Engineering EC135 Flashcards
1
Q
- The type of main rotor system is:
A) Semi-rigid
B) Fully articulated
C) Hingeless
D) Hinge- and Bearingless
A
D) Hinge- and Bearingless
2
Q
- What can you still find on the rotor system?
A) Feathering bearings
B) Flapping hinges
C) Lead/Lag hinges
D) Lead/Lag damper
A
D) Lead/Lag damper
3
Q
3.In general, the EC 135 is a:
A) Attack helicopter
B) Cargo helicopter
C) Multi-purpose helicopter
D) Liaison helicopter
A
C) Multi-purpose helicopter
4
Q
- Which manufacturer belongs to the engine equipped in the SHS?
A) MTU
B) Allison
C) RR
D) Turbomeca
A
D) Turbomeca
5
Q
- The construction type of the main fuselage is:
A) Monocoque
B) Truss frame
C) Rivet design
D) Semi-monocoque
A
D) Semi-monocoque
6
Q
6.Type of engine is:
A) Turbojet
B) Turboshaft
C) Turboprop
D) Turbofan
A
B) Turboshaft
7
Q
- What is the effect of the horizontal stabilizer in forward flight?
A) Stabilizing around the longitudinal axis, becuase of free movement
B) Stabilizing around the vertical axis
C) Generating negative lift (downward) to adjust the pitch attitude
D) Generating positive lift (upward) to adjust the pitch attitude
A
C) Generating negative lift (downward) to adjust the pitch attitude
8
Q
- Type of landing gear is:
A) Fixed with peeling tubes
B) Fixed wheel type
C) Retractable landing gear
D) Skids
A
D) Skids
9
Q
- Which of the following statements is correct?
A) Up to a vertical velocity of 2.5 m/s the Landing Gear is deformed elastically
B) Up to a vertical velocity of 180 ft/min the Landing Gear is deformed elastically
C) Up to a vertical velocity of 1 m/s the Landing Gear is deformed plastically
D) There is no mechanical influence on the Landing Gear at any touch down
A
B) Up to a vertical velocity of 180 ft/min the Landing Gear is deformed elastically
10
Q
- Which material is used for firewalls?
A) Aluminium
B) Titanium
C) Magnesium
D) Cast iron
A
B) Titanium
11
Q
11.Max gross weight of the SHS:
A) 2835 kg
B) 2300 kg
C) 2.5 t
D) 2.72 t
A
A) 2835 kg
12
Q
- Which of the elements belong to the primary structure?
A) Windows and cowlings
B) Aerodynamic structures
C) Frames and formers
D) Hydraulic system
A
C) Frames and formers
13
Q
- How is the MGB mounted onto the fuselage?
A) Bolted onto steel bracket
B) With four ARIS, two Torque-Struts and one Y-Strut
C) Only with titanium struts
D) With two Torque- and two Y-Struts
A
B) With four ARIS, two Torque-Struts and one Y-Strut
14
Q
- What is driven by the MGB-transmission system?
1 Oil cooler fan
2 Generator
3 XMSN oil pumps
4 Hydraulic pumps
5 Fuel pumps
A) 1,3,4,5
B) 1,2,3,4
C) 3,4
D) 1,3,4
A
D) 1,3,4
15
Q
- If the main rotor mast would be turned into a clockwise direction what would happen?
1 Freewheeling unit opens
2 Freewheeling unit closes
3 Main drive shaft rotates
4 Main drive shaft does not rotate
5 N1 shaft rotates
6 N1 shaft does not rotate
A) 1,3,6
B) 2,3,5
C) 2,4,5,6
D) 2,3,6
A
D) 2,3,6
16
Q
- The working principle of the freewheeling unit is:
A) Clamp principle
B) Centrifugal forces
C) Shiftable coupling
D) Switch
A
A) Clamp principle
17
Q
- The type of lubrication of the main gear box is:
A) Grease
B) Wet sump
C) Dry sump
D) Splash-type
A
B) Wet sump
18
Q
- Which caution lights belonging to the MGB lubrication system can be illuminated in case of failure?
1 Oil filter
2 Oil pressure
3 Oil quantity
4 Torque
5 Chip
6 Oil temperature
A) 2,5,6
B) 1,4,6
C) 1,2,5,6
D) 1,3,5,6
A
A) 2,5,6
19
Q
- Main rotor diameter is?
A) 10.2m
B) 9.844m
C) 12.0m
D) 10.16m
A
A) 10.2m
20
Q
- Main rotor rpm is?
A) 424 1/min
B) 395 1/s
C) 424 1/s
D) 395 1/min
A
D) 395 1/min
21
Q
- The permanent indications of the MGB lubrication system are:
1 2x temperature
2 2x pressure
3 1x temperature
4 1x pressure
A) 1 and 2
B) 3 and 4
C) 1 and 4
D) 2 and 3
A
B) 3 and 4
22
Q
- How is the oil of the MGB cooled?
A) Internal cooling system
B) Fan and oil cooler
C) Air conditioning
D) Only MGB housing
A
B) Fan and oil cooler
22
Q
- The vertical fin is cambered. In which direction and how?
A) Asymmetrical to the right
B) Asymmetrical to the left
C) Symmetrical to the right
D) Symmetrical to the left
A
A) Asymmetrical to the right
23
Q
- Which movements does the blade root allow?
A) Flapping
B) Lead/lag
C) Feathering
D) All of the above
A
D) All of the above
24
25. To which element is the blade root directly attached?
A) Pitch control cuff
B) Control rod
C) Blade tip
D) Rotor Hub
D) Rotor Hub
25
26. What is the correct in relation to the pitch control cuff?
A) In-plane flexibility
B) Connected to the rotor hub
C) Torsional stiffness
D) Lift generating
C) Torsional stiffness
26
27. Advantages of the rotor system compared to a fully articulated are:
1 Higher controllability
2 Higher stability
3 High bending moments on rotor mast
4 Insusceptible to gusts
5 Pos.-g manoeuvres
6 Contour flight
7 Less parts
A) 1,2,4,5
B) 2,4,5,6
C) 1,2,6,7
D) 1,2,3,7
C) 1,2,6,7
27
28. How is the lead/lag motion at the rotor system dampened?
A) ARIS system
B) Aerodynamical forces
C) Shearing/kinematic coupling
D) Oil damper system
C) Shearing/kinematic coupling
28
29. What is meant by kinematic coupling respective to the lead/lag dampers?
A) Coupling between lead/lag and change of angle of incidence
B) Coupling between lead/lag and flapping
C) Coupling between flapping and change of angle of incidence
D) Coupling between feathering and change of angle of incidence
A) Coupling between lead/lag and change of angle of incidence
29
30. How can you monitor the fenestron gear box during flight?
A) Caution TRGB CHIP
B) No indication
C) Filter pin
D) Caution TRGB OIL FILT
A) Caution TRGB CHIP
30
The hydraulic system is redundant system with:
A) Sys 1 active, sys 2 in stby, both pumps working
B) Both sys in stby, working if needed
C) Both sys active
D) Sys 1 active, sys 2 in stby, only one pump is working
C) Both sys active
31
32. The hydraulic power supply system consists of the following:
A) 2 reservoirs, 1 pumps, 1 valve blocks, 2 pressure SW
B) 2 reservoirs, 1 pumps, 2 valve blocks, 2 pressure SW
C) 2 reservoirs, 2 pumps, 2 valve blocks, 2 pressure SW
D) 2 reservoirs, 2 pumps, 1 valve blocks, 2 pressure SW
C) 2 reservoirs, 2 pumps, 2 valve blocks, 2 pressure SW
32
33. The type of hydraulic pump is?
A) Gear pump
B) Radial pump
C) Gerotor pump
D) Axial piston pump
D) Axial piston pump
33
34. The working principle of the hydraulic pump is:
A) Variable pressure
B) Constant volume
C) Variable volume
D) Constant stroke
C) Variable volume
34
35. Type of hydraulic reservoir is?
A) Enclosed, pre pressurized
B) Dripping
C) Open
D) Pre heated
A) Enclosed, pre pressurized
35
36. If one of the hydraulic systems fail and the pressure drops below threshold value:
A) The caution HYD PRESS is triggered at the CAD
B) Nothing happens
C) The warning light HYD PRESS illuminates and the warning gong is triggered
D) The flight controls can not be moved anymore
A) The caution HYD PRESS is triggered at the CAD
36
37. The fenestron, controlled via the pedals:
A) Has no hydraulic boost
B) Is fitted with and hydraulic actuator, connected to system 1
C) Is fitted with hydraulic actuator, connected to system 2
D) Has and independent hydraulic system (system 3)
C) Is fitted with hydraulic actuator, connected to system 2
37
38. Which device is driving the hydraulic pumps?
A) XMSN
B) Engine
C) Reduction gearbox
D) Rotor mast
A) XMSN
38
39. What happens if you're pushing the test sw to sys 1?
A) Pressure gauge shows less pressure
B) Pedal forces stay the same
C) CAD: Hyd Press on the left
D) CAD: Hyd Press on the right
D) CAD: Hyd Press on the right
39
40. How is the filter of the MGB monitored?
A) Filter pin
B) Caution light
C) No indication
D) Sight glass
A) Filter pin
40
41. The ARIS system:
A) At the MGB reduces main rotor vibrations and transmits vertical forces
B) Reduces vibrations and is mounted underneath the crew seats
C) Connects the MGB to the fuselage and only transmits vertical forces
D) Reduces tail rotor vibrations in flight
A) At the MGB reduces main rotor vibrations and transmits vertical forces
41
42. The fuel capacity of the SHS is?
A) 680L
B) 710L
C) 850L
D) 90L
B) 710L
42
43. What happens if one main tank pump fails?:
A) Less fuel to the engines
B) Nothing, one pump is enough
C) Nothing, engine fuel pump soak in the fuel
D) Nothing, because of overflow channels
B) Nothing, one pump is enough
43
44. How is the fuel tank designed?:
A) Consisting of two primary tanks
B) Consisting of one main tank and two supply tanks
C) Consisting of a single main tank
D) Consisting of two primary tanks and four supply tanks
B) Consisting of one main tank and two supply tanks
44
45. How many fuselage related fuel pumps does the SHS have?:
A) 2
B) 4
C) 3
D) 6
B) 4
45
46. What happens if both main tank pump fails?:
A) Engine 1 flames out first
B) Engine 2 flames out first
C) Engine 1 and 2 will flame out at the same time
D) Proper chemtrail distribution is no longer guaranteed
B) Engine 2 flames out first
46
47. How many main injection nozzles are equipped at the engine?:
A) 1
B) 5
C) 10
D) 14
C) 10
47
48. What type of actuators belong to the P/R SAS?:
A) EHA
B) MHA
C) TRIM
D) SEMA
A) EHA
48
49. On which control axes can you find trim actuators?
1 Longitudinal
2 Lateral
3 Collective
4 Yaw
A) 1, 2, 3, and 4
B) 1, 2, and 4
C) 1 and 2
D) 1, 2, and 3
C) 1 and 2
49
50. Why are springs needed in the trim system?
A) Artificial force feel
B) More comfort
C) Easier to steer the helicopter
D) Decrease pilot’s forces
A) Artificial force feel
50
51. What actuators are equipped on the yaw control axis?
A) SEMA-MHA
B) SEMA-SEMA-MHA
C) SEMA-EHA-MHA
D) TRIM-SEMA-MHA
B) SEMA-SEMA-MHA
51
52. What actuators are equipped on the longitudinal control axis?
A) SEMA-EHA-MHA
B) SEMA-SEMA-MHA
C) TRIM-SEMA-EHA-MHA
D) TRIM-EHA-MHA
C) TRIM-SEMA-EHA-MHA
52
53. What actuators are equipped on the collective control axis?
A) MHA
B) SEMA-MHA
C) TRIM-EHA-MHA
D) TRIM-MHA
A) MHA
53
54. What does series actuator mean?
A) Controls are moved
B) Actuator is in parallel
C) Controls are not moved
D) Actuator is separated from control axis
C) Controls are not moved
54
55. How high is the authority of a series actuator compared to the pilot’s authority?
A) 50% actuator authority
B) 75% actuator authority
C) 25% actuator authority
D) <10% actuator authority
D) <10% actuator authority
55
56. Which part of the air is used for combustion?
A) Primary air (75%)
B) Secondary air (25%)
C) Primary air (25%)
D) Secondary air (75%)
C) Primary air (25%)
56
57. When does the free power turbine start to rotate?
A) Actuating the start switch
B) Aerodynamic forces at the turbine blades are high enough
C) With ignition of the fuel
D) When the N1 shaft starts to rotate
B) Aerodynamic forces at the turbine blades are high enough
57
58. What is correct?
A) N1 shaft guided through N2 shaft
B) N2 shaft guided through N1 shaft
C) N1 drives N2
D) N2 drives accessory gear train
B) N2 shaft guided through N1 shaft
58
59. Engine oil pump is driven by?
1 Accessory gear train
2 Reduction gear train
3 N1 Shaft
4 N2 Shaft
A) 1 and 3
B) 1 and 4
C) 2 and 3
D) 2 and 4
A) 1 and 3
59
60. How many pumps belong to the engine lubrication system (per engine)?
A) 1
B) 3
C) 2
D) 5
B) 3
60
61. In the engine, the power changes are made by controlling the amount of?
A) Air leaving the compressor by opening/closing bleed valves
B) Air entering the compressor
C) Fuel supplied
D) Air entering the compressor and fuel entering the combustion chamber
C) Fuel supplied
61
62. Which device is controlled via the twist grips?
A) FADEC
B) Fuel Metering Unit
C) Bleed valve
D) Anti-icing valve
B) Fuel Metering Unit
62
63. The permanent indications of the engine lubrication systems are:
1 2x Temp
2 2x Pressure
3 1x Temp
4 1x Pressure
A) 1 and 2
B) 3 and 4
C) 1 and 4
D) 2 and 3
A) 1 and 2
63
64. Which caution lights belonging to the engine lubrication system can be illuminated in case of a failure?
1 Oil filter
2 Oil pressure
3 Oil quantity
4 Torque
5 Chip
6 Oil Temp
A) 2, 3, 4, 6
B) 1, 2, 5, 6
C) 1, 2, 5
D) 2, 5, 6
C) 1, 2, 5
64
65. Type of engine lubrication reservoir:
A) Grease
B) Wet sump
C) Dry sump
D) Splash-type
C) Dry sump
65
66. Type of pumps (engine lubrication system):
A) Gear pump
B) Axial piston pump
C) Gerotor pump
D) Radial piston pump
C) Gerotor pump
66
67. The engine consists of:
A) 3 modules
B) 2 modules
C) 5 modules
D) 4 modules
B) 2 modules
67
68. Type of combustion chamber:
A) Annular with rotating injection
B) Can type
C) Annular with reverse flow
D) Can-annular
C) Annular with reverse flow
68
69. Primary airflow is routed to:
A) The fuel nozzle area for combustion
B) To the compressor
C) To the oil cooler
D) To the combustion area for cooling
A) The fuel nozzle area for combustion
69
70. What is correct in respect of the turbines?:
1 N1 and N2 both double staged
2 N1 in front of N2 related to airflow
3 N1 and N2 both single staged
4 N2 in front of N1 related to a/c nose
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 4
C) 2 and 3
D) 2 and 4
C) 2 and 3
70
71. In which case does the freewheeling unit disconnect the engine from the main transmission?:
A) During transition to forward flight
B) Main transmission rpm < drive shaft rpm
C) In hover short prior touchdown
D) Main transmission rpm > drive shaft rpm
D) Main transmission rpm > drive shaft rpm
71
72. How is the main rotor brake monitored in the cockpit?:
A) No indication
B) Warning light
C) Only circuit breaker in the overhead panel
D) Caution light
D) Caution light
72
73. FADEC is the abbreviation for?:
A) Full Automatic Digital Engine Center
B) Forward Automatic Digital Escape Control
C) Full Authority Digital Engine Control
D) Full Authority Digital Emergency Control
C) Full Authority Digital Engine Control
73
74. What is the support width of the high landing gear?:
A) 3,20m
B) 2,30m
C) 3,85m
D) 2,65m
B) 2,30m
74
75. What is the material of the main fuselage structure?:
A) Glass fibre reinforced plastics
B) Wood fibre reinforced plastics
C) Carbon fibre reinforced plastics
D) Aluminium
D) Aluminium
75
76. What is the function of the control post?:
A) Carries the load of the cabin structure
B) Improves the rigidity of the airframe
C) Encases vertical control rods of main rotor flight controls
D) Encases the lightning rod of the main rotor hub
C) Encases vertical control rods of main rotor flight controls
76
77. What is installed on the equipment deck?:
A) Fire extinguisher and battery
B) Oil cooler of the air condition
C) Horizontal stabilizer with end plates
D) AHRS 1 and 2
A) Fire extinguisher and battery
77
78. What is under the fairing covers of the tail boom?:
A) VHF/UHF Antenna
B) Tail rotor drive shaft, hydraulic lines
C) Oil cooler for the air conditioning
D) AHRS 1 and 2
B) Tail rotor drive shaft, hydraulic lines
78
79. What is the task of the centrifugal breather?:
A) Venting the combustion chamber
B) Separating the oil from the vapours emerging during lubrication
C) Venting the Main transmission
D) There is no centrifugal breather installed in the ARRIUS 2B1 engine
B) Separating the oil from the vapours emerging during lubrication
79
80. The main function of the FADEC is?:
A) Automatic engine start-up, fuel metering in acc. to n1 for START/IDLE/FLIGHT condition, automatic control for all rpm and power ranges, engine and power parameter monitoring
B) Starting the engines, provides fuel pressure, changing main rotor rpm in acc. to required power, engine and performance monitoring
C) Starting the engines, rotational N(r) speed control during autorotation, automatic control for all rpm, ensuring maximum performance of the engine by disregarding economic parameters
D) Starting the engines, fuel metering control, switching from AEO to OEI status in case of low power consumption of the main rotor, engine and performance parameter monitoring
A) Automatic engine start-up, fuel metering in acc. to n1 for START/IDLE/FLIGHT condition, automatic control for all rpm and power ranges, engine and power parameter monitoring
80
81. What kind of compressor is part of the ARRIUS 2B1?:
A) Axial compressor
B) Double staged centrifugal compressor
C) Single staged centrifugal compressor
D) Membrane compressor
C) Single staged centrifugal compressor
81
82. What is the task of the "decoupling unit"?:
A) Decouple the main rotor from the MGB in case of an autorotation
B) Decouples vibrations of the MGB from the main rotor flight controls
C) Enables maintenance to quickly disconnect the rotor blades from the hub
D) There is no decoupling unit
B) Decouples vibrations of the MGB from the main rotor flight controls
82
83. The construction type of the tailboom is:
A) Aluminium truss frame
B) Semi-monocoque
C) Carbon monocoque
D) Aluminium monocoque
C) Carbon monocoque
83
84. How is the TRGB lubricated?:
A) Dry sump lubrication
B) Wet sump lubrication
C) Splash type lubrication
D) No lubrication needed
C) Splash type lubrication
