JVIM 2015-2019 Flashcards

1
Q

How long does fibrinogen take to increase with inflammation?

A

24-72hrs to peak

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2
Q

Which is more sensitive at indicating presence of systemic inflammation in equine GI?

A

SAA

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3
Q

How to diagnose emND

A

Low serum vitamin E
Changes in muscle on histopath (neurogenic atrophy) and neuronal chromatolysis of SC

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4
Q

LDA in beef calves

A

Rare!
Associated w necrotic laryngitis
Do not roll them

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5
Q

What breed is high risk for LDA

A

Hereford

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6
Q

What breed are high risk for RDA and abomasal volvulus

A

Brahman influenced breeds

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7
Q

Differentials for a left sided ping and splash in CALVES

A

LDA, abomasitis, rumen ping, peritonitis

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8
Q

Borrelia burgdorferi

A

Equine lyme dz
Ixodes ticks spread it

Shifting leg lameness, attitude change, neuro dz, skin lesions, uveitis, laminitis

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9
Q

Histopath dx of neuroborreliosis

A

multifocal, asymmetrical pleocellular leptomeningitis and encephalomyelitis with perivasculitis and sclerosing vasculitis, and cranial and peripheral ganglionitis, radiculoneuritis and neuritis.

when identified, argyrophilic spirochetes predominate in the leptomeninges and dura mater with fewer lesions affecting the parenchyma of the brain or spinal cord

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10
Q

the most frequent extraneural manifestation of Borrelia infection is

A

Uveitis!

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11
Q

pheochromocytoma in horses

A

may cause acute death from intraperitoneal exsanguination

should be considered in horses presenting with colic, tachycardia, and hemoperitoneum

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12
Q

Oral sugar test

A

quantifies postprandial hyperinsulinemia and insulin dysregulation in response to PO glucose

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13
Q

Combined glucose insulin test

A

a measure of whole body insulin resistance

determines the individual’s response to IV dextrose and insulin

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14
Q

Hyperinsulinemia ____ ketone body formation and lipolysis

A

Inhibits

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15
Q

In pregnant cows, glucose crosses the uterus and placenta __?

A

insulin-independently

by the primary glucose transporters (GLUT1 and GLUT3)

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16
Q

diagnostic method of choice for insulinoma in cattle

A

IVGTT

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17
Q

apolipoprotein B gene (APOB) mutation

A

-inherited autosomal recessive genetic defect in Holstein calves

-also named cholesterol deficiency

-unspecific clinical symptoms of diarrhea and failure to thrive in young calves

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18
Q

Usefulness of serial thoracic ultrasonography to detect development of CS of R. Equi in foals

A

Good sensitivity 89%

Poor specificity 62%

–> used as SCREENING

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19
Q

Cattle treated for what are 3x more likely to die from right heart failure in feed lots?

A

Bovine respiratory disease

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20
Q

High altitude disease

A

Right-sided congestive heart failure (RHF), also known as high altitude disease or brisket disease

initiated by hypoxia-induced pulmonary arteriolar narrowing

Cattle exposed to the hypobaric hypoxia of high altitude have a greater baseline risk of alveolar hypoxia –> at greater risk of RHF than cattle at lower altitudes.

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21
Q

Ventricular premature depolarizations arise from

A

the ventricular myocardium

–> result in AV dissociation
–>they are not associated with a preceding P wave and the normal sinus P wave often is not conducted, resulting in a compensatory pause.

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22
Q

Atrial dysrhythmias are caused by

A

abnormal impulse formation in the atrial myocardium outside of the sinoatrial node.

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23
Q

In APD’s, the QRS and t-wave morphology is

A

Normal

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24
Q

In APDs, the S and T wave amplitude is a)_______

and the PQ and RR interval is b)______

whereas the R amplitude and QRS duration c)_____

A

Increased

Decreased

Do not change

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25
Q

APD’s are more to likely have what kind of t-wave?

A

A single positive t-wave

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26
Q

APD’s are associated with what kind of p-waves?

A

Singular, not bifid

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27
Q

Prolonged exercise is associated with what cardiac dysfunction?

A

LV diastolic dysfunction

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28
Q

myeloperoxidase

A

-an enzyme
-exacerbates mitochondrial damage initiated by the ischemia-reperfusion phenomenon, and thereby alters mitochondrial function.
-marker of neutrophil activation and degranulation
-is increased after colic sx

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29
Q

Delphinium contains?

A

Alkaloids that act as nicotinic acetylcholine receptor antagonists

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30
Q

Delphinium tx

A

Acetylcholine-esterase inhibitor

TX: Neostigmine, Phyostigmine (Temporary reversal)

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31
Q

Which centaurea species are toxic?

A

Crepens = Russian knapeweed
C. Soloistitalis = yellow star thistle

Only toxic to horses!

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32
Q

Specific lesion of yellow star thistle

A

Nigropalladial encephalomalacia

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33
Q

The mechanism of action of the Conium alkaloids

A

The most serious effect occurs at the neuromuscular junction, where the alkaloids act as nondepolarizing blockers like curare.

The systemic effects generally are less severe and include nicotinic effects, such as salivation, mydriasis, and tachycardia, followed by bradycardia. This probably is a result of their action on autonomic ganglia

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34
Q

Toxic hemlocks

A

Conium maculatum (poison hemlock)

Cicuta spp (water hemlock)

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35
Q

Piperidine alkaloids

A

nACh receptor agonists

Found in hemlock

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36
Q

What causes mousy urine smell?

A

Poison hemlock

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37
Q

Is hemlock fatal when grazed in early spring or eaten in hay?

A

Late season hay- why cattle more likely to get it and die

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38
Q

Zigadenus

A

Death camas

Contains steroidal alkaloids

Most prevalent= zygacine

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39
Q

Which bacteria may be decreased in any treated calves?

A

Butyrate producing firmicutes

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40
Q

Clinical icterus in cattle

A

Serum bili > 51umol/l

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41
Q

BoAstV CH13/NeuroS1

A

Neurotropic bovine astrovirus

Non-suppurative encephalitis

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42
Q

Cut off for insulin dysregulation

A

basal insulin >32 lIU/mL2

or insulin >100 lIU/ mL 45 minutes post-CGIT

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43
Q

What fluid is best for the rapid resuscitation of hyperkalemic diarrheic calves

A

Small-volume hypertonic NaHCO3 infusions

Better than hypertonic NaCl or glucose

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44
Q

Hypertonic (8.4%) sodium bicarbonate solution

A

sound physiologic basis in the initial treatment of neonatal hyperkalemic diarrheic calves

solutions induce rapid plasma volume expansion, correct concomitant acidemia and have a marked and sustained potassium-lowering effect.

treatment advantage of sodium bicarbonate over the use of a hypertonic sodium chloride infusion with an identical sodium load, indicating that alkalinization is an effective potassium-lowering mechanism.

Acidemic neonatal diarrheic calves can release considerable amounts of insulin in response to a hyperglycemic glucose challenge, which resulted in a similar decline in cK than in calves after administration of sodium bicarb

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45
Q

Octreotide

A

Octreotide is a somatostatin analog that suppresses insulin secretion

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46
Q

Cutoff gg/l in colostrum

A

50 gg/l

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47
Q

Which cows produce colostrum with higher immunoglobulin content?

A

Older or higher parity

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48
Q

Does dexamethasone affect lactate?

A

Daily administration of dex has been shown to increase lactate

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49
Q

What is the main Indication for abx use in calves?

A

Bovine resp-dz — pneumonia

Important to get culture and sens if you can

Blind tube BAL BEST METHOD

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50
Q

Pleuropneumonia and survival in horses

A

Increased ck on admit = decreased survival chance

Thoracotomy = increased survival

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51
Q

Which mycoplasma has been found to be part the of respiratory microbiota and also play a role in development of BRD

A

M. Dispar

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52
Q

Immune-mediated myositis

A

predominantly described in Quarter horse and related breeds

characterized by rapid and diffuse symmetrical muscle atrophy predominantly of gluteal and epaxial muscles, lethargy, and stiffness.

The primary laboratory findings include increase in creatine kinase and aspartate aminotransferase activity on a serum biochemistry panel.

The main histological feature of skeletal muscle biopsies is mononuclear cell infiltration of predominantly CD4+ T-lymphocytes and myonecrosis.

Immune-mediated myositis belongs to a group of inflammatory myopathies.

High survival rate unless concurrent fever and illness.

Monitoring of renal variables is important because renal insult resulting in failure is a potential complication.

myositis can have a favorable outcome if clinical signs are recognized early and treatment with corticosteroids is initiated promptly along with supportive care and treatment of any concurrent illness including antimicrobial therapy for those horses with concurrent bacterial infection.

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53
Q

P. tenuis nematodiasis in horses

A

cervical scoliosis and analgesia were attributed to continuous dorsal gray column lesions, whereas general proprioceptive (GP) ataxia and upper motor neuron (UMN) paresis were associated with surrounding white matter involvement.

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54
Q

P-tenuis lesions in camelids

A

Spinal cord white matter

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55
Q

The positive predictive value of a positive test is _____ when the prevalence of disease is low, as is the case for the prevalence of EPM among neurologically normal horses.

A

Decreased!

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56
Q

Borrelia burgdorferi infection usually causes

A

Sub clinical or no disease in horses

30-45% seroprevalence

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57
Q

How can you diagnose neuroborreliosis?

A

Not with Lyme multiplex assay!

Post Mortem histopath

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58
Q

The Lyme multiplex assay

A

is a bead-based multiple antigen immunofluorescent assay that detects antibodies against B. burgdorferi outer surface proteins (Osps) that have variable expression.

-OspA is primarily expressed within the tick
-OspC is expressed during early infection of the mammalian host
-OspF during more chronic infection.

This assay can be performed on serum and CSF

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59
Q

Diseases caused by mycoplasma

A

mastitis, arthritis, pneumonia, otitis media, tenosynovitis, and reproductive disorders

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60
Q

Mycoplasma mastitis

A

-multiple affected quarters coupled with unresponsiveness to treatment.
-Adults and calves can also be affected by arthritis and pneumonia
-otitis media - only observed in calves

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61
Q

Mycoplasma culture

A

-specific enriched culture media needed

-buffer to ph 7.3-7-8

  • colonies look like fried eggs
  • limit for defection is 272 Cfu/ml in milk
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62
Q

Cons of mycoplasma culture from milk

A
  • slow growing
  • easily overgrown other bugs
  • Intermittent shedding means you need repeat samples
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63
Q

When is fecal shedding of listeria highest on small farms?

A

Spring

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64
Q

What values predict negative outcome in down dairy cows?

A
  • HR > 100
    -cTnI >0.7ng/ml
    -lactate not relevant
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65
Q

CDH applied at the onset of sepsis results in what?

A

Decrease in IL-6 and COX-2, and decreased lamellar leukocytes

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66
Q

Bovine hereditary zinc deficiency

A

a keratinization disorder

caused by a mutation in the SLC39A4 gene

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67
Q

Zinc deficiency-like syndrome

A

-moderate to severe crusting dermatitis mainly on the head, ventrum, and joints.
-Respiratory and digestive tract inflammations were frequently observed.

-Zinc supplementation did not lead to remission of CS in 4; slight anemia in 8; hypoalbuminemia in 6 but reduced serum zinc concentrations in only 3. Mucosal erosions/ulcerations were present in 7 calves and thymus atrophy or reduced thymic weights in 8 calves.

-Histologically, skin lesions were indistinguishable from BHZD.

-ZDL syndrome should be suspected in Fleckvieh calves with crusting dermatitis together with diarrhea
- OR - respiratory tract inflammations without response to oral zinc supplementation.

-Definite diagnosis requires molecular genetic confirmation of the PLD4 mutation.

AUTOSOMAL RECESSIVE

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68
Q

Best tx for hypophos

A

Mono- or di- sodium hydrogen phosphate

60 grams orally

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69
Q

multiple acyl-CoA dehydrogenase deficiency (MADD)

A

A definitive diagnosis of MADD is made by identifying a specific pattern of accumulation of acyl carnitines and urine organic acids caused by alberrant fatty acid and amino acid metabolism

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70
Q

ECG’s in hyperkalemic calves

A

Conclusions and Clinical Importance: Hyperkalemia in neonatal diarrheic calves is associated with serious cardiac conduction abnormalities. In addition to increased S and T wave amplitude voltages, alterations of P and Ta wave amplitudes are early signs of hyperkalemia, which is consistent with the known sensitivity of atrial myocytes to increased cK1.

S wave amplitude voltage decreased when cK1 >7.4 mmol/L

QRS duration increased when cK1 >7.8 mmol/L

J point amplitude increased when cK1 >7.9 mmol/L

ST segment angle increased when cK1 >9.1 mmol/L

P wave amplitude was characterized by a second commonbreak point at cK158.2 mmol/L, above which value the amplitude was 0.

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71
Q

Prognosis of cattle with necrotic laryngitis after sx

A

-Overall survival 65%
-Higher mortality if <6 months old

The venous partial pressure of carbon dioxide (pCO2 64.5 mmHg) was most significantly associated with mortality. Sensitivity and specificity of the final model consisting of age and pCO2 were 49.1 and 86.4%, respectively. Instead of pCO2, total carbon dioxide (TCO2) could also be used, with similar diagnostic accuracy.

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72
Q

Lavender foal syndrome

A

a lethal disorder of Egyptian Arabian foals

dilute coat color and profound neurologic dysfunction

autosomal recessive inherited disorder

frameshift mutation in exon 30 of the myosin Va gene (MYO5A) that results in premature termination of transcription

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73
Q

Cerebellar abiotrophy

A

Cerebellar abiotrophy is inherited as an autosomal recessive trait and is associated with a single-nucleotide polymorphism on chromosome 2 (13074277G>A), located in the 4th exon of TOE1 and in proximity to MUTYH on the antisense strand.

-results in loss of Purkinje neurons + secondary loss of the granular cell layer of the cerebellum.
-CS recognized at birth or up to a few months of age and include ataxia, hypermetria, intention tremors, and lack of menace response.

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74
Q

SCID in Arabians

A

a 5-base pair deletion in the gene encoding the catalytic subunit of DNA-dependent protein kinase (DNA-PK) and is inherited as an autosomal recessive trait.

The lack of activity of DNA-PK leads to failure of T and B lymphocytes to cut, rearrange, and anneal genes that encode surface-expressed antigen-specific receptors. Foals with SCID lack mature functional B and T lymphocytes have profound lymphopenia (<1,000/lL) and low immunoglobulin concentrations followed by agammaglobulinemia after maternal antibodies disappear.

The frequency of the SCID gene carrier state was estimated to be 8.5% in the Arabian population

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75
Q

RLN is best currently described as 

A

A distal axonapthy with clear involvement of both RLN’s

Mononeuropathy of the left

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76
Q

Atypical myopathy is caused by

A

acquired multiple acyl-coenzyme A (CoA) dehydrogenase deficiency (MADD) resulting from ingestion of hypoglycin A (HGA).

This substance is present in the seeds and seedlings of Acer pseudoplatanus.

Hypoglycin A is metabolized to toxic methylene cyclopropyl acetyl-CoA (MCPA-CoA) that inhibits lipid, amino acid, and choline metabolism

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77
Q

The common laboratory findings for AM horses are

A

increased serum creatine kinase (CK) and aspartate aminotransferase (AST) activity, increased concentrations of acylcarnitines, glycine conjugates, and some amino acids.

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78
Q

E321G MYH1 mutation

A

Associated with immune mediated myositis in QHs

strong association between the E321G MYH1 mutation and nonER in QH-related breeds. In total, 67% of nonER QH possessed the MYH1 mutation compared to 5% of randomly selected healthy QH.

exercise was NOT a trigger for rhabdomyolysis in horses with the MYH1 mutation

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79
Q

Rate of AF recurrence in horses

A

39% at 1 year after cardioversion

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80
Q

How did sotalol affect TVEC procedure?

A

Significantly less energy was required for electrical cardioversion in the sotalol group

The increased AFCL after sotalol treatment indicates slowing of the atrial activation rate.

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81
Q

Sotalol

A

Class Ill anti-arrhythmic and b-blocker

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82
Q

Commercially available viscoelastic tests

A

dynamic viscoelastic coagulometry (Sonoclot), thromboelastometry (TEM), and thromboelastography (TEG)

These tests are similar and provide a holistic view of the time to clot formation, the strength of the clot formed, clot retraction, and clot lysis, using whole blood samples.

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83
Q

Oxygen saturation of hemoglobin (SaO2)

A

is the ratio of fully oxygenated hemoglobin to the total hemoglobin in the blood capable of binding oxygen, measured via oximetry or calculated from partial pressure of oxygen (pO2).

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84
Q

The 4 principle determinants of venous oxygen saturation values are

A

arterial oxygen saturation
hemoglobin concentration
cardiac output
tissue oxygen consumption

In healthy (or at least clinically stable) animals the SvO2 and ScvO2 are consistently in the range of 70–75% and 65-70%, respectively.

Low values, representing increased oxygen extraction, occur when oxygen delivery is insufficient to meet metabolic demand. Pathological impairment of oxygen delivery can be due to lung disease with impaired oxygenation of blood (resulting in reduced arterial hemoglobin saturation), low hemoglobin concentration (resulting in low arterial oxygen carrying capacity), impaired circulation (due to decreased effective circulating volume and other causes of reduced cardiac output), or any combination of these. Therefore, animals with unexplained low ScvO2 or SvO2 values should be evaluated for the presence of pulmonary disease, anemia and states of reduced cardiac output, including hypovolemia, cardiac disease or arrhythmias. Because ScvO2 orSvO2 may also be reduced by any cause of high tissue oxygen consumption relative to delivery, conditions such as shivering or muscle tremors should be controlled before assuming that low saturations are due solely to pathological imbalance.

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85
Q

Esmolol

A

a short acting b1-blocker that has been studied in both clinical and experimental studies of patients with sepsis

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86
Q

A useful classification system for cows with clinical mastitis utilizes 3 categories

A

(1) abnormal secretion (visible abnormalities in milk)

(2) abnormal secretion and gland (clinical evidence of udder inflammation, including the presence of heat, redness, swelling, pain, and decreased milk production)

(3) abnormal secretion, gland, and cow (clinical evidence of systemic illness, including fever, decreased appetite, and rumen fill). Subclinical mastitis is not detectable during routine physical examination but is identified by detecting the presence of inflammatory biomarkers or mastitis pathogens in glandular secretions when an intramammary infection is present

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87
Q

Traditional contagious mastitis pathogens

A

S. agalactiae and S. aureus,

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88
Q

a contagious mastitis pathogen most commonly associated with subclinical infection of long duration,

A

Corynebacterium Bovis

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89
Q

bladder neoplasia vs. hemorrhagic cystitis syndrome

A

had lower hematocrits, were older, more likely to be female, and more likely to have a mass detected on ultrasonographic examination of the bladder than horses with hemorrhagic cystitis syndrome

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90
Q

Idiopathic hemorrhagic cystitis

A

a newly described cause of hematuria and stranguria in horses, associated with the presence of proliferative, hemorrhagic bladder mucosa on cystoscopy.

Affected horses should be reevaluated in 2–4 weeks, because they have an excellent prognosis.

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91
Q

chronic enzootic hematuria

A

is associated with bracken fern toxicity, which can progress to bladder neoplasia. Infection with bovine papilloma virus-2 may play a role in progression to bladder cancer in affected cattle

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92
Q

recognized risk factor for obstructive urolithiasis

A

Early castrations especially in goats vs sheep

High grain diet

Obesity

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93
Q

the most common clinical signs observed in small ruminants with obstructive urolithiasis

A

anorexia, colic, teeth grinding, increased heart rate, and abnormal to absent micturition. The latter sign is often regarded as most specific of urolithiasis, with attempts at urination often accompanied by colic, straining, and further expressions of pain.

In our study, signs of pain were recorded only in 50% of all animals. In contrast, colic was reported by the referring veterinarians or owners in 58.1% of the cases.

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94
Q

Clinical signs of blocked ruminants- stages

A

Clinical signs can be divided into:
-early stage: discrete unspecific clinical signs
-painful stage: frequent straining, expression of pain and moderately reduced general condition
-advanced stage: markedly reduced general condition
-eventually recumbency

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95
Q

Variables associates with non-survival of obstructive urolithiasis

A

very poor clinical condition upon presentation, obesity, castration, and evidence of uroperitoneum.
abnormal PCV, severely increased serum creatinine concentrations, and increased CK were associated with increased risk of nonsurvival.

Presence of signs of colic or macroscopic appearance of urine was not significantly associated with outcome.

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96
Q

Oak toxicity in cattle

A

Acute kidney injury (AKI) secondary to ingestion of oak leaves, buds, and acorns (Quercus spp.) has been described in cattle worldwide.

Hydrolyzable tannins are metabolized by rumen microbes to form pyrogallol, which is hepato-and nephrotoxic.

With the development of AKI, the mortality rate can be as high as 83%.

Conventional management of AKI includes fluid therapy to correct dehydration and restore renal perfusion, correction of electrolyte and acid–base abnormalities, and supportive care to address the poor rumen motility and gastroenteritis associated with uremia.

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97
Q

When is hemodialysis indicated for acute kidney injury?

A

in the face of anuria, failure of conventional therapy to induce diuresis and control uremia, fluid overload, severe electrolyte derangements, severe azotemia, or complications of severe uremia

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98
Q

Plasma citrulline(CIT) concentration in calves with diarrhea

A

This study described plasma CIT, ARG, NO, and whole blood ammonia concentrations in diarrheic neonatal calves along with healthy controls. The results indicated that neonatal calves with acute diarrhea have lower plasma CIT and ARG and higher plasma NO and blood ammonia concentrations than healthy calves, and that SIRS status, severity of diarrhea, and degree of dehydration significantly affect levels of plasma CIT and its related metabolites.

Plasmacitrulline (CIT) concentration is considered to be a reliable marker of functional enterocyte mass, primarily in humans.

99
Q

Risk factors for glandular ulcers

A

A 10.4-fold increased risk of EGGD was associated with exercising ≥5 days per week in the present study, although no effect of exercise intensity or duration was observed.

Exercising Warmblood show jumpers ≥6 days per week increases the risk of disease by 4.6-fold

restricting exercise to ≤4-5 days per week could reduce the risk of EGGD.

100
Q

In calves with diarrhea, concentration of circulating LPS in plasma was higher in ?

A

-beef (> dairy)

This study highlights a potential role of LPS in the pathogenesis of metabolic derangements such as hyperlactatemia, hypoglycemia, and increased concentration of unmeasured strong anions in diarrheic calves.

101
Q

Atypical actinobacillosis

A

-Typical usually causes woody tongue (a. Lignierresii)

-Atypical can appear as a small outbreak in cattle with cutaneous and respiratory signs

102
Q

Which oral potassium is best to treat dairy cows with hypo-k?

group B—potassium chloride bolus (release over 12 hours)
groupG—potassium propionate gel (release over 2hours)
group S—potassium chloride solution (immediately available)

A

Potassium concentrations were repeatedly measured in plasma, erythrocytes, muscle, and urine using ICP-OES.

All the studied potassium formulations are equally effective to treat hypokalemia in dairy cows for over 12 hours but do not influence intracellular concentration or renal excretion of potassium.

**The plasma potassium concentration should be reevaluated after 12 hours

103
Q

TRH stim test

A

-administer 1mg
-draw blood at 30 minutes
-Results of the TRH stimulation test considered positive if the baseline plasma ACTH concentration is >35 pg/mL or post-stimulation plasma ACTH concentration is >65 pg/mL as described in the Equine Endocrinology Group recommendations

104
Q

Lactate in ponies

A

-Higher in sick ponies
-Lower in healthy ponies compared to horses (lil guys)
-Lower in ponies with higher BCS (fatties)

105
Q

HMGA2 gene

A

allele for a known height gene, HMGA2, as contributing to both height and several EMS traits in a cohort of Welsh ponies.

106
Q

Blood biomarkers that may be diagnostic aids in horses with clinical signs of lower airway disease and neutrophilic pulmonary inflammation

A

surfactant protein D ( SPD)
haptoglobin
secretoglobin (SCGB)

Serum concentration of SP-D>43ng/mL, serum concentration of haptoglobin >5730ng/mL, and serum concentration of SCGB<19ng/mL allowed differentiation of horses with neutrophilic asthma from horses of the control groups

107
Q

Which protocol best reduced EIPH bleeding and may replace race-day lasix?

A

Administering 0.5mg/kg furosemide 24hours pre-racing combined with controlling water intake

108
Q

Fungi and IAD

A

A positive fungal culture was obtained in 55% (402/731) of horses.

Horses with fungal elements observed on the TW cytology had 2 times greater chance of having IAD than horses with out fungi.

Risks of being diagnosed with IAD and likelihood of fungi in TW were higher when horses were bedded on straw or fed dry hay.

109
Q

Insect bite hypersensitivity and equine asthma

A

Susceptibility of IBH-affected horses to develop EA is likely NOT associated with IgE-mediated immune reactions but with other immunopathological mechanisms.

110
Q

Sarcolipin

A

Transmembrane regulator of the sarcoplasmic reticulum calcium transporting ATPase (SERCA).

Highest expressed serca regulator in the horse - decreases calcium affinity

111
Q

E321G MYH1

A

an E321G mutation in a highly conserved region of the myosin heavychain 1 (MYH1) gene was associated with susceptibility to IMM and non exertional rhabdomyolysis.

Knowing that reining and working cow QHs have the highest prevalence of the E321G MYH1 variant and that the variant is more prevalent than the alleles for hereditary equine regional dermal asthenia and hyperkalemic periodic paralysis in the general QH population will guide the use of genetics testing for diagnostic and breeding purposes.

112
Q

Heart rate variability and arrhythmias

A

Healthy horses have little instantaneous R-R variation during exercise.

If a cardiac cycle shortens more than 6% from the previous cycle during the recovery phase, this R-R interval is likely to represent an arrhythmic event.

113
Q

calves with subclinical bovine respiratory disease (BRD)

A

Neutrophil count ≥4 cells on bronchoalveolar fluid analysis are consistent with subclinical BRD

114
Q

Which cell type is higher in proportion on cytology of broncoalveolar lavage fluid in healthy adult alpacas compared to health adult horses?

A

neutrophils

115
Q

What is associated with higher rates of bovine respiratory disease complex ?

A

supplementing feed with antimicrobials

116
Q

Which molecule is bound by leukotoxin in the pathogenesis of M. hemolytica?

A

CD18

117
Q

Which toxin is the most important in the pathogenesis of Clostridium perfringens Type C?

A

beta toxin

118
Q

How does colostrum ingestion affect risk of c. perf?

A

Ingestion of colostrum in neonates increases risk to effects of the (beta) toxin.

119
Q

Which toxin is the most important produced by Clostridium perfringens Type D?

A

Epsilon toxin

Causes focal symmetrical encephalomalacia.

120
Q

BVDV in alpacas

A

Large herds have a greater proportion of seropositive animals compared to smaller herds.

121
Q

the most likely effective method in preventing environmental mastitis?

A

Vaccination using a core antigen bacterin

122
Q

lepto testing in cattle

A

Second voiding urine samples following administration of furosemide are recommended for testing.

123
Q

Bovine papilloma virus-2.

A

associated with hemorrhagic cystitis and neoplasms associated with chronic bracken fern (Pteridium aquilinum) in cattle

124
Q

Which Leptospira interrogans serovar is host adapted to cattle?

A

hardjo

125
Q

Which fetal neuronal cells are affected by in-utero bovine viral diarrhea infection?

A

purkinje

126
Q

What bacteria is commonly isolated from blood in cows with acute puerperal metritis?

A

bacillus

127
Q

Which insulin has the most extending duration of action in healthy alpacas?

A

Neutral protamine Hagedorn.
NPH or isophane
90 minute onset / 24h duration in humans

128
Q

What combination of fluids would be most effective in managing dairy calves with non-infectious osmotic diarrhea?

A

7.2% sodium chloride intravenously and isotonic (300 Osmo/L) oral electrolytes

129
Q

What clinic-pathological findings is consistent with anaplasmosis in cattle?

A

bilirubinemia

130
Q

simplified strong ion difference (SID)

A

(Na+ + K+) - Cl-

131
Q

What will negatively affect absorption of colostral components in a newborn calf?

A

Respiratory acidosis at the time of feeding colostrum.

132
Q

What enzyme is inhibited by sulfonamide antibiotics

A

Dihydropteroate synthetase

133
Q

What electrolyte imbalance is the MOST common cause of acidiuria?

A

hypokalemia

134
Q

What vitamin’s absorption is affected following destruction of parietal cells?

A

Vit B12

135
Q

Why can South American camelids survive at higher altitudes?

A

increased hemoglobin concentration

136
Q

what mineral causes secondary copper deficiency

A

molybdenum

137
Q

most appropriate diagnostic to confirm presence of lymphoma

A

pericardiocentesis

138
Q

An alpaca is presented for suspected Mycoplasma hemollama infection. Which test is the most sensitive in detecting the infection?

A

PCR

139
Q

What antibiotic’s elimination will be reduced in a lactating cow with hepatic lipidosis?

A

oxytet

140
Q

For intravenous treatment of acidemia in calves with naturally acquired diarrhea, solutions with a high strong ion difference are ???

A

more effective at alkalinizing!

141
Q

what acid-base disturbance is commonly associated with atrial fibrillation in cattle?

A

metabolic alkalosis

142
Q

Dz of which body system is most commonly associated with atrial fibrillation in cattle?

A

GI

143
Q

Which fluids are most effective in managing dairy calves with non-infectious osmotic diarrhea?

A

7.2 % sodium chloride intravenously and isotonic (300 Osmo/L) oral electrolyte.

144
Q

What medication should you give tachycardic cattle in AF before quinidine conversion?

A

digoxin

145
Q

15-F2t-Isoprostanes

A

accurate biomarker of mammary gland oxidative status in dairy cows with coliform mastitis

146
Q

What cattle disease condition is associated with elevated cardiac troponin-I compared to healthy cows

A

metritis

147
Q

What metabolites are early indicators of inflammatory response to endotoxin in alpacas?

A

Neutrophil/lymphocyte ratio and iron concentrations.

148
Q

What is decreased in the peritoneal fluid of cattle with left or right displaced abomasum?

A

nitric oxide

149
Q

What is the most useful diagnostic test when quantifying cardiac remodeling in calves with clinical signs consistent with congenital heart disease?

A

Cardiac troponin-I

150
Q

What clinical and or clinico-pathological signs are consistent with adult sheep infected with Anaplasma phagocytophilum?

A

none - it causes subclinical disease

151
Q

What test has a high sensitivity in detecting Mycoplasma ovis in goats?

A

real time-PCR

152
Q

Best way to detect Candidatus Mycoplasma haemolamae in alpacas

A

PCR has a higher sensitivity for detection of infection compared to blood smear

153
Q

floppy kid syndrome

A

metabolic acidosis is associated with increase D-lactic acid concentrations

154
Q

frothy bloat

A

Stimulation of the high-tension receptors exacerbates the accumulation of gas

155
Q

What management changes will most likely reduce the incidence of diarrhea in a herd of 60 7-day old dairy calves with an outbreak of crypto?

A

Increase protein and volume of milk replacer

156
Q

What electrolyte and acid-base abnormalities are associated with a displaced abomasum?

A

Hypochloremia, hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis

157
Q

Which blood metabolite is the most appropriate for monitoring a group of cows for risk of ketosis and hepatic lipidosis during the dry cow period?

A

NEFA

158
Q

What ECG findings is consistent with hypokalemia in a cow?

A

flattened t wave

159
Q

What negatively impacts Mg absorption?

A

K

160
Q

What medication decreases whole body insulin sensitivity in periparturient dairy cows?

A

dexamethasone

161
Q

What test will most likely confirm nutritional myodegeneration in a calf with hind limb stiffness?

A

Glutathione peroxidase activity.

162
Q

Use of DCAD is mostly likely to be effective on DRY COW diets with what?

A

high quantities of alfalfa hay

163
Q

What is the MOST important risk factor for transmission of Mycobacterium avium ssp paratubertuberculosis in calves?

A

contact with adult feces

164
Q

What is the most appropriate management of a suspect abscess due to Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis (enlarged left pre-scapular lymph node on a 1-year-old Boer buck) to prevent contamination of the environment?

A

Intralesional administration of tulathromycin

165
Q

What is a significant risk factor for post-parturient hypophosphatemia in dairy cattle?

A

twinning

166
Q

Which form of insulin rapidly decreases glucose concentrations when administered intravenously or subcutaneously in health alpacas?

A

regular

167
Q

What dry cow supplementation combination will most likely reduce post-parturient insulin resistance and improve tolerance in dairy cattle?

A

Alpha-tocopheryl acetate and sodium selenite.

168
Q

pathogenesis of Mycobacterium avium ssp paratubertuberculosis (MAP) in cattle?

A

M cells deliver the MAP organisms to macrophages in the intestinal submucosa

169
Q

effect of somatotropin (growth hormone) in tissues in cattle

A

increase insulin production

170
Q

Elevation of what proteins indicate presence of hepatic lipidosis in post-parturient cows with displaced abomasum?

A

SAA and haptoglobin

171
Q

DCAD diets

A

Compensated acidification of the diet is effective at enhancing PTH binding to its receptor

172
Q

reservoir of epizootic hemorrhagic disease

A

DEER

173
Q

most appropriate test for diagnosing ketosis in post-parturient dairy cows

A

BHB

174
Q

Which test is the MOST sensitive in diagnosing Cryptosporidium in calves?

A

Acid fast staining of feces followed by microscopy

175
Q

most appropriate treatment for soybean intoxication in cattle

A

oral acetic acid

176
Q

rate limiting metabolic substrate for energy metabolism in a cow experiencing negative energy balance

A

OXALOACETATE

177
Q

lack of Apolipoprotein A negatively affects what

A

transport of lipids as VLDL from the liver in dairy cows with hepatic lipidosis

178
Q

biological vector that transmits epizootic hemorrhagic disease in cattle

A

culicoides

179
Q

What pathogens are associated with a higher occurrence of hemorrhagic bowel syndrome in cattle

A

Aspergillus fumigatus and Clostridium perfringens type A

180
Q

serial test results of cows with delayed exposure to Mycobacterium avium paratuberculosis compared to those exposed early in life demonstrate

A

Lower incidence of positive tests results on ELISA, fecal culture, and incidence of clinical disease

181
Q

cherry colored blood

A

cyanide poisoning

182
Q

What factors = increased risk for infection with Cryptosporidium parvum in dairy calves

A

large herd size
bedded on hay

183
Q

The decrease in ____ cells is the mechanism for decreased glucagon-like peptide-1 production in adult alpacas compared to pre-weaned crias?

A

L

184
Q

flunixin elimination in cows

A

Elimination is slower in mastitic cows compared to healthy cows.

185
Q

oral administration of electrolytes solutions in calves with diarrhea

A

Solutions with high bicarbonate (>70mmol/L) results in large and sustained increase in abomasal pH.

186
Q

Elevation of these parameters in CSF suggest spinal cord damage compared to those without spinal cord lesions in down dairy cattle

A

TNCC and TP

187
Q

Intervention associated with survival rate in new world camelids less than 30 days of age?

A

abx treatment with TMS (trimethoprim sulfmethoxAZOLE)

188
Q

contraindicated in camelids with cerebrospinal nematodiasis

A

corticosteroids

189
Q

most common cause of seizures in sheep and goats

A

polioencephalomalacia

190
Q

What test is appropriate for testing for Mycobacterium avium paratuberculosis in hospitalized camelids?

A

PCR

191
Q

What metabolite is LOW in dairy cows with ketosis?

A

leptin

192
Q

Delphiniums

A

-second in importance only to locoweed as a source of economic loss due to plant toxicities in range animals of the United States
-toxic principle = Diterpenoid alkaloid
-mechanism = neuromuscular blockade via binding to nicotinic receptors
-CS = staggering, exciteability, basewide stance, bloat, death.

193
Q

Chronic cyanide ingestion in Sorghum grass by pregnant horses and cattle can result in

A

the birth of foals and calves with arthrogryposis

194
Q

Treatment of nitrate toxicity includes:

A

removal from offending pasture, administration of cold water, vinegar and mineral oil via nasogastric tube and intravenous methylene blue.

195
Q

sesquiterpene lactone

A

yellow star thistle / chewing disease

196
Q

White snakeroot (Eupatorium rugosum), Burrow weed (Isocoma pluriflora), and Coffee senna (Senna occidentalis) all cause what?

A

cardiac and skeletal muscle pathology in large animals

197
Q

The major liver fluke infecting ruminants in the USA is Fasciola hepatica. What degree of fluke burden is proposed to result in
i) economic losses in infected herds, and
ii) clinical disease in individual cattle?

A

> 40 flukes/animal;

> 200 flukes/animal.

198
Q

Clostridium novyi type B.

A

black disease

199
Q

prevention of Bacillary Haemoglobinuria in a cattle herd

A

control liver flukes

200
Q

What is the mechanism by which addition of ammonium chloride to the feed prevents urolithiasis in goats?

A

decreases urine pH

201
Q

What is the bacteria most frequently cultured from liver abscesses in cattle and what is its main virulence factor?

A

Fusobacterium necrophorum; leukotoxin.

202
Q

What medication can induce hypokalaemia in ketotic cattle?

A

isofluprednone acetate

203
Q

what is recommended for treatment of macrolide-resistant Rhodococcus equi pneumonia in foals?

A

doxycycline and rifampin

204
Q

produces benign, locally invasive tumours of the nasal turbinates in sheep that eventually lead to facial distortion, dyspnoea and death

A

Ovine Adenocarcinoma Virus

205
Q

Infection of pregnant cattle with Bovine Virus Diarrhoea Virus at which stage of gestation results in production of persistently infected calves?

A

50-100

206
Q

diagnosing lungworm (Dictycaulus viviparus) infection in cattle

A

larvae on Baerrman flotation of faeces.

207
Q

Severe Combined Immunodeficiency

A

Autosomal recessive; frameshift mutation in the gene encoding the catalytic subunit of DNA-dependent protein kinase (DNA-PKcs).

208
Q

Bovine Lymphoma is often associated with infection with Bovine Leukaemia Virus (BLV), however sporadic forms also occur.

In which organ is lymphoma typically associated with BLV?

A

abomasum

209
Q

When advising a farmer on colostrum management, what volume of colostrum should you tell him to give his calves within the first few hours of life and what immunoglobulin should the colostrum be richest in?

A

4L; IgG1.

210
Q

What cytokine is associated with pyrexia and the acute phase response?

A

IL-6

211
Q

what does LPS bind to

A

TLR-4

212
Q

RAO- affected horses have a higher odds ratio of also suffering from what?

A

Insect bite hypersensitivity

213
Q

Suggested management changes for horses with chronic lower airway disease

A

Feed a poly unsaturated FA supplement containing 1.5-3g DHA for 2 months

Low dust diet

214
Q

What blood parameter is helpful for prognosis in cows with RDA?

A

Post-operative L-lactate

Not short term change in lactate!

215
Q

Flecanide

A

Flecainide had clear antiarrhythmic properties in terminating acute pacing- induced AF, but showed no protective properties against immediate reinduction of AF.

Flecainide caused temporary pro- longation in the ventricular repolarization, which may be a proarrhythmic effect.

216
Q

Does phosphorous depletion cause hemolysis (intravascalar) in dairy cows?

A

Unlikely

217
Q

Is plasma[Pi] a reliable index for intracellular phosphorous concentration of erythrocytes?

A

No

218
Q

What factors increased odds of survival in horses hospitalized with botulism?

A

Higher temp at admission
Dysphagia
Treatment with antitoxin

219
Q

What factors decreased odds of survival in horses hospitalized with botulism?

A

Abnormal respiratory effort
Inability to stand

220
Q

What increased survival % for horses hospitalized for botulism?

A

Overall survival was 48%

67% for horses that arrived standing

95% for horses that remained able to stand throughout hospitalization

Complications occurred in 62% of horses but were not associated with nonsurvival

221
Q

Adverse reactions to gamithromycin

A

Colic
Hind limb lameness

222
Q

optimal cTnI cut-off for detection of primary myocardial damage

A

0.095 ng/mL

sensitivity: 90.5%, specificity: 100%)

223
Q

optimal cTnT cut-off for detection of primary myocardial damage

A

10.5 pg/mL
sens is low, only 42.9%

6.6 pg/mL
sens is 81%

224
Q

The presence of mycoplasma bovis in dairy calves with BRD was associated with 

A

Higher odds of clinical signs,lung consolidation, and lower ADG

225
Q

nasopharyngeal carriage of what pathogen was detrimental to health and growth of dairy calves in small herds with a high incidence of BRD?

A

mycoplasma bovis

226
Q

Acer rubrum mechanism

A

Gallic acid is metabolized to pyrogallol in the ileum

Oxidative damage leads to formation of eccentrocytes, methemoglobin, and hemoglobinuria

227
Q

with intravascular hemolysis, an expected necropsy finding may be

A

High liver iron concentration

228
Q

Oxidizing toxins

A

Nitrate, nitrite, lead
Wilted red maple, sugar maple, silver maple leaves, onions

229
Q

Quality of drugs good for treatment of abscesses

A

Lipophilic

230
Q

Are macrolides good for treating corynebacterium

A

lipophilic- so yes
but they may cause colitis so no

231
Q

Are cephalosporins good for treating corynebacterium

A

No-plasma concentrations of 2 lg/mL would be unachievable for >50% of the dosing interval in adult horses using the labeled and commonly used dosage

232
Q

Good treatment choices for corynebacterium abscesses

A

tetracyclines, fluoroquinolones, potentiated sulfonamides

need MIC testing

233
Q

In liver disease, serum bile acids were correlated with

A

SBA were significantly and positively correlated with

overall, parenchymal, and portal inflammation,

and portal and bridging fibrosis.

234
Q

survival in horses with hepatic disease

A

Of 81 cases 90% survived short-term and 83% long-term.

235
Q

factors associated with survival in horses with hepatic disease

A

SBA concentrations are associated with inflammation and fibrosis suggesting interference with hepatic function.

A
histopathological score >2 and, less so, SBA >20 umol/L are specific but not sensitive indicators of nonsurvival.

236
Q

relationship between equine hepatic disease and serum bile acid

A

SBA was higher in short and long term non survivors but not necessarily accosicated with non survival

237
Q

in the dunkel 2015 paper on heaptic disease, what parameter offered the best specificity for long term survival?

A

histopathologival score

> 2 = poor survival prognosis

238
Q

horses are most commonly affected by type __ botulism

A

B

239
Q

horses with botulism that lose the ability to stand

A

have a poor chance of survival

240
Q

horses with botulism have increased chance of survival if

A

higher rectal temp at admission
dysphagia
**treated with antitoxin (strongedt association)

241
Q

botulism survival rate

A

Overall survival was 48%

but was significantly higher (67%, P = .011)
for horses that arrived standing

and even higher (95%, P < .001) for horses that remained able to stand throughout hospitalization

Complications occurred in 62% of horses but were not associated with nonsurvival

242
Q

survival rate for hospitalized foals with botulism

A

96%

88% if ventilated

243
Q

variable most strongly associated with nonsurvival in adult botulism

A

development of sustained recumbency