or reported. C only if windshear has not been forecast. D as soon as possible.

D as soon as possible.

275 ESSENTIAL TRAFFIC is that controlled flight to which the provision of separation by ATC is applicable, but which, in relation to a particular controlled flight is not separated therefore by the appropriate separation minima. Whenever separation minima are not applied, the following flights are considered essential traffic one to each other: A Controlled VFR flights and VFR flights. B All IFR flight in controlled airspaces and controlled VFR. C All IFR flights. D Only controlled IFR flights.

B All IFR flight in controlled airspaces and controlled VFR.

274 What is the meaning of the abbreviation "AFIS"? A Aerodrome Flashing Identification Signal. B Automatic Flight Information Service. C Aeronautical Flight Information System. D Aerodrome Flight Information Service.

D Aerodrome Flight Information Service.

273 What is the latest time the QNH should be communicated to aircraft prior to take-off? A When taxi approval is given. B When the ATC clearance is delivered. C When start-up approval is given. D When take-off clearance is given.

A When taxi approval is given.

272 The definition of "Manoeuvring Area" is: A that part of an aerodrome to be used for take-off, landing and taxiing of aircraft, including apron(s). B that part of an aerodrome to be used for take-off, landing and taxiing of aircraft, excluding apron(s). C that part of an aerodrome to be used for take-off, landing and taxiing of aircraft, including movement area and apron(s). D none of the above is correct.

B that part of an aerodrome to be used for take-off, landing and taxiing of aircraft, excluding apron(s).

271 Which statement is correct regarding clearances issued by ATC controllers? A Clearances are always valid to destination. B Clearances do not relieve pilots from their responsibility to comply with rules and regulations. C Clearances are always issued on a "first come" basis. D Clearances are always valid to the FIR boundary.

B Clearances do not relieve pilots from their responsibility to comply with rules and regulations.

268 The ATIS broadcast message should, whenever practicable, not exceed: A 3 minutes. B 1 minute. C 2 minutes. D 30 seconds.

D 30 seconds.

267 Clearances will be issued by an ATC unit for the purpose of: A achieving separation between controlled flights. B providing Flight Information Service. C providing Advisory Services. D providing Alerting Services.

A achieving separation between controlled flights.

266 The phases related to an aircraft in emergency or believed to be in an emergency are: A uncertainty phase, alert phase, distress phase and urgency phase. B uncertainty phase, urgency phase, distress phase. C uncertainty phase, distress phase, urgency phase. D uncertainty phase, alert phase, distress phase.

D uncertainty phase, alert phase, distress phase.

265 An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted and receive only flight information service if requested, is classified as: A airspace C. B airspace F. C airspace G. D airspace E.

C airspace G.

263 At least how many NM shall a Control Zone extend from a reference point of the aerodrome or aerodromes into the direction from which approaches may be made? A 7.5 NM B 5 NM C 10 NM D 12 NM

B 5 NM

262 The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as C, when flying below 3050 m (10,000 ft) AMSL, is: A 240 kts IAS. B 250 kts IAS. C 250 kts TAS. D not applicable.

D not applicable.

261 How do you know that you are flying through the area of a controlled aerodrome? A There will be ATS traffic. B There is a TMA and a CTR. C The aerodrome uses radar. D ATC is provided to aerodrome traffic.

D ATC is provided to aerodrome traffic.

260 Which type of service is provided in Class F airspace? A Air Traffic Advisory service and Flight Information Service. B Air Traffic Control service and Flight Information Service. C Flight Information Service. D Air Traffic Advisory service.

A Air Traffic Advisory service and Flight Information Service.

259 An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control service and IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and from VFR flights, VFR flights are separated from IFR flights and receive traffic information in respect of other VFR flights, is classified as: A airspace C. B airspace D. C airspace E. D airspace B.

A airspace C.

256 An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted, IFR flights are subject to Air Traffic Control Service and are separated from other IFR flights. All flights receive traffic information as far as is practical, is classified as: A airspace A. B airspace G. C airspace B. D airspace E.

D airspace E.

253 A Control Zone shall extend laterally to at least: A 15 miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from which approaches may be made. B 20 miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from which approaches may be made. C 5 nautical miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from which approaches may be made. D 10 miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from which approaches may be made.

C 5 nautical miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from which approaches may be made.

249 A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the Earth to a specified upper limit is: A air traffic zone. B control area. C control zone. D advisory airspace.

C control zone.

246 In radio communications, "DISTRESS" differs from "URGENCY"because in the first case: A the aeroplane will not be able to reach a suitable aerodrome. B the aeroplane has suffered damages which impair its fitness to fly. C there is a serious and imminent danger requiring immediate assistance. D the aeroplane or a passenger's safety require the flight immediately interrupted.

C there is a serious and imminent danger requiring immediate assistance.

241 Which provisions on a VFR flight in Class E airspace are correct? A Service provided: Air Traffic Control Service; ATC Clearance: not required. B Service provided: Traffic Information as far as practical; ATC Clearance: not required. C Service provided: Air Traffic Control Service; ATC Clearance: required. C Service provided: Traffic Information as far as practical; ATC Clearance: required.

B Service provided: Traffic Information as far as practical; ATC Clearance: not required.

237. The speed limitation for both IFR flights and VFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as B, when flying below 3050 m (10000 ft.) AMLS, is: A. not applicable. B. 240 kts IAS. C. 250 kts IAS. D. 250 kts TAS.

A. not applicable.

235. ATIS broadcast: A. shall not be transmitted on the voice of a VOR. B. shall be transmitted on the voice channel of an ILS, on a discrete VHF frequency or on the voice channel of a VOR. C. shall not be transmitted on the voice channel of an ILS. D. shall only be transmitted on a discrete VHF frequency.

C. shall not be transmitted on the voice channel of an ILS.

234. Flight Information Region (FIR) is an airspace within which the following services are provided: A. Flight Information Service, Alerting Service and Advisory Service. B. Flight Information Service only. C. Flight Information Service and Advisory Service. D. Flight Information Service and Alerting Service.

D. Flight Information Service and Alerting Service.

233. Where an upper flight information region (UIR) is established, the procedures applicable there: A. have to be as indicated by ICAO council. B. have to be as agreed at the regional air navigation meetings. C. need not to be identical with those applicable in the underlying flight information region. D. have to be the same as in the underlying flight information region.

C. need not to be identical with those applicable in the underlying flight information region.

232. What is the objective of Aerodrome Control Service? A. To prevent collisions between aircraft. B. To prevent collisions between aircraft on the manoeuvring area and obstructions in that area. C. To expedite and maintain an orderly flow of air traffic. D. All of the above.

D. All of the above.

231. The 3 basic types of ATS are: A. ATC, FIS and Alerting Service. B. FIS, TWR and Alerting Service. C. ATC, FIS and ARO. D. ATC, AIS and Alerting Service.

A. ATC, FIS and Alerting Service.

229. The Approach Control Service is an Air Traffic Control Service: A. for IFR flights arriving and departing. B. provided for IFR and VFR flights within a Control Zone. C. provided for IFR traffic within a Control Zone. D. provided for the arriving and departing controlled flights.

D. provided for the arriving and departing controlled flights.

228. Which of the following statements describes the Uncertainty Phase (INCERFA)? A. An aircraft which has been cleared to land fails to land within 5 minutes of the ETA and communication has not been re-established B. An aircraft is known or believed to be the subject of unlawful interference. C. An aircraft fails to arrive within 30 minutes of the ETA passed to ATC. D. An aircraft declares that the fuel remaining is insufficient to reach safety.

C. An aircraft fails to arrive within 30 minutes of the ETA passed to ATC.

226. When are ATIS broadcasts updated? A. Upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of content change or reported values. B. Every 30 minutes if weather conditions are below those for VFR; otherwise hourly. C. Only when weather conditions change enough to require a change in the active runway or instrument approach in use. D. only when the ceiling and/or visibility changes by a reportable value

A. Upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of content change or reported values.

225. Flight Information Service shall be provided to aircraft in order to avoid collision hazards when operating in airspace classes: A. F and G only. B. C, D, E, F, and G. C. A, B, C, D, E, F and G. D. F only.

B. C, D, E, F, and G.

224. Which phase of emergency is declared if an aircraft is known or believed to be 562 subject of unlawful interference? A. ALERFA B. INCERFA. C. DETRESFA. D. None of the above.

A. ALERFA

223. The highest priority for landing has: A. an aircraft that is compelled to land (Emergency landing). B. a military aircraft. C. an aircraft on a diplomatic flight (Head of state). D. an Air Ambulance carrying a very sick person needing immediate medical attention.

A. an aircraft that is compelled to land (Emergency landing).

222. The units providing Air Traffic Services are: A. Area Control Centre - Advisory Centre - Flight Information Centre - Approach Control Office and Tower. B. Area Control Centre - Approach Control Office and Aerodrome Control Tower. C. Area Control Centre - Flight Information Centre -Approach Control Office - Aerodrome Control Tower and Air Traffic Services reporting office. D. Area Control Centre - Flight Information Region -Approach Control Office and Tower.

C. Area Control Centre - Flight Information Centre -Approach Control Office - Aerodrome Control Tower and Air Traffic Services reporting office.

221. When should the flight crew be provided with information about the transition level? A. Before commencing an approach to an aerodrome. B. Before commencing any descent. C. When flying inside the transition layer. D. When passing the transition altitude.

A. Before commencing an approach to an aerodrome.

219. Essential Traffic is: A. controlled traffic not separated from another controlled traffic with the prescribed separation minima. B. controlled traffic separated from other controlled traffic with the prescribed separation minima. C. controlled IFR flights separated from uncontrolled flights within advisory airspace. D. uncontrolled IFR flights separated from uncontrolled VFR flights within advisory airspace.

A. controlled traffic not separated from another controlled traffic with the prescribed separation minima.

218. An aircraft in flight in a Flight Information Region (FIR) would receive a report of severe turbulence in the form of a: A. SIGMET B. SPECI C. AIREP D. PIREP

A. SIGMET

217. Air traffic services unit clocks and other time recording devices shall be checked as necessary to ensure correct time to within plus or minus: A. 10 seconds of UTC at all times. B. 15 seconds of UTC at all times. C. 30 seconds of UTC at all times. D. 1 minute of UTC at all times.

C. 30 seconds of UTC at all times.

215. The speed limitation in airspace classified as for G, when flying below 3050 m (10000 ft.) AMSL, is: A. 250 kts IAS. B. 250 kts TAS. C. 240 kts IAS. D. 250 kts TAS for VFR flights, no limitation for IFR flights.

A. 250 kts IAS.

214. An information issued by a meteorological watch office concerning the occurrence or expected occurrence of specified enroute weather phenomena which may affect the safety of low-level aircraft operations and which was not already included in the forecast A. An Enroute Meteo Report. B. A SIGMET information. C. A NOTAM. D. An AIRMET information.

D. An AIRMET information.

213. ATC separation shall be provided: A. between VFR flights in airspace class F. B. between IFR and VFR flights in airspace class A and B. C. between IFR and VFR flights in airspace class C D. between IFR and VFR flights in airspace class C and D.

C. between IFR and VFR flights in airspace class C

212. A situation in which apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft. To which emergency phase does this situation correspond? A. INCERFA B. DETRESSFA C. RESERFA D. ALERFA

D. ALERFA

211. When it becomes apparent that an aircraft is in difficulty, the decision to initiate the alert phases is the responsibility of the: A. search and rescue co-ordination centres. B. flight information or control organisations. C. air traffic co-ordination services. D. operational air traffic control centres.

D. operational air traffic control centres.

210. Which of the following statements describes the Alert Phase (ALERFA)? A. An aircraft which has been cleared to land fails to land within 5 minutes of the ETA and communication has not been re-established. B. Information is received which indicates that the operating efficiency of an aircraft has been impaired to the extent that a forced landing is likely. C. An aircraft fails to arrive within 30 minutes of the ETA which was last notified to ATC D. An aircraft declares that the fuel remaining is insufficient to reach safety.

A. An aircraft which has been cleared to land fails to land within 5 minutes of the ETA and communication has not been re-established.

208. Which of the following is not an emergency frequency? A. 121.5 MHz B. 243.0 MHz C. 2182kHz D. 12345MHz

D. 12345MHz

206. Flight information service shall be provided to all aircraft which are likely to be affected by the information and which are: A. provided with the air traffic control services or otherwise known to the relevant air traffic service units. B. provided with air traffic control services, only. C. known to the relevant air traffic services units. D. known to the relevant air traffic services units by a filed flight plan.

A. provided with the air traffic control services or otherwise known to the relevant air traffic service units.

205. Special VFR flights may be authorized to operate locally within a control zone when the ground visibility is not less than 1 500 meters, even when the aircraft is not equipped with a functioning radio receiver within class: A. D and E airspaces B. E airspace C. D airspace D. C, D and E airspaces

B. E airspace

204. A special VFR clearance may be obtained from ATC for the following airspaces: A. CTR, TMA and AWY B. CTR C. CTR and CTA D. CTR and TMA

B. CTR

203. DETRESFA is a situation where: A. no communication has been received from an aircraft within a period of thirty minutes after the time a communication should have been received. B. an aircraft fails to land within 5 minutes of being cleared to land. C. the fuel on board is considered to be exhausted. D. an aircraft fails to land within 5 minutes of being cleared to land or where the fuel on board is considered to be exhausted.

C. the fuel on board is considered to be exhausted.

202. Which of the following phenomena would cause a SIGMET to be transmitted to aircraft flying at subsonic cruising levels? A. Cumulonimbus cloud, volcanic ash or severe icing. B. Active thunderstorms, moderate or severe turbulence or heavy hail. C. Severe squall lines, heavy hail or severe icing. D. Marked mountain waves or hail.

C. Severe squall lines, heavy hail or severe icing.

201. For VFR flights, continuous two-way radio communication with ATS is required in the following airspace classes: A. B, C, D. B. B, C, D, E. C. B, C, D, E, F. D. B, C, D, E, F, G.

A INCERFA, ALERFA, DETRESFA

198. A pilot is required to report observations concerning the safety to air traffic to: A. the respective aeronautical authority of the Länder. B. the nearest aerodrome operator. C. the air traffic control unit responsible for him/her. D. the respective aviation supervision.

C. the air traffic control unit responsible for him/her.

197. Under which conditions may a control zone usually be entered during a VFR flight? A. Never, because the control zone are exclusively be used by IFR traffic. B. If VMC for the controlled airspace are fulfilled and the aircraft stays clear of clouds. C. If DFS (German Air Navigation Services) has issued an entry clearance. D. If VMC for airspace D-CTR is fulfilled with a ground visibility of 5 km, the cloud ceiling not lower than 1500 ft GND, and if the responsible air traffic control unit has issued the required clearance.

D. If VMC for airspace D-CTR is fulfilled with a ground visibility of 5 km, the cloud ceiling not lower than 1500 ft GND, and if the responsible air traffic control unit has issued the required clearance.

196. What is the ceiling? A) The lower limit of the lowest cloud layer above ground or water, covering more than half the sky and being below 6000 ft. B) The lower limit of the base of the lowest layer of clouds above ground or water, covering more than half the sky below 20000 ft. C) The lower limit of the lowest cloud layer above ground or water, covering at least half the sky and being below 20000 ft. D) The lowest layer of the clouds forming the main part of the existing clouds and being below 20000 ft.

B) The lower limit of the base of the lowest layer of clouds above ground or water, covering more than half the sky below 20000 ft.

195. The higher value being relevant, the pilot switches the altimeter from QNH to 1013.25 hpa above altitude 5000 ft MSL or: A) 2000 ft GND B) 2500 ft GND C) 3000 ft GND D) 3500 ft GND

A) 2000 ft GND

194. No continuous air-ground voice communication is required for VFR flights in airspaces: A) G, E B) TMZ, G, D C) G, E, C D) E, D, G

A) G, E

193. Pre-flight briefing for flights away from the vicinity of an aerodrome and all IFR flights shall include which of the following? A meteorological brief A consideration of the fuel requirements Alternative actions if the flight cannot be completed as planned A) 1 B) 1, 2 C) 1, 2, 3 D) All of the above are recommended but not mandatory

C) 1, 2, 3

192. When is a deviation from the Rules of the Air permitted? A) Only in the interests of flight safety B) Anytime the PIC thinks it is necessary C) Only if the operator has special dispensation from the aircraft manufacturer D) Only when it is economically advantageous

A) Only in the interests of flight safety

190. While taxiing, an aircraft receives the following light signal from the control tower: series of red flashes. This signal means that the aircraft: A) Must stop B) Must return to its point of departure C) May continue to taxi to the take-off area D) Must vacate the landing area in use

D) Must vacate the landing area in use

188. State who on board an aircraft is primarily responsible for the operation of the aircraft in accordance with the Rules of the Air (ICAO Annex 2): A) The operator B) The safety manager C) The senior cabin crew member D) The pilot-in-command

D) The pilot-in-command

187. The pre-flight actions for a flight leaving the local aerodrome area, is to include a careful: A) Study of the available meteorological reports and forecasts for the route B) Study of the available weather charts C) Briefing of the crew D) Briefing of the passengers

A) Study of the available meteorological reports and forecasts for the route

186. How is "FLIGHT VISIBILITY" defined? A) The visibility reported by a pilot currently flying in the vicinity B) The forecast visibility at 3000 ft above the aerodrome C) The visibility forward from the cockpit of an aircraft in flight D) The visibility as reported by an accredited observer

C) The visibility forward from the cockpit of an aircraft in flight

185. Which of the following defines "GROUND VISIBILITY"? A) The visibility forward from the flight deck of an aircraft B) The visibility at an aerodrome as reported by an accredited observer or by automatic systems C) The visibility reported by a pilot currently flying in the vicinity D) The forecast visibility at 3000 ft above the aerodrome

B) The visibility at an aerodrome as reported by an accredited observer or by automatic systems

184. When must the pilot turn on the navigation lights? A) Only in the daytime B) Only at night C) Day and night D) When in IMC

B) Only at night

178. A signalman (marshaller) requests the pilot to engage brakes with the following signal: A) Raise hand just above shoulder height with open palm, ensure eye-contact with crew, close hand into a fist B) Arms raised above the head with palms facing the pilot C) Right arm raised, bent at elbow, with thumb extended D) Arms pointing down with palms pointing inwards, moving arms inwards from extended position

A) Raise hand just above shoulder height with open palm, ensure eye-contact with crew, close hand into a fist

175. What should a pilot do at night and if no radio communication can be established when he/she wants to acknowledge an instruction from an aerodrome control tower? A) Fly a circle B) Turn off and on the aircraft's anti-collision light C) Flash on and off twice the aircraft's landing lights or, if not so equipped, switch on and off twice its navigation lights D) Turn on the aircraft's landing lights and then switch on and off twice the navigation lights

C) Flash on and off twice the aircraft's landing lights or, if not so equipped, switch on and off twice its navigation lights

172. What is the lowest height for VFR flights over congested areas? A) 300 ft B) 1000 ft C) 500 ft D) 600 ft

B) 1000 ft

171. What is meant by the term "SPECIAL VFR"? A) A flight in IMC for which the pilot and/or the aeroplane is unable to comply with the requirements of IFR B) A VFR flight cleared by ATC to operate within a CTR in meteorological conditions below VMC C) A VFR procedure to enable an aeroplane to transit a control zone or area in IMC without compliance with IFR D) Any flight cleared by ATC to operate in conditions less than VMC in which the pilot is required to remain clear of cloud and surface in sight

B) A VFR flight cleared by ATC to operate within a CTR in meteorological conditions below VMC

169. If there is any danger on the route, how will ATC inform the pilot? A) ATC will transmit to the pilot information about latitude and longitude of the potential threat B) ATC will transmit to the pilot information about distance and bearing to the potential threat C) ATC will transmit to the pilot information about separation time and distance to the potential threat D) ATC will transmit to the pilot information about GPS data of the potential threat

B) ATC will transmit to the pilot information about distance and bearing to the potential threat

167. An engine-powered aircraft on a VFR flight leaves airspace C in the vicinity of an airport and continues its flight in airspace E at FL 75. What does the pilot have to do? A) Switches the transponder to stand-by and keeps a listening watch on UHF/VHF guard B) Keeps listening watch in order to obtain traffic information, if necessary C) Unrequested squawk A/C 7000 and observe the prescribed minima for VFR flights in airspace E D) Requests to leave frequency from air traffic control and switches the transponder to A/C 0021

C) Unrequested squawk A/C 7000 and observe the prescribed minima for VFR flights in airspace E

166. The higher value being relevant, a VFR-flight needs to operate a transponder above altitude 5000 ft MSL or: A) 2000 ft GND B) 2500 ft GND C) 3000 ft GND D) 3500 ft GND

D) 3500 ft GND

165. In the event of a delay of a controlled flight, the submitted flight plan should be amended or canceled and a new flight plan submitted when the delay is in excess of: A) 30 minutes of the estimated time off blocks B) 30 minutes of the estimated time of departure C) 60 minutes of the estimated time off blocks D) 60 minutes of the estimated time of departure

A) 30 minutes of the estimated time off blocks

164. An aircraft taxiing on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome shall give way to: A) Other vehicles or pedestrians B) Larger (heavier) aircraft C) All vehicles on the taxiways except the "follow me" vehicle D) Aircraft taking-off or about to take-off

D) Aircraft taking-off or about to take-off

161. Flight visibility defines as: A. visibility forward from the cockpit of an aircraft in flight to the ground. B. medium slant visibility from the cockpit of an aircraft in flight. C. maximum forward visibility from the cockpit of an aircraft. D. visibility forward from the cockpit of an aircraft in flight.

D. visibility forward from the cockpit of an aircraft in flight.

159 A pre-flight briefing needs to be obtained before every flight A which enters controlled airspace B with a flight distance of more than 100 km C which requires a flight plan to be filed D which leaves the vicinity of the aerodrome of departure

C which requires a flight plan to be filed

158 The pilot-in-command is responsible for operating the aircraft. This is valid A in uncontrolled airspace only B except air traffic control communication is performed via radio C except being within an control zone D irrespective, whether the pilot operates the aircraft personally or not

D irrespective, whether the pilot operates the aircraft personally or not

157 When shall aircraft in operation switch on their navigation lights? A between half an hour after sunset and half an hour after sunrise B from half an hour past sunset to half an hour after sunrise C from SS to SR and poor flight visibility D at night

D at night

155 Engine-powered aircraft on a VFR flight in airspace C (below FL 100) are required to operate a transponder A as a VFR-flight only on request by ATC B always C above 5000 ft MSL or above 2000 ft GND, whichever is higher D above 5000 ft MSL or above 3500 ft GND, whichever is higher

B always

154 What can be ignored for a VFR flight in uncontrolled airspace? A flight visibility B ground visibility C ground in sight D cloud height and distance

B ground visibility

153 Under which conditions may aircraft fly in formation? A only upon agreement between the participating pilots B only in commercial air traffic C only above uncontrolled aerodromes D if the aircraft have a maximum mass of 2000 kg

A only upon agreement between the participating pilots

152 According to ICAO Annex 2 - Rules of the Air, what is correct concerning a "Time Check"? A It is used for controlled flights and only obtained on request by ATC. B It is used for controlled flights and obtained on request by ATC only during ground operations. C It is only executed when requested by ATC. D A time check contains time given in hours, minutes and seconds.

D A time check contains time given in hours, minutes and seconds.

151 In Germany Airspace G is below A 5000 ft MSL or 3500 ft GND, the lower value being relevant B 1000 ft and 1700 ft GND, otherwise 2500 ft MSL C 1000 ft and 1700 ft GND, otherwise 2500 ft GND D 1000 ft and 1700 ft GND, in other cases different depending on local conditions

C 1000 ft and 1700 ft GND, otherwise 2500 ft GND

150 The pilot is required to transmit a departure message to the responsible air traffic control unit for a flight from an uncontrolled aerodrome after having filed the flight plan. A This only applies if the departure time deviates from the expected departure time indicated in the flight plan by more than 30 minutes. B A departure message has to be transmitted in any case. C This only applies if the departure time deviates by more than 5 minutes from the expected departure time indicated in the flight plan. D This only applies if the departure time deviates by more than 15 minutes from the expected departure time indicated in the flight plan.

B A departure message has to be transmitted in any case.

148 Radiotelephony communication for VFR flights in Germany in airspace "C" above flight level 100 is conducted A in English language B in German language C in German or English language D in one of the ICAO languages

A in English language

147 The pilot in command is the ultimate authority on operating the aircraft: A only during flight B during taxiing, take-off, landing and enroute. C only during take-off, flight and landing D only if he/she is sitting on the left seat of the aircraft

B during taxiing, take-off, landing and enroute.

B leave the control zone on the shortest way possible, land and inform air traffic control

144 Who is allowed to check whether a pilot has prepared a flight properly? A the delegate of the aviation supervision B the advisory service C the aerodrome operator D the flight information service of the DFS GmbH

A the delegate of the aviation supervision

143 Which unit of measurement applies for the vertical speed in aviation? A km/h B Mach and Kts C Knots D ft/min

D ft/min

140 Advertising flights with towed objects need permission of: A the local aviation supervision B the Federal Aviation Office (Luftfahrt-Bundesamt) C the aeronautical authority of the Länder responsible for the area in which the object is to be towed D the aeronautical authority of the Länder of residence or domicile of the applicant

D the aeronautical authority of the Länder of residence or domicile of the applicant

139 The minimum height, except for take-off and landing, may A be ignored, if at any time a suitable terrain allows a potential emergency landing B be ignored, if the terrain is largely free of obstacles C never be ignored D be ignored, if it does not expose the respective residents to unnecessary noise disturbance

C never be ignored

138 "Raise hand just above shoulder, with palm open, eye contact with flight crew, then close hand into a fist". This signal from a signalman to an aircraft means: A release brakes. B engage brakes. C chocks removed. D start engines.

B engage brakes.

137 Flights operating within airspace classified as G above an altitude of 10 000 ft MSL and in acordance with VFR shall observe the following weather minima: A a distance from cloud: 1 500 m horizontally, 1000 ft vertically; flight visibility: 8 km B a distance from cloud: 1 500 m horizontally, 1000 ft vertically; flight visibility: 5 km C a distance from cloud: 1 Nautical Mile (NM), 1000 ft vertically; flight visibility: 5 km D a distance from cloud: 1 Nautical Mile (NM), 1000 ft vertically; flight visibility: 8 km

A a distance from cloud: 1 500 m horizontally, 1000 ft vertically; flight visibility: 8 km

135 When an aircraft is operating in class F airspace below 900 m AMSL, the minimum horizontal distance from cloud for VFR flight is: A 1000 ft. B 1500m. C 5 km. D clear of clouds and surface in sight.

D clear of clouds and surface in sight.

134 The red flashing anti-collision light (beacon) should be in use: A before engine start, only at night. B while taxiing for take-off. C to indicate caution to all around whenever engines are running. D while taxiing, but not while being towed.

C to indicate caution to all around whenever engines are running.

133 You are outside controlled airspace on a VFR flight above 3000 ft. Your distance from the cloud should be: A 1000 ft horizontally and 1000 ft vertically. B 2000 ft and 3 NM horizontally. C clear of cloud and surface in sight of the surface. D 1000 ft vertically and 1.5 km horizontally.

D 1000 ft vertically and 1.5 km horizontally.

131 On the ground, when two aircraft are approaching head on: A both should declare an urgency. B both airplanes must stop or where practicable alter course to the left to keep well clear. C both airplanes must stop or where practicable alter course to the right to keep well D traffic patrol has to be informed.

C both airplanes must stop or where practicable alter course to the right to keep well

130 If the ground visibilty is reported 700 m, can a special VFR flight take-off from an aerodrome in a control zone? A No. B Yes, provided the cloud ceiling is higher than 500 ft. C Yes. D Yes, provided the pilot remains in visual contact with the ground.

A No.

124 A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as B has to maintain the following minima of flight visibility and distance from douds: A 5 km below 3050 m (10000ft) AMSL and clear of clouds. B 8 km below 3050 m (10000 ft) AMSL 1 500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds. C 5 km visibility, 1 500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds. D 5 km below 3050 m (10000 f) AMSL 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds.

D 5 km below 3050 m (10000 f) AMSL 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds.

121 The light signal from aerodrome control tower directed towards an aircraft in flight indicating "return for landing" is. A A series of green flashes. B A series of red flashes. C A steady green. D A series of white flashes.

A A series of green flashes.

A marshaller has his arms fully extended above his head with wands pointing up. This means that: A) you should proceed to this parking position (stand / gate). B) chocks removed, ready to start the push-back procedure. C) slow down your taxi speed. D) you should continue straight ahead.

A) you should proceed to this parking position (stand / gate).

The marshalling signal "arms and wands fully extended above head, moving wands inward in a 'jabbing' motion until wands touch" means: A) stop. B) chocks inserted. C) chocks removed. D) brakes applied.

B) chocks inserted.

Which signal from a marshaller indicates "chocks are inserted"? A) Arm raised with fingers extended in front of the body, then clenched into a fist. B) Arms raised above the head with palms facing the Pilot. C) Right arm raised bent at elbow with thumb extended. D) Arms and wands fully extended above head, move wands inward in a "jabbing" motion until wands touch.

D) Arms and wands fully extended above head, move wands inward in a "jabbing" motion until wands touch.

A VFR flight, when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as C, has to maintain the following minima of flight visibility and distance from clouds: A) 5 km at or above 3050m (10,000 ft) AMSL, 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds. B) 5 NM at or above 3050m (10,000 ft) AMSL, 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds. C) 8 km at or above 3050m (10,000 ft) AMSL, and clear of clouds. D) 8 km at or above 3050m (10,000 ft) AMSL, 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds.

D) 8 km at or above 3050m (10,000 ft) AMSL, 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds.

The pilot-in-command of an aircraft: 1. Must comply immediately to all instructions received from ATC. 2. Is responsible only if he is the "pilot flying". 3. May deviate from air regulations for safety reasons. 4. May be exempt from air regulations in order to comply with an ATC instruction. 5. May ask for the modification of an unsatisfactory clearance. Which of the following combinations contain all of the correct statements? A. 3, 4, 5 B. 3, 5 C. 1, 4 D. 2, 3, 5

B. 3, 5

When two aircraft are approaching head-on or approximately so and there is a danger of collision, each shall: A. Alter its heading to the right. B. Alter its heading to the left. C. Switch on all available lights in order to warn the other traffic. D. Turn, climb, or descend as in order to avoid.

A. Alter its heading to the right.

No aircraft shall be flown over the congested area of cities, towns, or settlements unless at a height that will permit: A. In the event of an emergency, a landing to be made safely. B. In the event of an emergency, the aircraft can fly to the nearest suitable aerodrome. C. In the event of an emergency, the aircraft can be flown away from the congested area. D. In the event of an emergency, a landing to be made safely at the nearest airfield.

A. In the event of an emergency, a landing to be made safely.

Which is the correct order of priority? A. Power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft shall give way to airships, gliders, and balloons. B. Gliders shall give way to airships and balloons. C. Gliders do not give way to balloons. D. All aircraft shall give way to aircraft which are seen to be towing other aircraft.

A. Power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft shall give way to airships, gliders, and balloons.

The "Total Estimated Elapsed Time" in item 16 of a VFR flight plan is the estimated time: A. Required by the aircraft from the moment it moves by its own power until it stops at the end of the flight (block time). B. Required by the aircraft from take-off to arrive overhead the destination airport. C. Required by the aircraft from brake release at take-off until landing. D. Of endurance at cruising power taking into account pressure and temperature on that day.

B. Required by the aircraft from take-off to arrive overhead the destination airport.

A series of green flashes from aerodrome control directed towards an aircraft in flight means: A. Cleared to land. B. Return for landing. C. Make a short approach and land as soon as possible. D. Continue circling and give way to other aircraft.

B. Return for landing.

A series of green flashes from aerodrome control directed towards an aircraft on ground means: A. Cleared to taxi. B. Accelerate taxi speed. C. Slow down taxi speed, but continue. D. Stand by, clearance for take-off will be given in short time.

A. Cleared to taxi.

An overtaking aircraft is an aircraft that approaches another aircraft from the rear on a line forming an angle of: A. Less than 50° with the plane of symmetry of the latter. B. Less than 60° with the plane of symmetry of the latter. C. Less than 70° with the plane of symmetry of the latter. D. Less than 80° with the plane of symmetry of the latter.

C. Less than 70° with the plane of symmetry of the latter.

The signal from pilot to the signalman (marshaller) which means "brakes applied" is: A. Fist clenched in front of the face, then fingers extended. B. Arms extended, palms outwards, then move hands inwards to cross in front of the face. C. Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of face, then clench fist. D. Hands crossed in front of the face, palms outwards, then move arms outwards.

C. Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of face, then clench fist.

An aircraft manoeuvring in an airport's circuit receives a series of red flashes from the control tower. This signifies that the aircraft must: A. Give way to another aircraft. B. Not land because the airport is not available for landing. C. Continue to circle and await the clearance to land signal. D. Not land for the moment regardless of previous instructions.

B. Not land because the airport is not available for landing.

A flight plan shall be submitted prior to departure for a controlled flight at least: A. 10 minutes prior to departure. B. 60 minutes prior to departure. C. 30 minutes prior to the "off-blocks" time. D. 45 minutes prior to the "off-blocks" time.

B. 60 minutes prior to departure.

A series of red flashes from aerodrome control tower directed towards an aircraft on ground means: A. Stop and taxi back, you are on the wrong taxiway. B. Give way to other aircraft taxiing. C. Slow down taxi speed. D. Taxi clear of landing area in use.

D. Taxi clear of landing area in use.

One of the following statements about aircraft ground movement is correct: A) A vehicle towing an aircraft has priority over a taxiing aircraft. B) An aircraft overtaking another does so by passing on the right. C) A taxiing aircraft has priority over a vehicle towing an aircraft. D) Two airplanes approaching head-on will alter course to the left.

C) A taxiing aircraft has priority over a vehicle towing an aircraft.

Aircraft "A" with an ATC clearance is flying in VMC within a control area. Aircraft "B" with no ATC clearance is approaching at approximately the same altitude and on a converging course. Which aircraft has the right of way? A) Aircraft "A" regardless of the direction which "B" is approaching. B) Aircraft "B" regardless of the direction "A" is approaching. C) Aircraft "B" if "A" is on its left. D) Aircraft "A" if "B" is on its right.

C) Aircraft "B" if "A" is on its left.

While taxiing, an aircraft receives the following light signal from the control tower: series of green flashes. This signal means that the aircraft: A is cleard to take-off B Must return to its point of departure C may continue to taxi towards the take-off area D must stop

C may continue to taxi towards the take-off area

82: A steady red light beam directed at an aircraft in flight from the aerodrome control tower means: A Do not land, give way to other aircraft and continue circling clear the landing area immediately B Clear the landing area immediately C Airfield closed, do not land here D Airfield unserviceable, land elsewhere

A Do not land, give way to other aircraft and continue circling clear the landing area immediately

79: An aircraft which has the right of way shall maintain its: A altitude B course and speed C heading and speed D course; speed and altitude

C heading and speed

78: Describe the following: helicopter, glider & airship: A aircraft B power driven aircraft C lighter than air aircraft D heavier than air aircraft

A aircraft

76: An aircraft with the identification D-CFLU can be a: A single-engined aircraft with a maximum mass of 2000 - 5700 kg MTOW B multi-engined aircraft with a maximum mass of 2000 - 5700 kg MTOW C multi-engined aircraft with a maximum mass of 14000-20000 kg MTOW D multi-engined aircraft with a maximum mass of 5700-14000 kg MTOW

D multi-engined aircraft with a maximum mass of 5700-14000 kg MTOW

74: When the first character of registration mark is a letter: A It may not be followed by a number B the registration mark must be completed by the national emblem C it shall be preceded by a hyphen D it shall be followed by a number

C it shall be preceded by a hyphen

72 The height of the marks under the wings of heavier-than-air aircraft shall be: A at least 50 centimetres B at least between 40 centimetres and 50 centimetres C at least 60 centimetres D at least 75 centimetres

A at least 50 centimetres

71: When letters are used for registration mark, combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent signals, for example: A TTT B RCC C LLL D FFF

A TTT

70: When letters are used for the registration mark, combinations shall not be used which might be confused with the: A four letter combinations beginning with Q B three letters combinations used in the internatinal code of signal C letters used for an ICAO identification documents D five letter combinations used in the international code of signals

D five letter combinations used in the international code of signals

68: The common mark shall be selected from the series of symbols included in the radio call sign allocated: A to the State of Registry by the International Telecommunication Union B to the International Civil Aviation Organisation by the International Telecommunication Union C to the State of Registry by the International Civil Aviation Organisation D to State of the Operator

B to the International Civil Aviation Organisation by the International Telecommunication Union

67: The height of the marks on the fuselage (or equivalent structure) and on the vertical tail surfaces of heavier than aircraft shall be: A at least between 20 centimetres and 40 centimetres B at least 40 centimetres C at least 30 centimetres D at least 20 centimetres

C at least 30 centimetres

65: The height of the mark on the fuselage (or equivalent structure) and on the vertical tail surfaces of heavier than air aircraft shall be: A at least between 20 centimetres and 40 centimetres B at least 40 centimetres C at least 30 centimetres D at least 20 centrimetres

C at least 30 centimetres

64: What is the Aircraft Register and where is it kept and supervised? A It is kept at the EASA headquarter in Cologne B It is kept at the aviation authority of the Länder C kept and supervised with the ICAO headquarter in Montreal D kept and supervised at the LBA in Braunschweig

D kept and supervised at the LBA in Braunschweig

61: Where on the wings of heavier-than-air aircraft shall registration marks be located? A On the left half of the lower surface of the wing structure B On the right half of the lower surface of the wing structure C On the left half of the upper surface of the wing structure D On the right half of the upper surface of the wing structure

A On the left half of the lower surface of the wing structure

59: Annex 8 covers airworthiness of aircraft. Who is responsible for the administration of the Certificates of Airworthiness? A The authority of the State of the Operator B The authority of the State of the Registration C The authority of the State of the Manufacture D The Operator

B The authority of the State of the Registration

54: Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains international standards and recommended practices for Air Traffic Services (ATS)? A Annex 6 B Annex 14 C Annex 11 D Annex 17

C Annex 11

53: The part of an aerodrome provided for the stationing of aircraft for the purpose of embarking and disembarking passengers, loading and unloading of cargo and refueling and parking is known as: A the movement area B the maintenance area C the apron D the manoeuvring area

C the apron

50: Which of the following is obligating for members of ICAO? A ICAO shall approve the pricing of tickets on international airline connections B ICAO must be informed about new flight crew licenses and any suspended validity of A) such licenses C ICAO must be informed about differences from the standards in any oft the Annexes to the convention D ICAO must be informed about changes in the national regulations

C ICAO must be informed about differences from the standards in any oft the Annexes to the convention

47: Name the body of ICAO that considers and recommends to the council for adoption, modifications of the Annexes of the Convention to the ICAO: A Transport Committee B Legal Committee C Assembly D Air Navigation Commission

D Air Navigation Commission

46: Which body of ICAO finalizes the Standard and Recommended Practices (SARPS) for submission for adoption? A The Regional Air Navigation meeting B The Assembly C The Air Navigation Commision D The Coincil

C The Air Navigation Commision

44: What is the mission statement of ICAO? A ICAO produces rules and regulations, and promotes the hightest common standards of civil aviation safety and environmental protection in Europe and worldwide. B ICAO's mission is to represent, lead and serve the airline industry. ICAO seeks to improve understanding of the industry among decision makers and increase awareness of the benefits that aviation brings to national and global economies. It fights for the interests of airlines across the globe, challenging unreasonable rules and charges, holding regulators and governments to account, and striving for sensible regulation. C ICAO's mission is to serve as the global forum of States for international civil aviation. ICAO develops policies and Standards, undertakes compliance audits, performs studies and analyses, provides assistance and builds aviation capacity through many other activities and the cooperation of ots Member States and stakeholders. D ICAO's mission is to improve new international airlines and aircraft.

C ICAO's mission is to serve as the global forum of States for international civil aviation. ICAO develops policies and Standards, undertakes compliance audits, performs studies and analyses, provides assistance and builds aviation capacity through many other activities and the cooperation of ots Member States and stakeholders.

42: Where is the ICAO Annex 13 applicable? A Air Trafic Services B The Safe Transport of Dangerous Goods by Air C Facilitation D Aircraft Accident and Incident Investigation

D Aircraft Accident and Incident Investigation

41: The airport licence is issued by the following aeronautical authority: A the aeronautical authority of the Länder in which the terrain is located B German Air Navigation Services (DFS) C Federal Office of Civil Aviation (LBA) D Federal Ministry of Transport and Digital Infrastructure (BMVI)

A the aeronautical authority of the Länder in which the terrain is located

38: 6th Freedom of the Air is: A the right to carry revenue traffic between any points of landing on flights between 3 or more treaty partner nations (B to C to D). B revenue traffic flown between two nations (C to A) by carrier of a third nations (B). C the right to carry revenue traffic between two points within a treaty nation (B) by carrier of another nation (A). D a combination of Freedoms 3 and 4. Revenue traffic flown between two treaty partner nations (C to A) through carriers base nation (B).

D a combination of Freedoms 3 and 4. Revenue traffic flown between two treaty partner nations (C to A) through carriers base nation (B).

36: Why is the 8 th freedom of the air particularly applicable to the European Union? A Because the EU is primarily a commercial arrangement and it is commercially sensible to prevent non-EU carriers from profiting in Europe. B Because the Chicago Convention allows a state to give exclusivity of internal air services to another state. C Because most of the EU is effectively 'one state' as far as the internal movement of people is concerned. D To prevent non-EASA states operating domestic scheduled services in Europe.

C Because most of the EU is effectively 'one state' as far as the internal movement of people is concerned.

33: The privilege to fly across the territory of another participating State without landing is called: A 5th freedom of the air. B 2nd freedom of the air. C 4th freedom of the air. D 1st freedom of the air.

D 1st freedom of the air.

27: What is the status of IATA? A It is the international legislative arm of ICAO. B It is an associate body of ICAO. C It is a trade association of aviation operators and others involved with international aviation. D It represents the air transport operators at ICAO.

C It is a trade association of aviation operators and others involved with international aviation.

25 What does IATA mean? A International Air Transport Association B International Airport Training Association C International Air Trading Association D International Aviation Training Association

A International Air Transport Association

19: One of the main objectives of ICAO is to: A develop principles and techniques for international aviation. B approve new international airlines. C approve the ticket prices set by international airline companies. D approve new international airlines with jet aircraft.

A develop principles and techniques for international aviation.

13: What is the obligation of a State in the event of non-compliance with an international Standard? A The State has to publish such differences in the national AIP only. B The State has to notify the Assembly of ICAO and publish such differences in the national AIP. C The State has to notify the Council of ICAO and publish such differences in the national AIP. D Modifications to international Standards shall be published in the national AIP only: differences to Recommended Pracitices have do be notified to ICAO.

C The State has to notify the Council of ICAO and publish such differences in the national AIP.

4: For aircraft flying over the high seas, which rules shall be in force? A The rules established by the State of Registry of the aircraft. B The rules established by the State(s) adjacent to the high seas overflown C The rules established by the State of the Operator of the aircraft. D The rules established under the Convention on International Civil Aviation.

D The rules established under the Convention on International Civil Aviation.

3: An aircraft flying over the territory of another State must: A follow the Rules of the air of the State of Registration. B follow the Rules of the air of the State it is overflying C follow the Rules of the air of the State of the Operator. D follow the Rules of the air of the State that has issued the aircraft certificate of airworthiness.

B follow the Rules of the air of the State it is overflying

Airlaw Flashcards

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