AJVR/JAVMA Flashcards

1
Q

Excretion times of electronic capsules from the colon of cows

A

significantly faster from cows with cecal dilation-dislocation > controls

sig. slower in cows w. LDA than all other groups

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2
Q

indications for rumenostomy

A

rumenal tympany/ bloat, esophageal obstruction, grain overload, access for enteral nutrition

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3
Q

indications for rumenotomy

A

TRP, bloat, FB, choke, others

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4
Q

prognosis for Bovids undergoing rumen surgery

A

a favourable prognosis for survival and a fair prognosis for potential return to production

-ostomy had higher percentages of remaining in herd, lower culling percentages on long term follow up

Results indicated that rumenotomy and rumenostomy can be effective in treating or relieving complications secondary to forestomach disorders in cattle

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5
Q

does feeding a direct-fed microbial (DFM) to dairy calves reduce total or AMR coliform counts in faeces or affect ADG?

A

Results suggested that the DFM fed to the preweaned calves of this study did NOT reduce total or AMR coliform counts in faeces

*Mean ceftiofur-resistant and tetracycline-resistant coliform counts for the control group were significantly lower

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6
Q

monocarboxylate transporter MCT1

A

might predominantly contribute to the uptake of short-chain fatty acids in the large intestine

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7
Q

monocarboxylate transporter MCT4

A

might predominantly contribute to the uptake of lactate in the SI

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8
Q

IHC analysis revealed that MCT1 and CD147 were present where in the equine GIT?

A

in the membranes of enterocytes (in crypts and villi)

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9
Q

Short-chain fatty acids (SCFAs) in equids

A

–Short-chain fatty acids (SCFAs) produced by microbial fermentation of CHO in GIT of herbivores
–Large amount of fibre in diet increases total amount of SCFAs produced in hindgut of ponies
–Most of luminal SCFAs produced are acetate, propionate, and butyrate
–SCFAs essential for health and function of intestinal epithelium, and account for >30% of total E provision at rest in ponies fed high roughage diet
–pH of hindgut of equids ~6 to 7, so SCFAs mainly ionised and require transporter for cellular uptake (eg MCTs)

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10
Q

SAA increases ?-fold within ?-hours after inflammatory response

A

10 - >100 fold within 6-12 hours

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11
Q

SAA plasma half life

A

20-35 hours

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12
Q

haptoglobin increases ?-hours after inflammatory stimulus

A

12-24 hours

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13
Q

haptoglobin half life

A

about 3.5 days

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14
Q

horses with ___ have significantly higher SAA and haptoglobin than normal horses

A

colitis
peritonitis

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15
Q

horses admitted to tertiary hospitals with inflammatory disease have significantly different ___ what 3 values compared to normal horses?

A

neutrophil count
SAA
haptoglobin

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16
Q

Horses w an increase in SAA WHEN were significantly more likely (OR 7) to be euthanised or develop complications

A

btwn 24 and 72 h after admission, compared to admission SAA

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17
Q

PRRSV - porcine reproductive and respiratory syndrome virus

A

-positive-stranded, enveloped RNA virus
-Member of Arteriviridae, species-specific (like other members), and highly variable
-Transmitted through all bodily secretions, incl urine, faeces, colostrum, milk, saliva, semen, and nasal secretions
-Infectious dose appears to be low and variable and is dependent on virus strain, route of entry, concurrent health conditions, and age of pig

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18
Q

PRRSV in Sows

A

causes abortions, stillborn piglets, mummified foetuses, irregular returns to oestrus, and death

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19
Q

PRRSV in Suckling and growing pigs

A

preweaning death, lethargy, respiratory tract disease, anorexia, and a decrease in ADG

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20
Q

PRRSV in Boars

A

Boars of repro age: acute respiratory tract disease, anorexia, lethargy, lack of libido, and reduction in semen quality

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21
Q

PRRSV incidence and infections

A

Weekly incidence low during spring and summer, high during fall and winter

Exponentially weighted moving average signalled the onset of a PRRSV epidemic during the middle 2 weeks of October each year

Results indicated a striking repeatability in annual PRRSV temporal and spatial patterns across 4 y of data among herds from 14 production companies, which suggested that efforts to control PRRSV at a regional level should continue to be supported

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22
Q

Most coxiella infections in animals are

A

subclinical

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23
Q

Primary resevoir for coxiella

A

cattle, sheep, goats

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24
Q

WHAT provided a protective effect against coxiella for goats

A

farms where primary form of goat carcass disposal was burial

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25
Q

Coxiella testing

A

Animals – serologic testing not reliable

qPCR of biological matter or fluids is rapid and highly sensitive

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26
Q

causative agent of OPP

A

small ruminant lentivirus

aka Made-Visna

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27
Q

What kind of sheep flocks are more likely to be infected w OPP?

A

those maintained on NON-FENCED range

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28
Q

Primary route of transmission for SRLVs

A

aerosol or direct contact w virus-contaminated nasal secretions from infected animals, and viral transmission is most efficient when animals are in close proximity to each other

The virus is also transmitted vertically from infected ewes to lambs by in utero infection or through milk or colostrum

Iatrogenic transmission of SRLV during milking has also been suggested

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29
Q

OPP

A

Animals infected w SRLVs are infected for life, but dt long incubation period, generally takes years for csx of disease to manifest

Sheep: onset of csx of OPP is variable and most infections subclinical

Typically, CSx observed in sheep > 2 years old: progressive wt loss despite normal appetite or dyspnoea

Initially, dyspnoea detected only after physical exertion and is extremely noticeable when flock is driven

Affected animals often have a rhythmic jerk of the head w each inspiration and lag behind the rest of the flock

Their nostrils may be flared, and they often have slight nasal discharge

Frequently develop secondary bacterial infections, which may exacerbate the dyspnoea

Over time, infected sheep may develop laboured breathing at rest and spend most of their time lying down

Besides wt loss and dyspnoea, other csx associated w SRLV incl meningitis, encephalitis, muscle twitching, indurative mastitis (leading to the condition colloquially known as hard bag), arthritis, joint swelling and signs of pain (partic of carpal and tarsal joints), and paresis that progresses to paralysis

By time that csx are observed, most organ systems are affected and death is imminent

Economic losses assocated w OPP primarily dt subclinically affected animals w impaired production rather than clinically affected animals à decreased milk production, lower conception proportions, lower birth wts, retarded growth and lower weaning weights, higher proportion of animals culled prematurely (ie lower mean flock age)

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30
Q

Strangles is more likely to be diagnosed when?

A

Spring > summer

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31
Q

Horses with what clinical finding are more likely to develop purpura hemorrhagica?

A

anemia

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32
Q

Where are the TRH receptors located?

A

melanotropes of pars intermedia and corticotropes of the pars distalis; stimulation of these receptors increases secretion of aMSH and ACTH

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33
Q

What temperature must TRH for PPID testing be stored at?

A

room temperature storage does not affect TRH stim testing

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34
Q

What happens if you repeat a TRH stim test within 24 hours?

A

second ACTH response will be LOWER

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35
Q

What can be measured to differentiate WNV vaccinated from previously infected horses?

A

IgM

WNV-specific IgM responses were typically detected in the sero of WNV-infected horses but not sera vaccinated horses

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36
Q

What type of WNV vaccine produced a longer lasting response?

A

killed

–WNV-specific IgG1 detected sera of most horses 14 d after vx
–Serum anti-WNV IgG1 and neutralising Ab responses induced by the KV vaccines were higher and lasted longer than did those induced by the live canarypox virus-vectored vaccine

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37
Q

What is recommended to measure anti-WNV titres in vaccinated horses?

A

WNV IgG1 ELISA

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38
Q

What is recommended to measure to distinguish btwn natural infection and vaccination for WNV?

A

both IgM and IgG1 responses

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39
Q

Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae

A

highly contagious, G- coccobacillus that is transmitted rapidly through pig herds in which adequate biosecurity is lacking

Infection with NAD (nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide)-dependent strains of APP can result in signs of severe disease within 12 h after exposure and death within 24 to 36h thereafter

Self-perpetuating inflam contributes to pathogenesis of APP infection in swine

Leukotriene B4, a proinflammatory lipid mediator derived from arachidonic acid, acts as a potent NP chemoattractant and is an important marker of inflam

Similarly, the release of LDH is a prominent marker of cellular necrosis and hallmark of pulmonary tissue damage

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40
Q

Tulathromycin in pigs

A

had immunomodulatory effects on leukocytes in vitro and anti-inflammatory effects in pigs in experimental models of APP infection and nonmicrobial-induced pulmonary inflammation

data suggested that in addition to its amx properties, tulathromycin may dampen severe proinflammatory responses and drive resolution of inflammation in pigs w microbial pulmonary infections

–In vitro, tulathromycin induced time-and concentration-dependent apoptosis in NPs, which enhanced their subsequent clearance by macrophages
–promoted leukocyte apoptosis and efferocytosis and inhibited proinflammatory leukotriene B4 production, w a concurrent reduction in leukocyte necrosis relative to that of control pigs
–attenuated the degree of lung damage and lesion progression in APP inoculated pigs

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41
Q

polyethylene glycol (PEG)-conjugated bovine granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (bG-CSF)

A

Cattle treated w PEG-bG-CSF at 10 and 20 mg/kg had significantly fewer cases of clinical mastitis & it did not significantly affect daily milk production or milk composition

was effective for reducing the incidence of naturally occurring clinical mastitis in periparturient dairy cattle

–G-CSF is an endogenous haematopoietic GF that stimulates the production and differentiation of NPs by progenitor cells located in bone marrow
–Daily admin of recombinant bG-CSF to periparturient cows induces pronounced neutrophilia and increased phagocytic and cytotoxic activity of NPs
–PEG used to extend the duration of activity

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42
Q

Calves with high Ab titres (from vaccination) against WHAT TWO viruses had lower odds of BRD?

A

BRSV and BHV-1

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43
Q

When should pregnant dairy cattle be vaccinated for BHV-1 and BVDV?

A

At least 60 days pre-calving and again 5 weeks later

Titres of Abs against viral resp pathogens were significantly enhance in both serum (BHV1 and BVDV2) and colostrum (BHV1, BVDV1 and BVDV2) in cattle receiving a KV vaccine (w no adverse reactions) before parturition

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44
Q

dantrolene sodium

A

lipophilic hydantoin derivative used to treat or prevent various neuromuscular disorders in humans and animals

has been used for tx or pv of anaesthetic myopathy and exertional rhabdomyolysis in horses

**Results suggested that dantrolene premed prevented muscle damage without affecting anaesthetic recovery but impaired CO and precipitated hyperkalaemia and cardiac arrhythmias in healthy iso-anaesthetised horses

–Exact mechanism not clearly understood - likely multifactorial involving suppression of Ca release from the SR and ER and modification of Ca entry into cells
–One of primary effects is inhibition of calcium efflux from these receptors, specifically the RyR1 isoform in skeletal muscle and the RyR3 isoform in neural tissue, w minimal impact on the RyR2 isoform in healthy cardiac muscle

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45
Q

In horses w intestinal ischaemia, mucosal COX-2 gene expression is

A

increased

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46
Q

___ is highly effective in decreasing LPS-induced PGE2 concentrations

A

firocoxib

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47
Q

clenbuterol

A

FDA-approved b2-adrenergic receptor agonist labelled for the tx of RAO in horses
–oral formulation has excellent bioavailability and accumulates in the lungs, liver, myocardium and other tissues
–anti-inflammatory properties and increases the rate of mucociliary transport, + effects on tracheobronchial clearance of inhaled particulates

–When skeletal myocyte b2-adrenergic Rs are stimulated by clenbuterol, there is a direct anabolic effect that causes an increase in muscle mass
–induces lipolysis and inhibits adipogenesis associated w alterations in plasma concentrations of the adipokines leptin and adiponectin in adult horses
–> This increases muscle-directed protein deposition and reduces total body fat, which is generally known as repartitioning

–Clenbuterol causes a switching from a type I, oxidative slow-twitch fibre phenotype to a type II, glycolytic, fast-twitch fibre phenotype, even though b2-adrenergic Rs are expressed to a greater extent on slow-twitch than fast-twitch fibres –> effect lessened when clenbuterol tx combined w exercise

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48
Q

how did long term clenbuterol administration alter body composition

A

significant decreases in body fat w no loss in body weight

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49
Q

pergolide half life

A

6 hours - twice daily dosing could be needed

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50
Q

pergolide receptors

A

synthetic ergot derivate that behaves as a full agonist at dopamine D2 and D3 receptors and has some activity at D1 receptors

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51
Q

One of the first indicators of declining health in cattle is

A

decreased appetite - can be 4 days before visual signs of sickness are apparent

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52
Q

which pro-inflammatory cytokine may reduce the motivation for cattle to eat

A

IL-1beta

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53
Q

eosinophilic response in intestinal mucosa of horses w intestinal ischaemia and reperfusion or w strangulation of the jejunum or colon

A

Eosinophil migration toward and onto the luminal surface was evident in tissues after ischaemia and reperfusion and after naturally occurring strangulating disease of the jejunum and colon, as indicated by a decrease in the number of eosinophils on or near the luminal surface

Ischaemia alone did NOT change eosinophil distribution in the jejunum or colon

Eosinophils responded to mucosal damage evoked by ischaemia and reperfusion by migration toward and onto the luminal surface

Migration may represent an important component of the inflammatory response to injury in equine GI mucosa

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54
Q

Horses with colic and an SAA > ? were more likely to be managed surgically?

A

> 5 ug/mL

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55
Q

Horses w colic that had WHAT Clin path abnormality were more likely to require surgical intervention, develop thrombophlebitis, or be euthanised dt poor prognosis despite tx

A

an abnormally increased SAA conc

56
Q

what is the primary function of haptoglobin

A

bind free Hb to prevent Fe loss

57
Q

for every 1mg/kg increase in NSAID dose (ophtho / ortho patients), the odds of colic increased by

A

98%

58
Q

detection of hemoplasma infection in goats

A

mycoplasma ovis

qPCR assay was more sensitive for detecting haemoplasma infection than was evaluation of a blood film

Se and Sp of blood film evaluation low, seroconversion indicates only exposure

Bacterial concentrations in the blood fluctuate during the course of a hemoplasma infection

59
Q

How does EHV-1 affect platelets

A

When horses infected w EHV-1, thrombi develop within various blood vessels, incl those that supply the spinal cord and placenta

Shown that EHV-1 induces tissue factor expression on equine monocytes ex vivo

Equine plt exposed ex vivo to EHV-1 have a-granule secretion (characterised by P-selectin expression on plt surfaces) and microvesiculation (characterised by release of small membrane-bound particles expressing phosphatidylserine)

60
Q

efficacy of intranasal BHV-1 vaccines

A

IN vaccination against BHV-1 protected all calves against clinical IBR disease, regardless of serologic status at the time of vaccination, and suppressed virus shedding

A single dose of this IN vaccine has the potential to protect seronegative calves for at least 193 d and override mAbs to protect seropositive calves for at least 105 d

61
Q

blue tongue vaccines

A

–26 recognised serotypes worldwide – serotypes 1, 2, 10, 11, 13, 17 in US
–in the 2007 outbreak: only commercially licensed vaccine contained BTV-10
–Serum neutralising anti-BTV Ab titres as low as 1:20 shown to be protective, but anti-BTV Abs are serotype specific w little or no cross protection among serotypes
–California is only state that has licensed (MLV) vaccine containing Ags against BTV-10, BTV-11, and BTV-17

62
Q

current gold standard and reference technique for most labs to measure humoral response to rabies vaccination

A

rapid fluorescent focus inhibition test (RFFIT)

63
Q

Does HBO therapy increase mRNA expression of inflammatory cytokines

A

no

64
Q

tolerance limit for flunixin in veal calves

A

LESS THAN NONE

As flunixin not specifically labelled for use in veal calves, tolerance limits (and slaughter withdrawal intervals) not established; any flunixin residue detected is considered a violation; unofficial tolerance limit becomes less than the lowest conc of drug that can be detected by the analytic method used

– The labelled slaughter withdrawal interval for flunixin in adult cattle is 4 d; Because admin of flunixin to veal calves represents extralabel drug use, any detectable flunixin concentrations in edible tissues are considered a violation
– a slaughter withdrawal interval of several weeks may be necessary to ensure that violative tissue residues of flunixin are not detected in veal calves treated w that drug

65
Q

Fentanyl decreases the MAC of iso in what species?

A

goats, not horses or sheep

66
Q

opioid receptor polymorphism in horses

A

ORPM1 mutation in horses: G57C (histidine replaces glutamine at position 19 in the aa sequence of the gene)

Horses heterozygous for the G57C polymorphism of the m-opioid receptor had increased locomotor response to fentanyl admin, cf the response for horses without this polymorphism

(mammals have 3 G protein opioid receptors – OPRM1, OPRK1, OPRD1 – each encoded by separate gene)

67
Q

Tildipirosin

A

long-acting macrolide; rapidly distributed to resp tract and is slowly eliminated

68
Q

metaphylactic admin of
[tildipirosin OR tulathromycin]
to calves 5 d prior to Hs challenge prevented subsequent culture of the pathogen from bronchial secretions and was more effective in minimising clinical disease and lung lesions

A

tildipirosin

69
Q

Dairy cattle identified as having bovine rest dz complex before __ age had increased risk of departure from the herd before 1st or 2nd calving and lower first lactation milk production estimates

A

BRDC at < 120 days

70
Q

Describe the coagulation state of horses with AF

A

subclinical activated coagulation on the basis of standard coagulation test results

71
Q

bulldog dwarfism

A

BD1 gene mutation
-dexter cattle and one report in mini highland
-aggrecan proteoglycan essential for normal chondroskeletal structural development
-homo = lethal, hetero = short legs

72
Q

bulbous buttercups

A

Ranunculus bulbous
BUTTERCUP TOXICITY

–lactating mares and their foals, had mild to severe wt loss as assessed by BCS
–mares btw. 30-45days gestation aborted
–2YO fillies diarrhoea, incoordination, recumbency and paralysis and were euthanised

–toxic to all livestock, causes abortions in cattle, absorbed from GI and toxic to developing fetus

73
Q

difference noted in dairy cows treated for LDA w 1 of 2 surgical techniques (omentopexy vs pyloro-omentopexy)

A

LDA recurrence rate was higher in omentopexy (14% compared to 0)

74
Q

Rumen indigestion

A

disturbance in rumen motility often associated w a decr in rumen pH that is less drastic than that observed w SARA or some other cause such as the ingestion of mycotoxins in mouldy feed

75
Q

a 10% increase in the milk fat to lactose ratio might indicate what?

A

rumen indigestion in the cow

–abrupt increases noted in the 2 milking before diagnosis

76
Q

rumen pH in SARA

A

rumen pH < 5.6 for a period ranging from 148 to 243 min/d

rumen pH < 5.8 for a period ranging from 284 to 475 min/d

77
Q

SARA occurs when what occurs to the diet?

A

ratio of concentrate to effective fibre in the ration increases

production of VFAs can exceed their rate of absorption by the rumen epith

rumen pH decreases

78
Q

major risk factors for transmissions of bovine tb within and between herds in an outbreak

A

contact with infected cattle and contaminated milk

79
Q

how can you improve antemortem ability to detect TB in infected animals

A

perform caudal fold test and gammaIFN test in parallel

80
Q

survival of mycobacteria Bovis (TB) in environment

A

+ improved by moist cool conditions
+ can live in pellets, on salt and mineral blocks
- reduced by sunlight

81
Q

mycoplasma bovis in bison

A

+ more likely in large herds, herds in alberta
+ animals >3YO or yearlings

CS: chronic pneumonia and polyarthritis in feedlot operations and high morbidity (characterised by lameness, swollen joints, resp tract disease, and lethargy) and mortality in cow-calf operations

*affects adults (Diff from cattle)
*higher mortality rates than in cattle

82
Q

relationship between bovine coronavirus antibody levels in calves and incidence of BRD after entering the feedlot

A

inverse relationship for a GROUP - but no individual correlation

83
Q

A model designed to predict SeM titres >3200 (and strangles vaccination risk) identified what risk factors?

A

-farm > 20 horses
-history of clinical dz
- males

84
Q

midaz in sheep

A

–Midazolam was suitable short-duration sedative for sheep
–IM viable alternative when IV admin not possible
–BZs provide reliable sedation w minimal CV and GI effects
–provides mediation of antinociception at the level of the spinal cord

85
Q

ELDU of ampicillin-sulbactam to cattle by regional perfusion

A

allowed in the US under AMDUCA

86
Q

meloxicam use in cattle pre-transport

A
  • did not affect behavior
  • did not affect stress, leukocyte function, or inflammatory markers
  • not FDA approved in cattle, but allowed extra-label under AMDUCA
87
Q

FDA-approved drugs for tx of pyrexia, inflammatory conditions, or pain in minor food-producing species such as sheep and goats

A

NONE

88
Q

NSAID approved by FDA for use in beef and dairy cattle for control of pyrexia associated w BRD and inflammation associated w endotoxaemia and mastitis

A

FLUNIXIN - ONLY

89
Q

Flunixin is labelled for alleviation of pain in

A

HORSES ONLY

90
Q

3 functions of topical atropine

A

(1) provides analgesia by inhibiting spasms of the ciliary body muscle
(2) causes mydriasis, decreasing the probability of synechia formation (synechia can obstruct aqueous humor outflow, resulting in secondary glaucoma)
(3) may help to stabilise the blood-aqueous barrier, thereby decreasing the leakage of inflammatory cells and protein into the anterior chamber (this infiltrate may also obstruct the normal outflow of aqueous humor and contribute to secondary glaucoma)

91
Q

valacyclovir effects on ehv-1

A

-decreased viral shedding and viraemia
-decreased temp and clinical scored
-decreased SEVERITY of ataxia (but not risk of it)

–> works best when tx initiated before innoculation

92
Q

does presence of asthma affect systemic clearance of inhaled steroids? ex, clearance time of inhaled budesonide?

A

YES - RAO horses had higher plasma concentrations and detectable for longer compared to healthy horses

93
Q

most frequently diagnosed myopathy in N Am and European WB horses

A

PSSM

94
Q

diagnosis of PSSM

A

based on identification of aggregates of amylase-resistant or amylase-sensitive PAS-positive (Periodic acid-Schiff) polysaccharide inclusions in skeletal muscle fibres

95
Q

which type of PSSM has a gene mutation?

A

PSSM1

GYS1

96
Q

PSSM in WBs

A

stiffness and gait abnormalities

CK and AST, muscle glycogen concentrations within reference limits

97
Q

PSSM2 is more common in

A

WBs

only 8% have the GYS1 mutation / type 1

98
Q

PSSM1 is more common in

A

QHs

76% have the GYS1 mutation

99
Q

HERDA

A

Missense mutation in the peptidyl-prolyl isomerase B (PPIB) gene, which encodes cyclophilin B (CYPB)

mutation modifies a region of CYPB that identifies improperly folded proteins in the endoplasmic reticulum, and these interactions are presumed to alter collagen organisation

100
Q

How does HERDA affect heart structure

A

ultimate tensile strength of valves is lower

–echo is not a good way to detect that

101
Q

What might you find on a goat farm with no history of anthelmintic use?

A

Farms w no hx of anthelmintic use had lowest mean FEC

a focus on preventative measures could reduce the need for anthelmintic drugs and, by extension, lessen the opportunity for the development of anthelmintic resistance

102
Q

Variables affecting goat FEC

A

+dietary protein intake
+coccidia scored
+kidding in the last 6 weeks

-companion vs. meat or dairy

103
Q

linear predictors of a positive PCR assay result for A phagocytophilum

A

Total lymphocyte count, plasma total bilirubin conc, plasma Na conc, and geographic latitude

104
Q

glucagon and insulin secretion in IR horses

A

-insulin secretion is not increased

-glucagon production might be down regulated as a compensatory response to hyperinsulinemia

105
Q

Calves administered 2 doses of a killed-virus vaccine containing inactivated BHV1 and BVDV1 and BVDV2 before exposure to BHV1

A

Ab titres against BHV1 and BVDV2, but not BVDV1, increased after challenge as did extracellular and intracellular IFN-g expression, indicating a Th1 memory response

developed cell-mediated and humoral responses to BHV1 and BVDV, which were protective against disease when those calves were subsequently exposed to BHV1

106
Q

IFN-g

A

is a key marker in the development of an acquired immune response because it is produced only by memory (both helper [CD4+] and cytotoxic [CD8+]) and gd T cells

107
Q

cells are commonly considered the primary cells involved in a CMI response because CD4+ Th1 cells produce the IFN-g necessary for activation of macrophages and CD8+ T cells that destroy virus-infected cells

A

CD4+ T

108
Q

CD4+ Th2 cells produce

A

IL-4, the cytokine that induces an Ab response

109
Q

Bovine gd T cells

A

have regulatory T-cell characteristics (ie downregulate the immune response following pathogen clearance), serve as costimulatory cells that release IFN-g or present Ags, and act as a bridge btwn cell-mediated and humoral immune functions

110
Q

Because BHV1 can spread intracellularly, an effective immune response must include

A

the development of CMI as well as anti-BHV1 Abs (ie humoral immunity)

111
Q

LPS delayed apoptosis of equine neutrophils is dependent on

A

TLR-4 signalling

112
Q

tulathromycin distribution after single SC dose in calves

A

greater in PELF than plasma or interstitial fluid

113
Q

Nuflor

A

florfenicol + excipient N-methyl-2-pyrrolidine

label for tx and pv BRD associated Mh, Pm, Hs; tx footrot associated w F necrophorum and B melaninogenicus in cattle

114
Q

Nuflor Gold

A

Florfenicol + excipient 2-pyrrolidine and triacetin;

labelled for tx of BRD associated w Mh, Pm, Hs and M bovis in beef and nonlactating dairy cattle

115
Q

FDA approved antimicrobials for tx/prevention/control of resp dz in sheep

A

1-ceftiofur na
2-tilmicosin
3-PPG
4-oxytet HCL
5-neomycin

116
Q

florfenicol

A

fluorinated derivative of thiamphenicol

Bacteriostatic, broad spec G- and G+

Florfenicol has good penetration of CSF in calves, tear fluid in sheep, and synovial fluid in cattle

117
Q

MK-467

A

-alpha2s have adverse effects in sheep, hypoxemia, decreased HR and CO

-this alpha2 antagonist with poor liphophilicity can attenuate those CV affects without changing sedation scored

118
Q

risk factors for BRD in nursing beef calves

A

+ large size herd ( >150 cows) 7.9X
+oestrus-synchronisation program 4.5X
+ intensive grazing 3.3X

119
Q

histology of airways from actively racing horses

A

Inflammatory cell infiltration in peribronchiolar tissues, smooth muscle hyperplasia, and haemosiderin (prevalence of 86%, 98%, and 80% respectively) were common findings in lungs of these horses, w the caudodorsal regions more severely affected

120
Q

MgSO4 infusion in horses with severe asthma

A

+ improved clinical score
- no change I n lung function
? change in breathing pattern?

121
Q

empirical antimicrobial treatment for calves with septic arthritis

A

should target G+ catalase negative cocci and M bovis and that synovial fluid TNCC might be a useful prognostic indicator

122
Q

septic arthritis in calves: most common joint and isolate

A

carpal > stifle > tarsal

catalase negative strep, m bovis

123
Q

optimal anatomic site and directional aim of a penetrating captive bolt (PCB) for euthanasia of goats

A

perpendicular to the skull over the anatomic site identified at the intersection of 2 lines, each drawn from the lateral canthus of 1 eye to the middle of the base of the opposite ear

124
Q

MMP-9 (gelatinase B)

A
  • found in LPS infused limbs
  • constitutively produced in NPs, stored in their tertiary granules, and released from the granules on NP activation, but expression also inducible in other cell types, incl keratinocytes and endoth cells w increased expression dt stimulation by inflammatory mediators or by hypoxia
  • MMP-2 and -9 can degrade type VII collagen and other components of the BM
  • Direct exposure of lamellar tissue to LPS through extracorporeal perfusion of isolated equine limbs shown to induce pathological changes consistent w those of CHO-induced and naturally acquired laminitis
125
Q

Characteristic feature of SIRS-induced laminitis is

A

damage of the lamellar dermoepidermal junction, which is believed to result from changes in the basal epidermal cells and degradation and dysadhesion of the adjacent basement membrane

126
Q

Difference between quinidine and flecanide

A

quinidine - Ia - na channel blocker and prolongs refractory period

flecanide - Ic - na channel blocker but NO EFFECT ON refractory period

127
Q

Monoclonal peak on serum protein electrophoresis

A

should raise the suspicion of neoplasia, specifically multiple myeloma

128
Q

goat corneas

A

Endothelial cell density (ECD) decreased w age

Mean cell area, pleomorphism, and corneal thickness increased w age

129
Q

here was a significantly higher rate of post op colic following what ophthalmic procedure?

A

penetrating keratoplasty

130
Q

Judicious use of orally administered fluconazole is recommended for horses undergoing GA – WHYY??

A

(prolongs recovery – dt inhibition of the hepatic cytochrome P450 enzyme system?, which is responsible for metabolism of various drugs, incl midazolam and ketamine)

131
Q

congenital photosensitivity and hyperbilirubinemia in Southdown sheep

A

nonsynonymous mutation in Slco1b3

132
Q

Obese horses had significantly higher LPS flux across WHERE?

A

jejunal mucosa ONLY

133
Q

lymphocyte count is ____ in BLV infected bulls

A

greater

134
Q

prognosis for preg tox does

A

-Does w high BUN conc and those w serum bicarb <15 mEq/L were more likely to die than does without these findings
-does w surviving offspring were ore likely to survive

135
Q

cyclic phosphatidic acid (cPA) and diacylglyerol (DAG)

A

detected in surfactant from severely asthmatic horses during exposure to hay

likely biomarkers of sustainedinflammation

136
Q

B-cell chronic lymphocytic leukaemia diagnosed on

A

bases of severe lymphocytosis and positive expression of the B-cell marker CD20 by lymphocytes in the bone marrow and peripheral blood