Airlaw - Exam Flashcards by Nicolai Thomsen

10: According to the Chicago Convention, aircraft of Contracting States shall have the right to make flights into or in transit non stop across the territory of other contracting States and to make stops for non-traffic purposes without the necessity of obtaining prior permission. This applies to the following flights:

A to aircraft of scheduled air services only.

B to aircraft engaged in commercial non-scheduled flights only.

C to aircraft on non-commercial flights only.

D to aircraft not engaged in scheduled international air services.

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11: Which Freedom of the Air will be exercised by an airline planning a flight that will require a technical stop in neighbouring State?

A 2nd freedom of the air.

B 3nd freedom of the air.

C 1st freedom of the air.

D 4th freedom of the air.

A 2nd freedom of the air.

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12: If a state finds that it is impracticable to comply with an International Standard:

A it shall give immediate notice to ICAO of the differences between its own practices and the International Standard.

B it shall give 45 days notice to ICAO of the differences between its own practices and the International Standard.

C it shall give 60 days notice to ICAO of the differences between ist own practices and the International Standard.

D it shall give 90 days notice to ICAO of the differences between its own practices and the International Standard

A it shall give immediate notice to ICAO of the differences between its own practices and the International Standard.

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13: What is the obligation of a State in the event of non-compliance with an international Standard?

A The State has to publish such differences in the national AIP only.

B The State has to notify the Assembly of ICAO and publish such differences in the national AIP.

C The State has to notify the Council of ICAO and publish such differences in the national AIP.

D Modifications to international Standards shall be published in the national AIP only: differences to Recommended Pracitices have do be notified to ICAO.

C The State has to notify the Council of ICAO and publish such differences in the national AIP.

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14: Concerning the Chicago Convention of 1944:

A each State has total sovereignty over the airspace above its territory.

B each State was required to recognize the other States attending.

C only 52 nations were permitted to attend.

D all States in the world attended.

A each State has total sovereignty over the airspace above its territory.

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15: The president of the ICAO Council is elected for:

A 1 year.

B 3 years.

C 5 years.

D 10 years.

B 3 years.

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16: Which international organisation was founded with the Chicago Agreement?

A AOPA

B JAA

C ICAO

D IATA

C ICAO

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17:International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) establishes:

A standards and recommended international practices for contracting member States.

B standards and recommended practices applied without exception by all States, signatory to the Chicago convention.

C aeronautical standards adopted by all States.

D proposals for aeronautical regulations in the form of 18 annexes.

A standards and recommended international practices for contracting member States.

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18: According to Article 73 of the German Basic Law, the legislative right concerning aviation is:

A jointly possessed by the Federal Government and the Länder

B exclusively possessed by the Deutsche Flugsicherung GmbH (DFS)

C exclusively possessed by the Federal Government

D. exclusively possessed by the aeronautical authorities of the Länder

C exclusively possessed by the Federal Government

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19: One of the main objectives of ICAO is to:

A develop principles and techniques for international aviation.

B approve new international airlines.

C approve the ticket prices set by international airline companies.

D approve new international airlines with jet aircraft.

A develop principles and techniques for international aviation.

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20: 5th Freedom of the Air:

A the right to carry revenue traffic from treaty partner’s territory (B) to carrier’s base nation (A).

B the right to carry revenue traffic between any points of landing on flights between 3 or more treaty partner nations (B to C to D).

C revenue traffic flown between two nations (C to A) by carrier of a third nation (B).

D the right to carry revenue traffic between two points within a treay nation (B) by the carrier of another nation (A).

B the right to carry revenue traffic between any points of landing on flights between 3 or more treaty partner nations (B to C to D).

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21: Regarding air operations what is the role of the national aviation authorities in relation to EASA?

A EASA is the regulatory authority whereas national aviation authorities can implement or reject the rules on air operations.

B EASA proposes recommendations about safety in aviation to national aviation authorities which thereupon implement thier own rules.

C EASA proposes rules and regulations to the national aviation authorities, which they can implement or reject.

D EASA proposes implementing rules and regulations and the national aviation act as competent authorities.

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22: In which area of Air Traffic Control in Europe does Eurocontrol have a logical and operationally essential role to play?

A National airspace management within in Europe.

B Regulation of civil aviation in Europe.

C Regional air naviagtion planning in Europe.

D Air Traffic Flow Management in Europe.

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23: What is the main role of EASA in European civil aviation?

A EASA provides legislative proposals to NAAs and promotes the highest common standards of safety and environmental protection in civil aviation.

B EASA provides legislative proposals to NAAs only, without any obligation of implementation.

C EASA provides legislative proposals to the European Commission for implementation and promotes the highest common standards of safety and environmental protection in civil aviation.

D EASA provides legislative proposals to CAAs only, without any obligation of implemenatation.

C EASA provides legislative proposals to the European Commission for implementation and promotes the highest common standards of safety and environmental protection in civil aviation.

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24: What is the mission statement of EASA?

A EASA suggest new rules to National Aviation Authorities, which these authorities are free to implement if they see fit.

B EASA suggests the implementation of rules to the European Commission, and promotes the highest common standards of civil aviation safety and environmental protection in Europe and worldwide.

C EASA produces guidlines for National Aviation Authorities, and promotes the highest common standards of civil aviation safety and environmental protection in Europe and worldwide.

D EASA produces rules and regulations, and promotes the highest common standards of civil aviation safety and environmenal protection in Europe and worldwide.

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25 What does IATA mean?

A International Air Transport Association

B International Airport Training Association

C International Air Trading Association

D International Aviation Training Association

A International Air Transport Association

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35: The First Freedom of the Air is:

A the right to board passengers from the State where the aircraft is registered and to fly to another State.

B the right to overfly without landing

C the right to land for a technical stop.

D the opportunity to operate a commercial flight with passengers on board bewtween two States.

B the right to overfly without landing

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36: Why is the 8 th freedom of the air particularly applicable to the European Union?

A Because the EU is primarily a commercial arrangement and it is commercially sensible to prevent non-EU carriers from profiting in Europe.

B Because the Chicago Convention allows a state to give exclusivity of internal air services to another state.

C Because most of the EU is effectively ‘one state’ as far as the internal movement of people is concerned.

D To prevent non-EASA states operating domestic scheduled services in Europe.

C Because most of the EU is effectively ‘one state’ as far as the internal movement of people is concerned.

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37: What does the International Air Transport Agreement provide for?

A Free and unhindered transit of aeroplanes over the high seas.

B The freedom for aeroplanes to fly over the territority of any other State without landing.

C. The carriage of traffic between the state of registration of the aircraft and any other participating state.

D The freedom for aeroplanes of one State to land in the territory of another State for the purpose of refuelling

C. The carriage of traffic between the state of registration of the aircraft and any other participating state.

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38: 6th Freedom of the Air is:

A the right to carry revenue traffic between any points of landing on flights between 3 or more treaty partner nations (B to C to D).

B revenue traffic flown between two nations (C to A) by carrier of a third nations (B).

C the right to carry revenue traffic between two points within a treaty nation (B) by carrier of another nation (A).

D a combination of Freedoms 3 and 4. Revenue traffic flown between two treaty partner nations (C to A) through carriers base nation (B).

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39: The objectives of ICAO were ratified by the:

A Warsaw Convention 1929.

B Montreal Convention 1948.

C Geneva Convention 1936.

D Chicago Convention 1944.

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40: The Air Navigation Commission consists of:

A 33 members appointed by the ICAO Council.

B 19 members appointed by the ICAO Council.

C 19 members appointed by the ICAO Assembly.

D 33 members appointed by the ICAO Assembly.

B 19 members appointed by the ICAO Council.

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41: The airport licence is issued by the following aeronautical authority:

A the aeronautical authority of the Länder in which the terrain is located

B German Air Navigation Services (DFS)

C Federal Office of Civil Aviation (LBA)

D Federal Ministry of Transport and Digital Infrastructure (BMVI)

A the aeronautical authority of the Länder in which the terrain is located

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42: Where is the ICAO Annex 13 applicable?

A Air Trafic Services

B The Safe Transport of Dangerous Goods by Air

C Facilitation

D Aircraft Accident and Incident Investigation

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43: The aviation supervision may prohibit a pilot to depart from an airfield: A in order to protect against dangers and for ensuring air traffic safety B in order to maintain flight discipline on the airfield C because the destination airfield may only be approached after prior permission (PPR) D for separating the aircraft approaching the airfield

A in order to protect against dangers and for ensuring air traffic safety

44: What is the mission statement of ICAO? A ICAO produces rules and regulations, and promotes the hightest common standards of civil aviation safety and environmental protection in Europe and worldwide. B ICAO's mission is to represent, lead and serve the airline industry. ICAO seeks to improve understanding of the industry among decision makers and increase awareness of the benefits that aviation brings to national and global economies. It fights for the interests of airlines across the globe, challenging unreasonable rules and charges, holding regulators and governments to account, and striving for sensible regulation. C ICAO's mission is to serve as the global forum of States for international civil aviation. ICAO develops policies and Standards, undertakes compliance audits, performs studies and analyses, provides assistance and builds aviation capacity through many other activities and the cooperation of ots Member States and stakeholders. D ICAO's mission is to improve new international airlines and aircraft.

C ICAO's mission is to serve as the global forum of States for international civil aviation. ICAO develops policies and Standards, undertakes compliance audits, performs studies and analyses, provides assistance and builds aviation capacity through many other activities and the cooperation of ots Member States and stakeholders.

45: Standards and Recommended Practices for Security are contained in ICAO Annex: A 17 B 15 C 12 D 8

A 17

60: The Standards of Airworthiness, detailed in Annex 8 part III are applicable to: A aeroplanes over 5700 kg Maximum Certified Take-off Mass, intended for the carriage of passengers, cargo or mail in international air navigation B aeroplanes of over 5700 kg Maximum Certified Take-off Mass, intended for the carriage of passengers only C aeroplanes over 5700 kg Maximum Certified Take-off Mass, intended for the carriage of cargo or mail in international air navigation D aeroplanes over 25 700 kg Maximum Certified Take-off Mass, intended for the carriage of passengers, cargo or mail in international air navigation

A aeroplanes over 5700 kg Maximum Certified Take-off Mass, intended for the carriage of passengers, cargo or mail in international air navigation

61: Where on the wings of heavier-than-air aircraft shall registration marks be located? A On the left half of the lower surface of the wing structure B On the right half of the lower surface of the wing structure C On the left half of the upper surface of the wing structure D On the right half of the upper surface of the wing structure

A On the left half of the lower surface of the wing structure

62: What is the definition of the State of Registry? (ICAO ANNEX /7 A The State on whose register the aircraft is entered B The State where the lessor is registered C The State where the operator is registered D The State where the aircraft is based

A The State on whose register the aircraft is entered

63: According to Annex 7, the definition of heavier-than-air aircraft is: A A power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft, deriving ist lift in flight chiefly from aerodynamic reactions on surfaces which remain fixed under given conditions of flight B Any machine that can derive support in the atmosphere from the reactions of the air other than the reactions of the air against the Earth's surface C A non-power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft, deriving ist lift in flight chiefly from aerodynamic reactions on surfaces which remain fixed under given conditions of flight D Any aircraft deriving ist lift in flight chiefly from aerodynamic forces

D Any aircraft deriving ist lift in flight chiefly from aerodynamic forces

64: What is the Aircraft Register and where is it kept and supervised? A It is kept at the EASA headquarter in Cologne B It is kept at the aviation authority of the Länder C kept and supervised with the ICAO headquarter in Montreal D kept and supervised at the LBA in Braunschweig

D kept and supervised at the LBA in Braunschweig

65: The height of the mark on the fuselage (or equivalent structure) and on the vertical tail surfaces of heavier than air aircraft shall be: A at least between 20 centimetres and 40 centimetres B at least 40 centimetres C at least 30 centimetres D at least 20 centrimetres

C at least 30 centimetres

66: Which of the following gets its lift chiefly through aerodynamis forces? A Heavier - than - air aircraft B Aeroplanes C Lighter-than-air aircraft D Rotorcraft

A Heavier - than - air aircraft

67: The height of the marks on the fuselage (or equivalent structure) and on the vertical tail surfaces of heavier than aircraft shall be: A at least between 20 centimetres and 40 centimetres B at least 40 centimetres C at least 30 centimetres D at least 20 centimetres

C at least 30 centimetres

68: The common mark shall be selected from the series of symbols included in the radio call sign allocated: A to the State of Registry by the International Telecommunication Union B to the International Civil Aviation Organisation by the International Telecommunication Union C to the State of Registry by the International Civil Aviation Organisation D to State of the Operator

B to the International Civil Aviation Organisation by the International Telecommunication Union

69: According to Annex 7, the registration mark shall be letters, numbers or a combination of letters and numbers and shall be that assigned by: A the State of Registry or common mark registering authority B the State of Registry only C the international Civil Aviation Organisation D the International Telecommunication Union

A the State of Registry or common mark registering authority

70: When letters are used for the registration mark, combinations shall not be used which might be confused with the: A four letter combinations beginning with Q B three letters combinations used in the internatinal code of signal C letters used for an ICAO identification documents D five letter combinations used in the international code of signals

D five letter combinations used in the international code of signals

75: According to Annex 7, the definition of aircraft is: A A power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft, deriving its lift in flight chiefly from aerodynamic reactions on surfaces which remain fixed under given conditions of flight B Any machine that can derive support in the atmosphere from reactions of the air other than the reactions of the air against the Earth's surface C A non-power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft, deriving its lift in flight chiefly from aerodynamic reactions on surfaces which remain fixed under given conditions of flight D Any aircraft supported chiefly by its buoyancy in the air

B Any machine that can derive support in the atmosphere from reactions of the air other than the reactions of the air against the Earth's surface

76: An aircraft with the identification D-CFLU can be a: A single-engined aircraft with a maximum mass of 2000 - 5700 kg MTOW B multi-engined aircraft with a maximum mass of 2000 - 5700 kg MTOW C multi-engined aircraft with a maximum mass of 14000-20000 kg MTOW D multi-engined aircraft with a maximum mass of 5700-14000 kg MTOW

D multi-engined aircraft with a maximum mass of 5700-14000 kg MTOW

77: Aircraft required to be registered with an airworthiness certificate are: A ultralight aircraft and winches for gliders B powered gliders, gliders, hang gliders C manned balloons, hang gliders, flying models of more than 150 kg D airplanes, rotorcraft, airships

D airplanes, rotorcraft, airships

78: Describe the following: helicopter, glider & airship: A aircraft B power driven aircraft C lighter than air aircraft D heavier than air aircraft

A aircraft

79: An aircraft which has the right of way shall maintain its: A altitude B course and speed C heading and speed D course; speed and altitude

C heading and speed

80: Except when necessary for take-off or landing; a VFR flight over congested areas of Cities; towns or settlements or over an open air assembly of persons shall not be flown at a height less than: A 300 m above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 ft from the aircraft:. B 300 m above the highest obstacle. C 300 m above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft. D 600 m above the highest obstacle within a radius of 300 m from the aircraft.

C 300 m above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft.

One of the following statements about aircraft ground movement is correct: A) A vehicle towing an aircraft has priority over a taxiing aircraft. B) An aircraft overtaking another does so by passing on the right. C) A taxiing aircraft has priority over a vehicle towing an aircraft. D) Two airplanes approaching head-on will alter course to the left.

C) A taxiing aircraft has priority over a vehicle towing an aircraft.

When two-way radio communication is lost, a pilot should select ____ on the transponder. A) Code 7500 B) Code 2000 C) Code 7700 D) Code 7600

D) Code 7600

A series of red flashes from aerodrome control tower directed towards an aircraft on ground means: A. Stop and taxi back, you are on the wrong taxiway. B. Give way to other aircraft taxiing. C. Slow down taxi speed. D. Taxi clear of landing area in use.

D. Taxi clear of landing area in use.

A flight plan shall be submitted prior to departure for a controlled flight at least: A. 10 minutes prior to departure. B. 60 minutes prior to departure. C. 30 minutes prior to the "off-blocks" time. D. 45 minutes prior to the "off-blocks" time.

B. 60 minutes prior to departure.

89 Whilst flying in an aerodrome's traffic circuit, an aircraft receives a series of green flashes from the tower. The aircraft: A. Must come back to land and the landing clearance will be sent in due time. B. Is cleared to land. C. Must give way to another aircraft. D. Must land immediately and clear the landing area.

A. Must come back to land and the landing clearance will be sent

What is the minimum flight altitude for VFR flights permitted over towns, settlements, and populated areas? A. 500 ft within a radius of 1 NM of the aircraft position. B. 1,000 ft within a radius of 8 km of the aircraft position. C. 1,000 ft above the highest obstacle within 600 m of the aircraft position. D. The altitude which permits the aircraft to land safely in the event of an engine failure.

C. 1,000 ft above the highest obstacle within 600 m of the aircraft position.

An aircraft manoeuvring in an airport's circuit receives a series of red flashes from the control tower. This signifies that the aircraft must: A. Give way to another aircraft. B. Not land because the airport is not available for landing. C. Continue to circle and await the clearance to land signal. D. Not land for the moment regardless of previous instructions.

B. Not land because the airport is not available for landing.

The signal from pilot to the signalman (marshaller) which means "brakes applied" is: A. Fist clenched in front of the face, then fingers extended. B. Arms extended, palms outwards, then move hands inwards to cross in front of the face. C. Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of face, then clench fist. D. Hands crossed in front of the face, palms outwards, then move arms outwards.

C. Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of face, then clench fist.

An overtaking aircraft is an aircraft that approaches another aircraft from the rear on a line forming an angle of: A. Less than 50° with the plane of symmetry of the latter. B. Less than 60° with the plane of symmetry of the latter. C. Less than 70° with the plane of symmetry of the latter. D. Less than 80° with the plane of symmetry of the latter.

C. Less than 70° with the plane of symmetry of the latter.

An aircraft operated on, or in the vicinity of, an aerodrome shall whether or not within an ATZ: 1. Observe other aerodrome traffic for the purpose of avoiding collision. 2. Conform with or avoid the pattern of traffic formed by other aircraft in operation. 3. Make all turns to the right, when approaching for landing or taking-off unless otherwise instructed. 4. Land and take-off into the wind unless safety, the runway configuration, or an air traffic consideration determines that a different direction should be used. Which statements are correct? A. 2, 3, 4 B. 1, 3, 4 C. 1, 2, 4 D. 1, 2, 3

C. 1, 2, 4

Two aircraft are approaching each other in a controlled airspace class D in VMC at approximately the same level on converging courses. Aircraft "A" is flying under IFR, Aircraft "B" is flying under VFR. Who has the right of way? A. Aircraft "B", providing it has "A" on its left. B. Aircraft "A", providing it has "B" on its right. C. Aircraft "B" regardless of the direction from which "A" is approaching. D. Aircraft "A" regardless of the direction from which "B" is approaching.

A. Aircraft "B", providing it has "A" on its left.

A series of green flashes from aerodrome control directed towards an aircraft on ground means: A. Cleared to taxi. B. Accelerate taxi speed. C. Slow down taxi speed, but continue. D. Stand by, clearance for take-off will be given in short time.

A. Cleared to taxi.

A series of green flashes from aerodrome control directed towards an aircraft in flight means: A. Cleared to land. B. Return for landing. C. Make a short approach and land as soon as possible. D. Continue circling and give way to other aircraft.

B. Return for landing.

The "Total Estimated Elapsed Time" in item 16 of a VFR flight plan is the estimated time: A. Required by the aircraft from the moment it moves by its own power until it stops at the end of the flight (block time). B. Required by the aircraft from take-off to arrive overhead the destination airport. C. Required by the aircraft from brake release at take-off until landing. D. Of endurance at cruising power taking into account pressure and temperature on that day.

B. Required by the aircraft from take-off to arrive overhead the destination airport.

Which is the correct order of priority? A. Power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft shall give way to airships, gliders, and balloons. B. Gliders shall give way to airships and balloons. C. Gliders do not give way to balloons. D. All aircraft shall give way to aircraft which are seen to be towing other aircraft.

A. Power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft shall give way to airships, gliders, and balloons.

A red flare light signal addressed to an aircraft in flight means: A. Aerodrome unsafe, do not land. B. Slow down speed to minimum, give way to other aircraft in the circuit, and continue circling. C. Notwithstanding any previous instructions, do not land for the time being. D. Return for approach, clearance to land to be expected on final.

C. Notwithstanding any previous instructions, do not land for the time being.

No aircraft shall be flown over the congested area of cities, towns, or settlements unless at a height that will permit: A. In the event of an emergency, a landing to be made safely. B. In the event of an emergency, the aircraft can fly to the nearest suitable aerodrome. C. In the event of an emergency, the aircraft can be flown away from the congested area. D. In the event of an emergency, a landing to be made safely at the nearest airfield.

A. In the event of an emergency, a landing to be made safely.

When two aircraft are approaching head-on or approximately so and there is a danger of collision, each shall: A. Alter its heading to the right. B. Alter its heading to the left. C. Switch on all available lights in order to warn the other traffic. D. Turn, climb, or descend as in order to avoid.

A. Alter its heading to the right.

No aircraft shall be flown over the congested area of cities, towns, or settlements unless at a height that will permit, in the event of an emergency, a landing to be made safely. Exceptions to this rule are: A. Take-off and landing, or permission from the appropriate authority. B. Take-off and landing. C. Permission from the appropriate authority. D. None of the above.

A. Take-off and landing, or permission from the appropriate authority.

An aircraft being towed by night must display: A. An anti-collision beacon. B. Steady navigation lights. C. Navigation lights and taxi lights. D. The same lights that are required in flight.

D. The same lights that are required in flight.

Anti-collision lights on an aircraft must be displayed: A. By all aircraft moving on the manoeuvring area. B. By all aircraft operating on the movement area. C. Between sunset and sunrise or any period specified by the appropriate authority. D. As soon as the engines are running.

D. As soon as the engines are running.

When a pilot raises his arms extended, palms facing outwards, and moves his hands inwards to cross in front of the face, this means: A. Brakes engaged. B. Brakes released. C. Insert chocks. D. Remove chocks.

C. Insert chocks.

You are flying on a VFR flight in VMC in a controlled airspace. Suddenly, you realize you are unable to maintain VMC. What are your actions according to ICAO Annex 2? A. Request a special VFR clearance if flying in a control zone. B. Continue to fly in VMC as best as possible and land at the nearest suitable airport immediately. C. Continue in IMC and land on the next airport which is equipped for instrument approaches. D. Continue in IMC and land on the next suitable airport.

A. Request a special VFR clearance if flying in a control zone.

The pilot-in-command of an aircraft: 1. Must comply immediately to all instructions received from ATC. 2. Is responsible only if he is the "pilot flying". 3. May deviate from air regulations for safety reasons. 4. May be exempt from air regulations in order to comply with an ATC instruction. 5. May ask for the modification of an unsatisfactory clearance. Which of the following combinations contain all of the correct statements? A. 3, 4, 5 B. 3, 5 C. 1, 4 D. 2, 3, 5

B. 3, 5

The minimum flight visibility for a VFR flight in ATS airspace classified as D at an altitude above 10,000 ft MSL is: A. 1500 m B. 8 km C. 5 km D. 5 NM

B. 8 km

Which signal from a marshaller indicates "all clear"? A. Raise arm and hand with fingers extended horizontally in front of the body, then clench fist. B. Arms raised above the head with palms facing the pilot. C. Right arm raised bent at elbow with thumb extended. D. Arms pointing down with palms pointing inwards, moving arms inwards from extended position.

C. Right arm raised bent at elbow with thumb extended.

Above 3050 m (10,000 ft) AMSL, the VMC minima for VFR flights in all classes of airspace (except class A) are: A. Flight visibility: 8 km, clear of clouds. B. No minima defined, VFR flights are not permitted. C. Flight visibility: 8 km; distance from clouds: 1,500 m horizontal; 1,000 ft vertical. D. Flight visibility: 5 km; distance from clouds: 1,500 m horizontal; 1,000 ft vertical.

C. Flight visibility: 8 km; distance from clouds: 1,500 m horizontal; 1,000 ft vertical.

135 When an aircraft is operating in class F airspace below 900 m AMSL, the minimum horizontal distance from cloud for VFR flight is: A 1000 ft. B 1500m. C 5 km. D clear of clouds and surface in sight.

D clear of clouds and surface in sight.

136 A series of red flashes from aerodrome control tower directed towards an aircraft in flight means: A give way to other aircraft in emergency. B aerodrome unsafe, do not land. C continue circling and wait for further instruction. D aerodrome temporarily closed, continue circling.

B aerodrome unsafe, do not land.

137 Flights operating within airspace classified as G above an altitude of 10 000 ft MSL and in acordance with VFR shall observe the following weather minima: A a distance from cloud: 1 500 m horizontally, 1000 ft vertically; flight visibility: 8 km B a distance from cloud: 1 500 m horizontally, 1000 ft vertically; flight visibility: 5 km C a distance from cloud: 1 Nautical Mile (NM), 1000 ft vertically; flight visibility: 5 km D a distance from cloud: 1 Nautical Mile (NM), 1000 ft vertically; flight visibility: 8 km

A a distance from cloud: 1 500 m horizontally, 1000 ft vertically; flight visibility: 8 km

138 "Raise hand just above shoulder, with palm open, eye contact with flight crew, then close hand into a fist". This signal from a signalman to an aircraft means: A release brakes. B engage brakes. C chocks removed. D start engines.

B engage brakes.

139 The minimum height, except for take-off and landing, may A be ignored, if at any time a suitable terrain allows a potential emergency landing B be ignored, if the terrain is largely free of obstacles C never be ignored D be ignored, if it does not expose the respective residents to unnecessary noise disturbance

C never be ignored

140 Advertising flights with towed objects need permission of: A the local aviation supervision B the Federal Aviation Office (Luftfahrt-Bundesamt) C the aeronautical authority of the Länder responsible for the area in which the object is to be towed D the aeronautical authority of the Länder of residence or domicile of the applicant

D the aeronautical authority of the Länder of residence or domicile of the applicant

141 A pilot needs a permit issued by the appropiate aeronautical authority for: A dropping tow ropes B dropping animal feed for wild animals C airdropping parachutists D dropping the banner

B dropping animal feed for wild animals

142 Aerobatic flights are prohibited in heights of less than: A 2000 ft GND B 1500 ft GND C 2500 ft GND D 1000 ft GND

B 1500 ft GND

143 Which unit of measurement applies for the vertical speed in aviation? A km/h B Mach and Kts C Knots D ft/min

D ft/min

144 Who is allowed to check whether a pilot has prepared a flight properly? A the delegate of the aviation supervision B the advisory service C the aerodrome operator D the flight information service of the DFS GmbH

A the delegate of the aviation supervision

145 After having entered a control zone on a VFR-flight, the radio fails. How shall the pilot behave? A proceed according to the acknowledged air traffic control clearance and wait for the light signals of the aerodrome control tower B leave the control zone on the shortest way possible, land and inform air traffic control C enter the traffic circuit immediately and land according to given light signals D fly across the runway and wait for light

A proceed according to the acknowledged air traffic control clearance and wait for the light signals of the aerodrome control tower

146 As an exception, you would like to take-off and land on a Bundeswehr aerodrome with DEKIL. The flight is not of a commercial nature. When are you allowed to do so? A Only with permission by DFS and AFSBw (German Forces Air Traffic Services Office) B Only with permission of the person responsible for flight operations C Only on Sundays and holidays, without special permission D Only with permission of the appropriate aeronautical authority of the Land

B Only with permission of the person responsible for flight operations

147 The pilot in command is the ultimate authority on operating the aircraft: A only during flight B during taxiing, take-off, landing and enroute. C only during take-off, flight and landing D only if he/she is sitting on the left seat of the aircraft

B during taxiing, take-off, landing and enroute.

148 Radiotelephony communication for VFR flights in Germany in airspace "C" above flight level 100 is conducted A in English language B in German language C in German or English language D in one of the ICAO languages

A in English language

149 An aircraft overtakes another aircraft when it approaches from behind in a direction of flight having an angle of less than: A 090° towards the direction of flight of the other aircraft B 070° towards the direction of flight of the other aircraft C 110° towards the direction of flight of the other aircraft D 120° towards the direction of flight of the other aircraft

B 070° towards the direction of flight of the other aircraft

150 The pilot is required to transmit a departure message to the responsible air traffic control unit for a flight from an uncontrolled aerodrome after having filed the flight plan. A This only applies if the departure time deviates from the expected departure time indicated in the flight plan by more than 30 minutes. B A departure message has to be transmitted in any case. C This only applies if the departure time deviates by more than 5 minutes from the expected departure time indicated in the flight plan. D This only applies if the departure time deviates by more than 15 minutes from the expected departure time indicated in the flight plan.

B A departure message has to be transmitted in any case.

151 In Germany Airspace G is below A 5000 ft MSL or 3500 ft GND, the lower value being relevant B 1000 ft and 1700 ft GND, otherwise 2500 ft MSL C 1000 ft and 1700 ft GND, otherwise 2500 ft GND D 1000 ft and 1700 ft GND, in other cases different depending on local conditions

C 1000 ft and 1700 ft GND, otherwise 2500 ft GND

152 According to ICAO Annex 2 - Rules of the Air, what is correct concerning a "Time Check"? A It is used for controlled flights and only obtained on request by ATC. B It is used for controlled flights and obtained on request by ATC only during ground operations. C It is only executed when requested by ATC. D A time check contains time given in hours, minutes and seconds.

D A time check contains time given in hours, minutes and seconds.

153 Under which conditions may aircraft fly in formation? A only upon agreement between the participating pilots B only in commercial air traffic C only above uncontrolled aerodromes D if the aircraft have a maximum mass of 2000 kg

A only upon agreement between the participating pilots

154 What can be ignored for a VFR flight in uncontrolled airspace? A flight visibility B ground visibility C ground in sight D cloud height and distance

B ground visibility

155 Engine-powered aircraft on a VFR flight in airspace C (below FL 100) are required to operate a transponder A as a VFR-flight only on request by ATC B always C above 5000 ft MSL or above 2000 ft GND, whichever is higher D above 5000 ft MSL or above 3500 ft GND, whichever is higher

B always

156 A radiotelephony signal comprising of the word "PAN PAN" means that an aircraft A accidentally entered a danger area B has been hijacked C has a very urgent message to transmit concerning the safety of a ship, aircraft or other vehicle, or of some person on board or within sight. D is threatened by grave and imminent danger, and immediate assistance is requested

C has a very urgent message to transmit concerning the safety of a ship, aircraft or other vehicle, or of some person on board or within sight.

157 When shall aircraft in operation switch on their navigation lights? A between half an hour after sunset and half an hour after sunrise B from half an hour past sunset to half an hour after sunrise C from SS to SR and poor flight visibility D at night

D at night

158 The pilot-in-command is responsible for operating the aircraft. This is valid A in uncontrolled airspace only B except air traffic control communication is performed via radio C except being within an control zone D irrespective, whether the pilot operates the aircraft personally or not

D irrespective, whether the pilot operates the aircraft personally or not

159 A pre-flight briefing needs to be obtained before every flight A which enters controlled airspace B with a flight distance of more than 100 km C which requires a flight plan to be filed D which leaves the vicinity of the aerodrome of departure

C which requires a flight plan to be filed

160 On aerodromes, aircraft taxiing by own power means A to have no priority over other vehicles and pedestrians B to have priority over pedestrians, but no priority over motor-driven vehicles C to have priority over other vehicles and pedestrians D to have the same rights as other vehicles and pedestrians unless the vehicles are police vehicles

C to have priority over other vehicles and pedestrians

161. Flight visibility defines as: A. visibility forward from the cockpit of an aircraft in flight to the ground. B. medium slant visibility from the cockpit of an aircraft in flight. C. maximum forward visibility from the cockpit of an aircraft. D. visibility forward from the cockpit of an aircraft in flight.

D. visibility forward from the cockpit of an aircraft in flight.

162 The aeronautical chart ICAO 1:500,000 describes an airspace “D ctr” with: “2800 (HX)”. Does a pilot, whose radio has failed, have the possibility to cross this airspace on a Saturday? A. only if the status of the deactivation of the control zone has been confirmed just before the radio failure happens. B. yes, if a flight plan has been filed and a permit of the competent aviation supervision is received. C. yes, because this aerodrome is closed on Saturdays and Sundays. D. only with transponder A/C 7600.

A. only if the status of the deactivation of the control zone has been confirmed just before the radio failure happens.

163 You hear on the radio that another pilot repeatedly transmits “MAYDAY”. It is: A. a distress signal. B. a check of the ground station. C. a warning signal. D. an urgency signal.

A. a distress signal.

164. An aircraft taxiing on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome shall give way to: A) Other vehicles or pedestrians B) Larger (heavier) aircraft C) All vehicles on the taxiways except the "follow me" vehicle D) Aircraft taking-off or about to take-off

D) Aircraft taking-off or about to take-off

165. In the event of a delay of a controlled flight, the submitted flight plan should be amended or canceled and a new flight plan submitted when the delay is in excess of: A) 30 minutes of the estimated time off blocks B) 30 minutes of the estimated time of departure C) 60 minutes of the estimated time off blocks D) 60 minutes of the estimated time of departure

A) 30 minutes of the estimated time off blocks

166. The higher value being relevant, a VFR-flight needs to operate a transponder above altitude 5000 ft MSL or: A) 2000 ft GND B) 2500 ft GND C) 3000 ft GND D) 3500 ft GND

D) 3500 ft GND

167. An engine-powered aircraft on a VFR flight leaves airspace C in the vicinity of an airport and continues its flight in airspace E at FL 75. What does the pilot have to do? A) Switches the transponder to stand-by and keeps a listening watch on UHF/VHF guard B) Keeps listening watch in order to obtain traffic information, if necessary C) Unrequested squawk A/C 7000 and observe the prescribed minima for VFR flights in airspace E D) Requests to leave frequency from air traffic control and switches the transponder to A/C 0021

C) Unrequested squawk A/C 7000 and observe the prescribed minima for VFR flights in airspace E

168. In the event that a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its track given in the current flight plan, action should be taken in order to: A) Adjust the heading of the aircraft to regain track as soon as practicable B) Notify the appropriate ATS unit immediately, notifying the new track and complying with instructions from ATS C) Maintain VMC, wait for instructions from the appropriate ATS unit D) Immediately inform ATC

A) Adjust the heading of the aircraft to regain track as soon as practicable

169. If there is any danger on the route, how will ATC inform the pilot? A) ATC will transmit to the pilot information about latitude and longitude of the potential threat B) ATC will transmit to the pilot information about distance and bearing to the potential threat C) ATC will transmit to the pilot information about separation time and distance to the potential threat D) ATC will transmit to the pilot information about GPS data of the potential threat

B) ATC will transmit to the pilot information about distance and bearing to the potential threat

170. While on the ground, the navigation lights shall be turned on: A) Only from sunrise to sunset if instructed by ATC B) By all aircraft moving on the movement area of an aerodrome from sunset to sunrise to indicate the relative path of the aircraft to an observer, and other lights shall not be displayed if they are likely to be mistaken for these lights C) From sunrise to sunset so that an observer on the ground can see in which direction the aircraft is moving D) At night and during the daytime unless otherwise instructed by ATC

B) By all aircraft moving on the movement area of an aerodrome from sunset to sunrise to indicate the relative path of the aircraft to an observer, and other lights shall not be displayed if they are likely to be mistaken for these lights

171. What is meant by the term "SPECIAL VFR"? A) A flight in IMC for which the pilot and/or the aeroplane is unable to comply with the requirements of IFR B) A VFR flight cleared by ATC to operate within a CTR in meteorological conditions below VMC C) A VFR procedure to enable an aeroplane to transit a control zone or area in IMC without compliance with IFR D) Any flight cleared by ATC to operate in conditions less than VMC in which the pilot is required to remain clear of cloud and surface in sight

B) A VFR flight cleared by ATC to operate within a CTR in meteorological conditions below VMC

172. What is the lowest height for VFR flights over congested areas? A) 300 ft B) 1000 ft C) 500 ft D) 600 ft

B) 1000 ft

173. The following signal means that an aircraft wishes to give notice of difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance (urgency signals): A) The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights B) Switching on and off of the landing lights in a sequence consisting of the letter group SOS C) Switching on and off three times the navigation lights D) Switching on and off three times the landing lights

A) The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights

174. ICAO Annex 2: 4.6 - Except when necessary for take-off or landing, or except by permission from the appropriate authority, a VFR flight shall not be flown: a) Over the congested areas of cities, towns, or settlements or over an open-air assembly of persons at a height less than 300 m (1000 ft) above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft; b) Elsewhere than as specified in 4.6 a), at a height less than ___ (___) above the ground or water. A) 150 m; (500 ft) B) 900 m; (3000 ft) C) 600 m; (2000 ft) D) 500 m; (1500 ft)

A) 150 m; (500 ft)

175. What should a pilot do at night and if no radio communication can be established when he/she wants to acknowledge an instruction from an aerodrome control tower? A) Fly a circle B) Turn off and on the aircraft's anti-collision light C) Flash on and off twice the aircraft's landing lights or, if not so equipped, switch on and off twice its navigation lights D) Turn on the aircraft's landing lights and then switch on and off twice the navigation lights

C) Flash on and off twice the aircraft's landing lights or, if not so equipped, switch on and off twice its navigation lights

176. Aircraft equipped with red anti-collision lights shall display them: A) Outside the daylight-period in flight, but not on the ground when it is being towed B) Outside the daylight-period at engine start. During the daylight-period, this is not applicable C) On the ground when the engines are running D) While taxiing, but not when it is being towed

C) On the ground when the engines are running

177. What is the meaning of red pyrotechnic from an airfield to an aircraft flying next to this airfield? A) Notwithstanding any previous instructions, do not land for the time being B) Give way to other aircraft in emergency C) Give way to other aircraft and continue circling D) The aircraft must not land because the airport is not available for landing

A) Notwithstanding any previous instructions, do not land for the time being

178. A signalman (marshaller) requests the pilot to engage brakes with the following signal: A) Raise hand just above shoulder height with open palm, ensure eye-contact with crew, close hand into a fist B) Arms raised above the head with palms facing the pilot C) Right arm raised, bent at elbow, with thumb extended D) Arms pointing down with palms pointing inwards, moving arms inwards from extended position

A) Raise hand just above shoulder height with open palm, ensure eye-contact with crew, close hand into a fist

179. While flying at night another aircraft reports that you are on his 100° relative bearing. Assuming you are on converging courses, you should see his: A) White navigation light B) Red navigation light C) Green and white navigation lights D) Green navigation light

D) Green navigation light

180. Describe the lights to be displayed by an aircraft in flight at night: A) Navigation lights and anti-collision lights B) Navigation lights only C) Anti-collision lights only D) Navigation lights, anti-collision lights, and landing lights

A) Navigation lights and anti-collision lights

181. What is the meaning of the term "DANGER AREAS"? A) An airspace of defined dimensions above the land areas or territorial waters of a State within which flight of aircraft is prohibited B) An airspace of defined dimensions within which activities dangerous to the flight of aircraft may exist at specified times C) A NOTAM activated airspace where the general flight rules are disregarded D) An airspace of defined dimensions within which air traffic control service is provided to IFR flights and to VFR flights in accordance with the airspace classification

B) An airspace of defined dimensions within which activities dangerous to the flight of aircraft may exist at specified times

182. Who is in charge of the safe conduct of a flight? A) The pilot-in-command B) The ATC controller whenever the aircraft is flying in controlled airspace C) The aircraft owner D) The airline operator

A) The pilot-in-command

183. Which of the following defines "FLIGHT VISIBILITY"? A) Visibility determined in flight not obscured by cloud, dust, haze, or precipitation B) The forward visibility from the flight cockpit of an aircraft in flight C) The ability to determine in the air the distance and identity of unlighted objects by day and lighted objects by night D) The forward distance at which objects can be discerned in the air with reference to atmospheric conditions

B) The forward visibility from the flight cockpit of an aircraft in flight

184. When must the pilot turn on the navigation lights? A) Only in the daytime B) Only at night C) Day and night D) When in IMC

B) Only at night

185. Which of the following defines "GROUND VISIBILITY"? A) The visibility forward from the flight deck of an aircraft B) The visibility at an aerodrome as reported by an accredited observer or by automatic systems C) The visibility reported by a pilot currently flying in the vicinity D) The forecast visibility at 3000 ft above the aerodrome

B) The visibility at an aerodrome as reported by an accredited observer or by automatic systems

186. How is "FLIGHT VISIBILITY" defined? A) The visibility reported by a pilot currently flying in the vicinity B) The forecast visibility at 3000 ft above the aerodrome C) The visibility forward from the cockpit of an aircraft in flight D) The visibility as reported by an accredited observer

C) The visibility forward from the cockpit of an aircraft in flight

187. The pre-flight actions for a flight leaving the local aerodrome area, is to include a careful: A) Study of the available meteorological reports and forecasts for the route B) Study of the available weather charts C) Briefing of the crew D) Briefing of the passengers

A) Study of the available meteorological reports and forecasts for the route

188. State who on board an aircraft is primarily responsible for the operation of the aircraft in accordance with the Rules of the Air (ICAO Annex 2): A) The operator B) The safety manager C) The senior cabin crew member D) The pilot-in-command

D) The pilot-in-command

189. In general, the ICAO Annex 2 (Rules of the Air) applies: A) To all IFR traffic B) To all VFR traffic C) Only to aircraft registered in the State being overflown D) To all IFR and VFR traffic

D) To all IFR and VFR traffic

190. While taxiing, an aircraft receives the following light signal from the control tower: series of red flashes. This signal means that the aircraft: A) Must stop B) Must return to its point of departure C) May continue to taxi to the take-off area D) Must vacate the landing area in use

D) Must vacate the landing area in use

191. The final authority as to the disposition of an aircraft in flight lies with the: A) Aircraft operator B) Pilot-in-command C) Aircraft owner D) ATC controller if the aircraft is flying in a controlled airspace

B) Pilot-in-command

192. When is a deviation from the Rules of the Air permitted? A) Only in the interests of flight safety B) Anytime the PIC thinks it is necessary C) Only if the operator has special dispensation from the aircraft manufacturer D) Only when it is economically advantageous

A) Only in the interests of flight safety

193. Pre-flight briefing for flights away from the vicinity of an aerodrome and all IFR flights shall include which of the following? A meteorological brief A consideration of the fuel requirements Alternative actions if the flight cannot be completed as planned A) 1 B) 1, 2 C) 1, 2, 3 D) All of the above are recommended but not mandatory

C) 1, 2, 3

194. No continuous air-ground voice communication is required for VFR flights in airspaces: A) G, E B) TMZ, G, D C) G, E, C D) E, D, G

A) G, E

195. The higher value being relevant, the pilot switches the altimeter from QNH to 1013.25 hpa above altitude 5000 ft MSL or: A) 2000 ft GND B) 2500 ft GND C) 3000 ft GND D) 3500 ft GND

A) 2000 ft GND

200. The phases related to an aircraft in emergency or believed in emergency are, in the increasing order of seriousness: A. INCERFA, ALERFA, DETRESFA B. ALERTFA, DISTRESFA, RESCUEFA C. DETRESFA, ALERTFA, INCERFA D. INCERFA, ALERTFA, DISTRESFA

A. INCERFA, ALERFA, DETRESFA

201. For VFR flights, continuous two-way radio communication with ATS is required in the following airspace classes: A. B, C, D. B. B, C, D, E. C. B, C, D, E, F. D. B, C, D, E, F, G.

A: B, C, D

202. Which of the following phenomena would cause a SIGMET to be transmitted to aircraft flying at subsonic cruising levels? A. Cumulonimbus cloud, volcanic ash or severe icing. B. Active thunderstorms, moderate or severe turbulence or heavy hail. C. Severe squall lines, heavy hail or severe icing. D. Marked mountain waves or hail.

C. Severe squall lines, heavy hail or severe icing.

203. DETRESFA is a situation where: A. no communication has been received from an aircraft within a period of thirty minutes after the time a communication should have been received. B. an aircraft fails to land within 5 minutes of being cleared to land. C. the fuel on board is considered to be exhausted. D. an aircraft fails to land within 5 minutes of being cleared to land or where the fuel on board is considered to be exhausted.

C. the fuel on board is considered to be exhausted.

204. A special VFR clearance may be obtained from ATC for the following airspaces: A. CTR, TMA and AWY B. CTR C. CTR and CTA D. CTR and TMA

B. CTR

205. Special VFR flights may be authorized to operate locally within a control zone when the ground visibility is not less than 1 500 meters, even when the aircraft is not equipped with a functioning radio receiver within class: A. D and E airspaces B. E airspace C. D airspace D. C, D and E airspaces

B. E airspace

220. Aerodrome traffic is: A. All traffic on the movement area and flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome. B. All traffic on the manoeuvring area and flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome. C. All traffic on the manoeuvring area. D. All traffic in the aerodrome traffic circuit.

B. All traffic on the manoeuvring area and flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome.

221. When should the flight crew be provided with information about the transition level? A. Before commencing an approach to an aerodrome. B. Before commencing any descent. C. When flying inside the transition layer. D. When passing the transition altitude.

A. Before commencing an approach to an aerodrome.

222. The units providing Air Traffic Services are: A. Area Control Centre - Advisory Centre - Flight Information Centre - Approach Control Office and Tower. B. Area Control Centre - Approach Control Office and Aerodrome Control Tower. C. Area Control Centre - Flight Information Centre -Approach Control Office - Aerodrome Control Tower and Air Traffic Services reporting office. D. Area Control Centre - Flight Information Region -Approach Control Office and Tower.

C. Area Control Centre - Flight Information Centre -Approach Control Office - Aerodrome Control Tower and Air Traffic Services reporting office.

223. The highest priority for landing has: A. an aircraft that is compelled to land (Emergency landing). B. a military aircraft. C. an aircraft on a diplomatic flight (Head of state). D. an Air Ambulance carrying a very sick person needing immediate medical attention.

A. an aircraft that is compelled to land (Emergency landing).

224. Which phase of emergency is declared if an aircraft is known or believed to be subject of unlawful interference? A. ALERFA B. INCERFA. C. DETRESFA. D. None of the above.

A. ALERFA

225. Flight Information Service shall be provided to aircraft in order to avoid collision hazards when operating in airspace classes: A. F and G only. B. C, D, E, F, and G. C. A, B, C, D, E, F and G. D. F only.

B. C, D, E, F, and G.

226. When are ATIS broadcasts updated? A. Upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of content change or reported values. B. Every 30 minutes if weather conditions are below those for VFR; otherwise hourly. C. Only when weather conditions change enough to require a change in the active runway or instrument approach in use. D. only when the ceiling and/or visibility changes by a reportable value

A. Upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of content change or reported values.

227. What is the meaning of the abbreviation "ATIS"? A. Automatic Traffic Information System. B. Automatic Terminal Information Service. C. Automatic Traffic Information Service. D. Air Traffic Information System.

B. Automatic Terminal Information Service.

228. Which of the following statements describes the Uncertainty Phase (INCERFA)? A. An aircraft which has been cleared to land fails to land within 5 minutes of the ETA and communication has not been re-established B. An aircraft is known or believed to be the subject of unlawful interference. C. An aircraft fails to arrive within 30 minutes of the ETA passed to ATC. D. An aircraft declares that the fuel remaining is insufficient to reach safety.

C. An aircraft fails to arrive within 30 minutes of the ETA passed to ATC.

229. The Approach Control Service is an Air Traffic Control Service: A. for IFR flights arriving and departing. B. provided for IFR and VFR flights within a Control Zone. C. provided for IFR traffic within a Control Zone. D. provided for the arriving and departing controlled flights.

D. provided for the arriving and departing controlled flights.

230. In accordance with ICAO legislation, what minimum ground visibility is required to enable a SVFR flight to take-off from an aerodrome in a CTR? A. 1000 m B. 1500m C. 2000 m D. 3000 m

B. 1500m

231. The 3 basic types of ATS are: A. ATC, FIS and Alerting Service. B. FIS, TWR and Alerting Service. C. ATC, FIS and ARO. D. ATC, AIS and Alerting Service.

A. ATC, FIS and Alerting Service.

232. What is the objective of Aerodrome Control Service? A. To prevent collisions between aircraft. B. To prevent collisions between aircraft on the manoeuvring area and obstructions in that area. C. To expedite and maintain an orderly flow of air traffic. D. All of the above.

D. All of the above.

233. Where an upper flight information region (UIR) is established, the procedures applicable there: A. have to be as indicated by ICAO council. B. have to be as agreed at the regional air navigation meetings. C. need not to be identical with those applicable in the underlying flight information region. D. have to be the same as in the underlying flight information region.

C. need not to be identical with those applicable in the underlying flight information region.

234. Flight Information Region (FIR) is an airspace within which the following services are provided: A. Flight Information Service, Alerting Service and Advisory Service. B. Flight Information Service only. C. Flight Information Service and Advisory Service. D. Flight Information Service and Alerting Service.

D. Flight Information Service and Alerting Service.

235. ATIS broadcast: A. shall not be transmitted on the voice of a VOR. B. shall be transmitted on the voice channel of an ILS, on a discrete VHF frequency or on the voice channel of a VOR. C. shall not be transmitted on the voice channel of an ILS. D. shall only be transmitted on a discrete VHF frequency.

C. shall not be transmitted on the voice channel of an ILS.

236. An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all participating IFR flights receive an air traffic advisory service and all flights receive flight information service if requested, is classified: A. airspace F. B. airspace G. C. airspace E. D. airspace D.

A. airspace F.

237. The speed limitation for both IFR flights and VFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as B, when flying below 3050 m (10000 ft.) AMLS, is: A. not applicable. B. 240 kts IAS. C. 250 kts IAS. D. 250 kts TAS.

A. not applicable.

238. ATS airspaces where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control service and are separated from each other are classified as: A. airspace E. B. airspace A. C. airspace D. D. airspace B.

D. airspace B.

239. In which situation would a METAR result in a prompt ATIS update? A. When receiving a "Special Aerodrome Meteorological Report" B. When receiving of any official weather, regardless of content change or reported Values. C. Only when the ceiling and/or visibility changes by a significant value. D. Every 30 minutes if weather conditions are below those for VFR (otherwise every 60 minutes).

A. When receiving a "Special Aerodrome Meteorological Report"

240. Which condition is requested so that an aerodrome may be considered controlled? A. The aerodrome shall be located within a Control Zone (CTR) and provided with a Control Tower. B. The aerodrome shall be located within a Control Zone. C. The aerodrome shall be located within a controlled airspace. D. The aerodrome shall be provided with a Control Tower.

D. The aerodrome shall be provided with a Control Tower.

241 Which provisions on a VFR flight in Class E airspace are correct? A Service provided: Air Traffic Control Service; ATC Clearance: not required. B Service provided: Traffic Information as far as practical; ATC Clearance: not required. C Service provided: Air Traffic Control Service; ATC Clearance: required. C Service provided: Traffic Information as far as practical; ATC Clearance: required.

B Service provided: Traffic Information as far as practical; ATC Clearance: not required.

242 Air Traffic Control Service is provided for the purpose of: A avoiding collisions between all aircraft and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic. B applying separation between aircraft and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic. C preventing collisions between controlled air traffic and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic. D preventing collisions between aircraft, between aircraft and obstacles on the manoeuvring area and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic.

D preventing collisions between aircraft, between aircraft and obstacles on the manoeuvring area and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic.

243 Whenever ATIS is provided, the preparation and dissemination of the ATIS message shall be the responsibility of: A the meteorological office serving the aerodrome(s). B the air traffic services. C both air traffic services and the meteorological office. D the unit as prescribed the states.

B the air traffic services.

244 The speed limitation for VFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as C, when flying below 3050m (10000 ft.) AMSL, is: A 240 kts IAS. B 250 kts TAS. C 250 kts IAS. D not applicable.

C 250 kts IAS.

245 The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as E, when flying below 3050m (10000 ft.) AMSL, is: A 250 kts TAS. B 250 kts IAS. C 240 kts IAS. D not applicable.

B 250 kts IAS.

246 In radio communications, "DISTRESS" differs from "URGENCY"because in the first case: A the aeroplane will not be able to reach a suitable aerodrome. B the aeroplane has suffered damages which impair its fitness to fly. C there is a serious and imminent danger requiring immediate assistance. D the aeroplane or a passenger's safety require the flight immediately interrupted.

C there is a serious and imminent danger requiring immediate assistance.

247 An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted and all flights are subject to air traffic control service; IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and receive traffic information in respect of VFR flights; VFR flights receive traffic information in respect of all other flights, is classified as: A airspace E. B airspace B. C airspace D. D airspace A.

C airspace D.

248 When are you required to report your position? A Before the position point. B 5 min before the position point. C At or after the position point. D On request of ATC.

C At or after the position point. and D On request of ATC

249 A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the Earth to a specified upper limit is: A air traffic zone. B control area. C control zone. D advisory airspace.

C control zone.

250 When an aircraft is experiencing difficulties, triggering of the alert phase is the responsibility of: A search and rescue coordination centres. B air traffic control and flight information centres. C control centres only. D air traffic coordination centres.

B air traffic control and flight information centres.

255 Whenever ATIS is provided, the broadcast information shall be updated: A as prescribed by the meteorological office. B at least every half an hour independently of any significant change. C immediately a significant change occurs. D as prescribed by the state.

C immediately a significant change occurs.

256 An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted, IFR flights are subject to Air Traffic Control Service and are separated from other IFR flights. All flights receive traffic information as far as is practical, is classified as: A airspace A. B airspace G. C airspace B. D airspace E.

D airspace E.

257 To perform a VFR flight in airspace classification E: A a clearance is required. B two-way radio communication is not required. C a clearance and two-way radio communication is required. D a clearance and/or two-way radio communication is required.

B two-way radio communication is not required.

258 What is the speed limit (IAS) in airspace class E? A 250 kts only for IFR up to FL 100. B 250 kts for IFR and VFR up to FL 100. C 250 kts VFR and IFR, all levels. D 250 kts only for VFR up to FL 195.

B 250 kts for IFR and VFR up to FL 100.

259 An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control service and IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and from VFR flights, VFR flights are separated from IFR flights and receive traffic information in respect of other VFR flights, is classified as: A airspace C. B airspace D. C airspace E. D airspace B.

A airspace C.

260 Which type of service is provided in Class F airspace? A Air Traffic Advisory service and Flight Information Service. B Air Traffic Control service and Flight Information Service. C Flight Information Service. D Air Traffic Advisory service.

A Air Traffic Advisory service and Flight Information Service.

265 An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted and receive only flight information service if requested, is classified as: A airspace C. B airspace F. C airspace G. D airspace E.

C airspace G.

266 The phases related to an aircraft in emergency or believed to be in an emergency are: A uncertainty phase, alert phase, distress phase and urgency phase. B uncertainty phase, urgency phase, distress phase. C uncertainty phase, distress phase, urgency phase. D uncertainty phase, alert phase, distress phase.

D uncertainty phase, alert phase, distress phase.

267 Clearances will be issued by an ATC unit for the purpose of: A achieving separation between controlled flights. B providing Flight Information Service. C providing Advisory Services. D providing Alerting Services.

A achieving separation between controlled flights.

268 The ATIS broadcast message should, whenever practicable, not exceed: A 3 minutes. B 1 minute. C 2 minutes. D 30 seconds.

D 30 seconds.

269 Which air traffic services are provided by the German Air Navigation Services (DFS)? A alerting and rescue service. B air traffic control service, search and rescue service. C weather service, advisory service. D aeronautical information service, air traffic control service, flight information service.

D aeronautical information service, air traffic control service, flight information service.

270 When should position reports be made? A At intervals not exceeding 1 hour. B At the discretion of the commander. C When passing each designated compulsory reporting point. D When passing designated significant points referred to as "on request reporting points."

C When passing each designated compulsory reporting point.

271 Which statement is correct regarding clearances issued by ATC controllers? A Clearances are always valid to destination. B Clearances do not relieve pilots from their responsibility to comply with rules and regulations. C Clearances are always issued on a "first come" basis. D Clearances are always valid to the FIR boundary.

B Clearances do not relieve pilots from their responsibility to comply with rules and regulations.

272 The definition of "Manoeuvring Area" is: A that part of an aerodrome to be used for take-off, landing and taxiing of aircraft, including apron(s). B that part of an aerodrome to be used for take-off, landing and taxiing of aircraft, excluding apron(s). C that part of an aerodrome to be used for take-off, landing and taxiing of aircraft, including movement area and apron(s). D none of the above is correct.

B that part of an aerodrome to be used for take-off, landing and taxiing of aircraft, excluding apron(s).

273 What is the latest time the QNH should be communicated to aircraft prior to take-off? A When taxi approval is given. B When the ATC clearance is delivered. C When start-up approval is given. D When take-off clearance is given.

A When taxi approval is given.

274 What is the meaning of the abbreviation "AFIS"? A Aerodrome Flashing Identification Signal. B Automatic Flight Information Service. C Aeronautical Flight Information System. D Aerodrome Flight Information Service.

D Aerodrome Flight Information Service.

275 ESSENTIAL TRAFFIC is that controlled flight to which the provision of separation by ATC is applicable, but which, in relation to a particular controlled flight is not separated therefore by the appropriate separation minima. Whenever separation minima are not applied, the following flights are considered essential traffic one to each other: A Controlled VFR flights and VFR flights. B All IFR flight in controlled airspaces and controlled VFR. C All IFR flights. D Only controlled IFR flights.

B All IFR flight in controlled airspaces and controlled VFR.

276 A pilot encountering windshear should report the fact to ATC: A only if windshear has not been previously reported. B if windshear has not been forecast or reported. C only if windshear has not been forecast. D as soon as possible.

D as soon as possible.

277 Which of the following has the highest order of priority? A Aircraft taking-off. B Aircraft landing. C Aircraft taxiing. D Aircraft being towed by a vehicle.

B Aircraft landing.

278 Traffic to which the provision of ATC is applicable, but which, in relation to a particular controlled flight, is not separated there from by the minima set forth is called: A emergency traffic. B essential traffic. C urgent traffic. D crossing traffic.

B essential traffic.

279 A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the Earth is: A control area. B control zone. C advisory airspace. D flight information region.

A control area.

280 When under Special VFR clearance, the responsibility for remaining clear of obstacles on the ground rests with: A - The pilot in the controls. B - Air Traffic Control (ATC). C - The pilot-in-command. D - Both the ATC and the pilot-in-command.

C - The pilot-in-command.

281 What does the term "air traffic control clearance" mean? A the acknowledgement to conduct a flight coordinated before take-off, issued by an air traffic control unit. B a flight permission, coordinated with air traffic control and issued by the aviation supervision office. C the authorisation to conduct a flight under particular conditions, issued by an air traffic control unit. D the approval for a flight according to the flight plan filed, issued by an aeronautical information service unit.

C. the authorisation to conduct a flight under particular conditions, issued by an air traffic control unit.

282 Which does ATC Term "radar contact" signify? A Your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight instructions will be provided until radar identification is terminated. B Your aircraft has been identified and you will receive separation from all aircraft while in contact with this radar facility. C You will be given traffic advisories until advised that the service has been terminated or that radar contact has been lost. D ATC is receiving your transponder and will furnish vectors and traffic advisories until you are advised that contact has been lost.

A Your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight instructions will be provided until radar identification is terminated.

283 How are VFR flights separated in airspace C and which air traffic control services do apply? A VFR flights are only separated at nighttime – air traffic control, flight information service. B VFR flights are separated from IFR flights – air traffic control, traffic information VFR/VFR flights (traffic avoidance advice upon request). C All VFR flights are separated – air traffic control. D VFR flights are separated from IFR flights – air traffic advisory service, if possible.

B VFR flights are separated from IFR flights – air traffic control, traffic information VFR/VFR flights (traffic avoidance advice upon request).

284 At which altitude/FL in Germany do flight information regions (FIR) end? A FL 190 B FL 245 C FL 460 D unlimited

B FL 245

285 Which minimum requirements and air traffic services apply for VFR flights in airspace D (below FL100)? A flight visibility 5 km, cloud distance 1500 ft vertically, 1500 m horizontally, listening watch, max. 250 kts IAS, air traffic control clearance, separation to IFR flights. B flight visibility 5 km, cloud distance 1000 ft vertically, 1000 m horizontally, max. 250 kts IAS, air traffic control clearance, listening watch, no separation to IFR flights, air traffic control, traffic information. C flight visibility 8 km, cloud distance 1000 ft vertically, 1500 m horizontally, listening watch, air traffic control clearance, separation to IFR flights, air traffic control, max. 250 kts IAS. D flight visibility 5 km, cloud distance 1500 m horizontally, 1000 ft vertically, air traffic control, continuous air-ground voice communications, max. 250 kts IAS, traffic information in respect of all other flights and traffic avoidance advice on request.

D flight visibility 5 km, cloud distance 1500 m horizontally, 1000 ft vertically, air traffic control, continuous air-ground voice communications, max. 250 kts IAS, traffic information in respect of all other flights and traffic avoidance advice on request.

295 Air Traffic Service unit means: A Flight Information Centres and Air Services reporting offices. B Air Traffic Control units and Flight Information Centres. C Air Traffic Control units and Air Services reporting offices. D Air Traffic Control units, Flight Information Centres or Air Traffic Services reporting offices.

D Air Traffic Control units, Flight Information Centres or Air Traffic Services reporting offices.

296 An Air Traffic Control Unit: A may not ask an aircraft to change its call sign after accepting the flight plan B may instruct an aircraft to temporarily change its call sign for safety reasons when there is a risk of confusion between two or more similar call signs. C may require to change the call sign for safety reasons when there is a risk of confusion between two or more similar call signs providing the aircraft is on a repetitive flight plan. D must not ask an aircraft to change its call sign.

B may instruct an aircraft to temporarily change its call sign for safety reasons when there is a risk of confusion between two or more similar call signs.

297 Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, the horizontal radar separation minimum shall be: A 3 NM B 3.5 NM C 5 NM D 10 NM

C 5 NM

298 If an ATC clearance is not suitable to the pilot-in-command of an aircraft the following applies: A The flight crew may propose another clearance. ATC has to amend the clearance in accordance with the flight crew's request. B The flight crew may request an amended ATC clearance from the ATC unit. Amended ATC clearances will only be given when VMC prevails. C The flight crew may request and, if practicable, obtain an amended ATC clearance. D The flight crew has to accept the ATC clearance. The ATC clearance is based on the flight plan filed with ATC unit.

C The flight crew may request and, if practicable, obtain an amended ATC clearance.

299 A Special Air Report shall be made by the pilot: A following an AI RP ROX incident. B when experiencing severe icing or turbulence. C in case an unruly passenger is identified to be on board. D when the destination ETA changes by plus or minus 10 minutes.

B when experiencing severe icing or turbulence.

300 Regarding Aerodrome Flight Information Service (AFIS): A it can only supply limited services to the users and under no circumstances may supply ATC services. B its purpose is to supply ATC services but it is not a state organisation. C it has the same privileges and prerogatives as an ATC organisation but its activity is neither continuous nor regular. D its only purpose is to relay ATC information to the aircraft in flight or on the ground.

A it can only supply limited services to the users and under no circumstances may supply ATC services.

310 Following an AIRPROX incident, an Air Traffic Incident Report (ATIR) should be submitted: A within 24 hours. B within 7 days. C to the air traffic service unit concerned. D immediately after landing.

C to the air traffic service unit concerned.

311 A controlled flight is: A any flight in C, D or E class airspace. B any flight in controlled airspace. C any flight which is subject to an ATC clearance. D any IFR flight.

C any flight which is subject to an ATC clearance.

312 Essential traffic information shall be given to: A all controlled flights at any time. B all flights that are "known" to ATC. C controlled flights, whenever they constitute essential traffic to each other. D all aircraft at the discretion of the air traffic controller.

C controlled flights, whenever they constitute essential traffic to each other.

313 What are the controlled traffic separation methods applied by ATC? A Vertical, horizontal and angular separation. B Time separation and track separation. C Vertical and horizontal separation. D Composite separation.

C Vertical and horizontal separation.

314 The Transition Level: A is published on the approach and landing chart for each aerodrome. B will be passed to aircraft by ATS units. C is calculated by the pilot in command. D is published and updated in the NOTAM.

B will be passed to aircraft by ATS units.

315 IFR cruising levels within controlled airspace shall be given as Flight Level pery (FL): A only in airspace class A. B when QNH is higher than the standard pressure 1 013 hPa. C above the Transition Altitude when applicable. D if the obstacle clearance is more than 2000 feet.

C above the Transition Altitude when applicable.

316 Essential local traffic consists of: A any aircraft, vehicle or personnel on or near the runway to be used, or traffic in the take- off and climb-out area or the initial approach area, which may constitute a collision hazard to I FR aircraft. B any aircraft, vehicle or personnel on or near the runway to be used, or traffic in the take- off and climb-out area or the final approach area, which may constitute a collision hazard to IFR aircraft. C any aircraft, vehicle or personnel on or near the runway to be used, or traffic in the take- off and climb-out area or the initial approach area, which may constitute a collision hazard to a departing or arriving aircraft. D any aircraft, vehicle or personnel on or near the runway to be used, or traffic in the take- off and climb-out area or the final approach area, which may constitute a collision hazard to a departing or arriving aircraft.

D any aircraft, vehicle or personnel on or near the runway to be used, or traffic in the take- off and climb-out area or the final approach area, which may constitute a collision hazard to a departing or arriving aircraft.

317 What is the objective of filing an ATIR (Air Traffic Incident Report)? A To promote aircraft flight safety. B To allocate blame for an incident. C To increase the efficiency of the investigation. D All of the above.

A To promote aircraft flight safety.

318 Before flight, transition level information can be obtained by consulting: A AIP, ATIS, ATC B AIP, ATIS CATC D ATIS, ATC

D ATIS, ATC

319 When should ATC provide the pilot with a local QNH altimeter setting? A With clearance to enter the traffic pattern. B At the start of radar vectoring. C With initial taxi clearance. D With clearance to enter the traffic pattern and with initial taxi clearance.

D With clearance to enter the traffic pattern and with initial taxi clearance.

320 Which part of the AIP contains a detailed description of lower ATS routes? A. RTE B. ENR C. REG D. GEN

B. ENR

330 A checklist of valid NOTAM currently in force shall be issued over the Aeronautical Fixed Service (AFS) at intervals of not more than: A. one month. B. 28 days. C. 15 days. D. 10 days.

A. one month.

331 What are the contents of an “NFL 1”? A. important regulation for aviation concerning realisation of flight operations B. information via electronic means about short-term failures of ground facilities or operational limitations if information can not be conveyed by regular mail in time C. aviation personnel and airworthiness directives D. planned modifications of annexes, regulations, procedures, restrictions and hazards which are of special significance for border-crossing air traffic

A. important regulation for aviation concerning realisation of flight operations

332 The Aeronautical Information Service has the following tasks, among others A. to transmit meteorological reports B. to inform Search and Rescue Services C. to issue take-off clearances D. to accept, check and forward flight plans

D. to accept, check and forward flight plans

333 The aeronautical information publication (AIP-) VFR shows the entry "PPR" for an aerodrome in item "operating hours". What does this abbreviation stand for? A. It is a military aerodrome. Pilots with a private licence may only approach this aerodrome with a special permission of the BMVI. B. Landing on this aerodrome may only be performed with prior permission of the person responsible for flight operations. There is no obligation to operate. C. Only PPL holders with a special permit issued by the aeronautical authority may approach and land on this aerodrome. D. Only holders of a permit issued by the Federal Ministry of Transport and Digital Infrastructure may land on this aerodrome. Obligation to operate exists "upon demand".

B. Landing on this aerodrome may only be performed with prior permission of the person responsible for flight operations. There is no obligation to operate.

334 The contents of Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP) are: A. GEN, ENR (en-route) and AD (aerodromes) B. GEN, AGA, COM, RAC, FAL SAR, MET, MAP C. GEN, AGA, COM, ENR, FAL D. GEN, ENR, RAC, AD

A. GEN, ENR (en-route) and AD (aerodromes)

335 Whenever practicable, NOTAMs are distributed by: A. AFTN B. e-mail. C. fax. D. printed brochure.

A. AFTN

345 Select the acronym corresponding to the following definition: "A special NOTAM series notifying, by means of a specific format, an important change for the aircraft operations, due to a volcano activity, a volcano eruption or a volcanic ash cloud". A. VULTAM B. NAVTAM C. ASHTAM D. VOLCAM

C. ASHTAM

346 How are restricted (R), prohibited (P) and dangerous (D) areas represented? A. By the letters R, P or D. B. By the letters R, P or D and additionally with an ID number. C. By the letters RPD and an ID number. D. By the letters RAY, PA or DA and additionally with an ID number.

B. By the letters R, P or D and additionally with an ID number.

347 An AIRAC is: A. A notice distributed by means of telecommunication containing information concerning the establishment, condition or change in any aeronautical facility, service, procedure or hazard, the timely knowledge of which is essential to personnel concerned with flight operations. B. A package which consists of the following elements: AIP, supplements to the AIP, NOTAM, AIC, checklists and summaries. C. A publication issued by or with the authority of a state containing aeronautical information of a lasting character essential to air navigation. D. An acronym for a system aimed at advance notification based on common effective dates, of circumstances necessitating significant changes in operating procedures.

D. An acronym for a system aimed at advance notification based on common effective dates, of circumstances necessitating significant changes in operating procedures.

348 Temporary changes of long duration and information of "short duration" with text and/or graphics are published as AIP supplements. The period of "long duration" is defined as: A. 3 months or longer. B. 2 months or longer. C. 1 year or longer. D. 6 months or longer.

A. 3 months or longer.

349 Which part of the AIP contains a list of differences between the national regulations/practices and the related ICAO Standards, Recommended Practices and Procedures? A. GEN B. AD C. ENR D. REG

A. GEN

350 The system notifying in advance the circumstances requiring important changes in the methods of operation, based on common effective dates, is identified by the acronym: A. AIRAC B. NOTAM C. PANS D. IFPS

A. AIRAC

351 What is the purpose of AIS? A. To ensure the flow of information necessary for the safety, regularity and efficiency of international air navigation. B. To ensure good contact between ATC services and flight crews. C. Providing the ATC service to pilots in the air. D. To ensure that all aeronautical documents and publications are kept up to date.

A. To ensure the flow of information necessary for the safety, regularity and efficiency of international air navigation.

352 "A publication issued by or with the authority of a State and containing aeronautical information of a lasting character essential to air navigation" is the definition of: A. NOTAM B. Aeronautical Information Circular (AIC) C. Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP) D. Aeronautical Information Regulation and Control (AIRAC).

C. Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP)

353 Which part of the AIP contains a brief description of the service(s) responsible for search and rescue? A. ENR B. SAR C. GEN D. AD

C. GEN

354 Operationally significant changes to the AIP shall be published in accordance with: A. NOTOC B. NOTAM followed by a number C. AIRAC D. AIC

C. AIRAC

355 A notice providing information on Rules of the Air, Air Traffic Services and Air Navigation Procedures and distributed in advance of its effective date is: A. A NOTAM RAC. B. An AIRAC. C. An ATS NOTAM. D. An Advisory NOTAM.

B. An AIRAC.

365 From which of the following would you expect to find details of the Search and Rescue Organisation and procedures (SAR)? A. ATCC broadcasts. B. AIP. C. NOTAM. D. SIGMET.

B. AIP.

366 Which part of the AIP gives detailed information about refueling facilities and the fuel grades available? A. FAL B. GEN C. ENR D. AD

D. AD

367 Runway threshold lights shall be: A. fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the direction of approach to the runway. B. fixed unidirectional lights showing green in the direction of approach to the runway. C. fixed lights green colours. D. fixed lights showing green or white colours.

B. fixed unidirectional lights showing green in the direction of approach to the runway.

368 The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar indicates that: A. landing, take-off and taxiing is allowed on runway and/or taxiway only. B. aircraft are required to land and take off on runways only, but other manoeuvres need not to be confined to runways and taxiways. C. glider flying is performed outside the landing area. D. this aerodrome is using parallel runways.

B. aircraft are required to land and take off on runways only, but other manoeuvres need not to be confined to runways and taxiways.

369 Taxiway markings and aircraft stand markings are: A. white B. grey C. yellow D. red

C. yellow

370 When on or close to the approach slope, the wing bar of a PAPI shows: A. two red lights and two white lights. B. four red lights. C. four white lights. D. three white lights and one red light

A. two red lights and two white lights.

380 When a runway threshold is displaced, what colour shall the runway edge lights have in approach direction between the beginning of the runway and the displaced threshold? A. Blue, this portion of the runway is considered as taxiway. B. White C. Red D. Flashing red, intermittent with flashing white.

C. Red

395 In what colour shall mobile objects, like airport service vehicles, be painted? A. red B. green C. blue D. yellow

D. yellow

396 A runway end safety area includes: A. the full runway and a symmetrically disposed area either side of the centerline which can be used by aircraft in an emergency. B. an area symmetrical about the extended runway centre line and adjacent to the end of the strip primarily intended to reduce the risk of damage to an aeroplane undershooting or overrunning the runway. C. the clearway and a symmetrically disposed area either side of the centerline which can be used by aircraft in an emergency. D. the stopway and an area symmetrical about the extended runway centre line and adjacent to the end of the strip primarily intended to reduce the risk of damage to an aeroplane undershooting or overrunning the runway.

B. an area symmetrical about the extended runway centre line and adjacent to the end of the strip primarily intended to reduce the risk of damage to an aeroplane undershooting or overrunning the runway.

397 The abbreviation PAPI stands for: A. Precision Approach Power Index. B. Precision Approach Path Index. C. Precision Approach Power Indicator D. Precision Approach Path Indicator

D. Precision Approach Path Indicator

398 In which cases is the aerodrome lighting of an aerodrome being turned on as a basic principle? A. in case of poor weather, e.g. rain or snow B. in IMC C. after sunrise D. on request by pilot

B. in IMC and D. on request by pilot

399 The abbreviation PAPI stands for A. precision approach path installation B. precision approach path indicator C. presumed aviation procedure instruction D. precise aerodrome parking information

B. precision approach path indicator

400 The following markings are used to indicate a runway or a taxiway is closed: A. White crosses for runways and yellow crosses for taxiways. B. Yellow crosses for runways and white crosses for taxiways. C. White crosses for runways only closed to operations aircraft with a take-off mass greater 5700 kg. D. Yellow crosses for runways only closed to operations by aircraft with a take-off mass greater 5700 kg.

A. White crosses for runways and yellow crosses for taxiways.

435 A runway friction coefficient for a specific runway is reported by the ATS as "040´. This corresponds to ___ braking action. A. poor B. medium/good C. medium/poor D. good

D. good

436 Runway centreline markings shall be provided on: A. paved runways B. instrument runways C. runways which have a width of 45 m or more. D. runways which have a length of 1 200 m or more

A. paved runways

437 Where is a stopway situated? A. At the end of the LDA. B. At the end of the TORA. C. At the end of the ASDA. D. At the end of the TODA.

B. At the end of the TORA.

438 "ASDA" (Acceleration Stop Distance Available) is: A. the length of the take-off run available plus the length of stopway (if stopway provided). B. the length of the runway plus the length of stopway available (if stopway provided). C. the length of the take-off run available plus the length of stopway and clearway (if provided). D. the length of the take-off run available plus the length of the clearway.

A. the length of the take-off run available plus the length of stopway (if stopway provided).

439 A specific point, measured and reported to the aeronautical Information services authority in degrees, minutes and seconds, which normally corresponds to the geometric centre of an airport is: A. the threshold position of runway in use. B. the aerodrome reference point. C. the position of the tower. D. the midpoint of the runway.

B. the aerodrome reference point.

440 In the "Aerodrome Reference Code" the code element 2 shall identify A. the aircraft wingspan and the outer main gear wheel span. B. only the aircraft wingspan. C. the width of the aircraft Wing. D. the length of the aircraft fuselage.

A. the aircraft wingspan and the outer main gear wheel span.

450 The "aerodrome elevation" is the height of: A. the airfield reference datum. B. the threshold of the main precision runway. C. the highest point in the landing area. D. the apron.

C. the highest point in the landing area.

An "aerodrome reference point" is defined as the: A. Elevation of the highest point of the landing area. B. Location of the landing threshold. C. Pre-flight altimeter check location. D. The designated geographical location of the aerodrome.

D. The designated geographical location of the aerodrome.

A runway friction coefficient for a specific runway is reported by the ATC as "0.36". This corresponds to _ braking action. A. Poor B. Medium/Poor C. Medium/Good D. Good

C. Medium/Good

Regarding declared airfield distances, the ASDA is: A. The distance from the start of the take-off run to the end of the clearway. B. The distance from the start of the take-off run to the last point capable of bearing the full weight of the aircraft under normal operating conditions. C. The distance from the start of the take-off run to the end of the stopway. D. The area beyond the end of the prepared surface only available to aircraft stopping in an emergency.

C. The distance from the start of the take-off run to the end of the stopway.

The colour of fixed, unidirectional Runway End Lights shall be: A. Yellow B. White C. Green D. Red

D. Red

How is a taxiway holding position marked? A. One or three different line arrangements painted across the taxiway. B. Flashing yellow "guard" lights. C. A red marker board either side of the taxiway. D. A red light stop bar.

C. A red marker board either side of the taxiway.

A runway may be contaminated by frozen water deposits. What are the three states of frozen water reported by ATC? A. Clear ice, rime ice and snow. B. Light snow, heavy snow, blizzard. C. Snow, ice and slush. D. Thin ice, occasional ice, heavy ice.

C. Snow, ice and slush.

Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies dimensions of aerodromes are codes for different runways. Which is the minimum width of a runway with runway code 4? A. 35 metres. B. 45 metres. C. 40 metres. D. 55 metres.

B. 45 metres.

How does a pilot see the PAPI Wing bar lights, when the position of the aircraft is far above the approach slope? A. The unit nearest to and the unit farthest from the runway are Mute, the two others are red. B. All four light units are steady white. C. All four light units are flashing white. D. The unit nearest to and the unit farthest from the runway are steady white, the two on the centre are flashing white.

B. All four light units are steady white.

463 Taxiway centreline lights other than an exit taxiway shall be: A. fixed lights showing white. B. fixed lights showing blue. C. fixed lights showing yellow. D. fixed lights showing green.

D. fixed lights showing green.

464 How many red lights must a pilot see, whose aircraft in final approach is following a normal glide path defined by a PAPI? A. 1 B. 3 C. 0 D. 2

D. 2

465 Mandatory instructions signs on an aerodrome shall have the following colours: A. black inscription on a yellow background. B. yellow inscription on a black background. C. black inscription on a red background. D. white inscription on a red background.

D. white inscription on a red background.

What is the name for a taxiway connected to a runway at an acute angle designed to allow aeroplanes to turn off at higher speeds than are achieved on other exits thereby minimizing runway occupancy time? A. Rapid turn-off lane. B. High-speed exit lane. C. Rapid exit taxiway. D. Acute angle exit.

C. Rapid exit taxiway.

471. ICAO Annex 14 states a simple approach lighting system shall consist of a row of lights on the extended centre line of the runway extending, whenever possible, over a distance of not less than ___ m from the threshold with a row of lights forming a crossbar. A. 600 m; 300 m B. 420 m; 300 m C. 420 m; 150 m D. 300 m; 200 m

B. 420 m; 300 m

472. Clearway is defined rectangular area established to: A. Reduce the risk of damage to aircraft running off a runway. B. Permit aircraft to make a portion of its initial climb to a specific height. C. Protect aircraft during take-off or landing operations. D. Permit the aircraft to stop if it fails the take-off.

B. Permit aircraft to make a portion of its initial climb to a specific height.

473. Taxiway edge lights shall be: A. Fixed showing green. B. Fixed showing blue. C. Fixed showing yellow. D. Flashing showing blue.

B. Fixed showing blue.

474. “An area symmetrical about the extended runway centreline and adjacent to the end of the strip primarily intended to reduce the risk of damage to an aeroplane undershooting or overrunning the runway” is the definition for: A. Clearway. B. Runway end safety area. C. Stopway. D. Runway strip.

B. Runway end safety area.

475. Describe where a threshold should normally be located: A. A threshold should normally be located at a distance of 10 m from the runway end unless operational considerations justify the choice of another location. B. A threshold should normally be located at a distance of 5 m from the runway end unless operational considerations justify the choice of another location. C. A threshold should normally be located at the extremity of a runway unless operational considerations justify the choice of another location. D. A threshold should normally be located at a distance of 50 ft from the runway end unless operational considerations justify the choice of another location.

C. A threshold should normally be located at the extremity of a runway unless operational considerations justify the choice of another location.

476. The number of stripes on each side of the centreline of a runway which has a width of 45 m is: A. 8 B. 3 C. 4 D. 6

D. 6

477. The “PAPI” shall consist of: A. A wing bar of 2 sharp transition multi-lamp equally spaced. B. Two wing bars of 4 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced. C. Two wing bars of 6 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced. D. A wing bar of 4 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced.

D. A wing bar of 4 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced.

478. A horizontal white dumb-bell with a black bar placed perpendicular to the shaft across each circular portion placed in the aerodrome signal area indicates that: A. Aircraft are required to land and take-off on runways and all other manoeuvres need to be confined to runways or taxiways. B. A parallel runway system is used at this aerodrome. C. Aircraft are required to land and take-off on runways only, but other manoeuvres need not be confined to runways or taxiways. D. The aerodrome is being used by gliders and that glider flights are being performed on a parallel runway.

C. Aircraft are required to land and take-off on runways only, but other manoeuvres need not be confined to runways or taxiways.

479. A black letter “C” on a yellow background indicates: A. Rest-room facilities for visiting pilots. B. The location of the aerodrome control tower. C. The location of ATC on an airfield. D. The location where visiting pilots should report.

D. The location where visiting pilots should report.

480. “A defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of take-off run available prepared as a suitable area in which an aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off” is the definition for: A. Obstacle Free Zone (OFZ). B. Runway end safety area. C. Stopway. D. Clearway.

C. Stopway.

Airlaw - Exam Flashcards

(272 cards)