JVIM 2015-2019 Flashcards
1
Q
How long does fibrinogen take to increase with inflammation?
A
24-72hrs to peak
2
Q
Which is more sensitive at indicating presence of systemic inflammation in equine GI?
A
SAA
3
Q
How to diagnose emND
A
Low serum vitamin E
Changes in muscle on histopath (neurogenic atrophy) and neuronal chromatolysis of SC
4
Q
LDA in beef calves
A
Rare!
Associated w necrotic laryngitis
Do not roll them
5
Q
What breed is high risk for LDA
A
Hereford
6
Q
What breed are high risk for RDA and abomasal volvulus
A
Brahman influenced breeds
7
Q
Differentials for a left sided ping and splash in CALVES
A
LDA, abomasitis, rumen ping, peritonitis
8
Q
Borrelia burgdorferi
A
Equine lyme dz
Ixodes ticks spread it
Shifting leg lameness, attitude change, neuro dz, skin lesions, uveitis, laminitis
9
Q
Histopath dx of neuroborreliosis
A
multifocal, asymmetrical pleocellular leptomeningitis and encephalomyelitis with perivasculitis and sclerosing vasculitis, and cranial and peripheral ganglionitis, radiculoneuritis and neuritis.
when identified, argyrophilic spirochetes predominate in the leptomeninges and dura mater with fewer lesions affecting the parenchyma of the brain or spinal cord
10
Q
the most frequent extraneural manifestation of Borrelia infection is
A
Uveitis!
11
Q
pheochromocytoma in horses
A
may cause acute death from intraperitoneal exsanguination
should be considered in horses presenting with colic, tachycardia, and hemoperitoneum
12
Q
Oral sugar test
A
quantifies postprandial hyperinsulinemia and insulin dysregulation in response to PO glucose
13
Q
Combined glucose insulin test
A
a measure of whole body insulin resistance
determines the individual’s response to IV dextrose and insulin
14
Q
Hyperinsulinemia ____ ketone body formation and lipolysis
A
Inhibits
15
Q
In pregnant cows, glucose crosses the uterus and placenta __?
A
insulin-independently
by the primary glucose transporters (GLUT1 and GLUT3)
16
Q
diagnostic method of choice for insulinoma in cattle
A
IVGTT
17
Q
apolipoprotein B gene (APOB) mutation
A
-inherited autosomal recessive genetic defect in Holstein calves
-also named cholesterol deficiency
-unspecific clinical symptoms of diarrhea and failure to thrive in young calves
18
Q
Usefulness of serial thoracic ultrasonography to detect development of CS of R. Equi in foals
A
Good sensitivity 89%
Poor specificity 62%
–> used as SCREENING
19
Q
Cattle treated for what are 3x more likely to die from right heart failure in feed lots?
A
Bovine respiratory disease
20
Q
High altitude disease
A
Right-sided congestive heart failure (RHF), also known as high altitude disease or brisket disease
initiated by hypoxia-induced pulmonary arteriolar narrowing
Cattle exposed to the hypobaric hypoxia of high altitude have a greater baseline risk of alveolar hypoxia –> at greater risk of RHF than cattle at lower altitudes.
21
Q
Ventricular premature depolarizations arise from
A
the ventricular myocardium
–> result in AV dissociation
–>they are not associated with a preceding P wave and the normal sinus P wave often is not conducted, resulting in a compensatory pause.
22
Q
Atrial dysrhythmias are caused by
A
abnormal impulse formation in the atrial myocardium outside of the sinoatrial node.
23
Q
In APD’s, the QRS and t-wave morphology is
A
Normal
24
Q
In APDs, the S and T wave amplitude is a)_______
and the PQ and RR interval is b)______
whereas the R amplitude and QRS duration c)_____
A
Increased
Decreased
Do not change
25
APD's are more to likely have what kind of t-wave?
A single positive t-wave
26
APD’s are associated with what kind of p-waves?
Singular, not bifid
27
Prolonged exercise is associated with what cardiac dysfunction?
LV diastolic dysfunction
28
myeloperoxidase
-an enzyme
-exacerbates mitochondrial damage initiated by the ischemia-reperfusion phenomenon, and thereby alters mitochondrial function.
-marker of neutrophil activation and degranulation
-is increased after colic sx
29
Delphinium contains?
Alkaloids that act as nicotinic acetylcholine receptor antagonists
30
Delphinium tx
Acetylcholine-esterase inhibitor
TX: Neostigmine, Phyostigmine (Temporary reversal)
31
Which centaurea species are toxic?
Crepens = Russian knapeweed
C. Soloistitalis = yellow star thistle
Only toxic to horses!
32
Specific lesion of yellow star thistle
Nigropalladial encephalomalacia
33
The mechanism of action of the Conium alkaloids
The most serious effect occurs at the neuromuscular junction, where the alkaloids act as nondepolarizing blockers like curare.
The systemic effects generally are less severe and include nicotinic effects, such as salivation, mydriasis, and tachycardia, followed by bradycardia. This probably is a result of their action on autonomic ganglia
34
Toxic hemlocks
Conium maculatum (poison hemlock)
Cicuta spp (water hemlock)
35
Piperidine alkaloids
nACh receptor agonists
Found in hemlock
36
What causes mousy urine smell?
Poison hemlock
37
Is hemlock fatal when grazed in early spring or eaten in hay?
Late season hay- why cattle more likely to get it and die
38
Zigadenus
Death camas
Contains steroidal alkaloids
Most prevalent= zygacine
39
Which bacteria may be decreased in any treated calves?
Butyrate producing firmicutes
40
Clinical icterus in cattle
Serum bili > 51umol/l
41
BoAstV CH13/NeuroS1
Neurotropic bovine astrovirus
Non-suppurative encephalitis
42
Cut off for insulin dysregulation
basal insulin >32 lIU/mL2
or insulin >100 lIU/ mL 45 minutes post-CGIT
43
What fluid is best for the rapid resuscitation of hyperkalemic diarrheic calves
Small-volume hypertonic NaHCO3 infusions
Better than hypertonic NaCl or glucose
44
Hypertonic (8.4%) sodium bicarbonate solution
sound physiologic basis in the initial treatment of neonatal hyperkalemic diarrheic calves
solutions induce rapid plasma volume expansion, correct concomitant acidemia and have a marked and sustained potassium-lowering effect.
treatment advantage of sodium bicarbonate over the use of a hypertonic sodium chloride infusion with an identical sodium load, indicating that alkalinization is an effective potassium-lowering mechanism.
Acidemic neonatal diarrheic calves can release considerable amounts of insulin in response to a hyperglycemic glucose challenge, which resulted in a similar decline in cK than in calves after administration of sodium bicarb
45
Octreotide
Octreotide is a somatostatin analog that suppresses insulin secretion
46
Cutoff gg/l in colostrum
50 gg/l
47
Which cows produce colostrum with higher immunoglobulin content?
Older or higher parity
48
Does dexamethasone affect lactate?
Daily administration of dex has been shown to increase lactate
49
What is the main Indication for abx use in calves?
Bovine resp-dz — pneumonia
Important to get culture and sens if you can
Blind tube BAL BEST METHOD
50
Pleuropneumonia and survival in horses
Increased ck on admit = decreased survival chance
Thoracotomy = increased survival
51
Which mycoplasma has been found to be part the of respiratory microbiota and also play a role in development of BRD
M. Dispar
52
Immune-mediated myositis
predominantly described in Quarter horse and related breeds
characterized by rapid and diffuse symmetrical muscle atrophy predominantly of gluteal and epaxial muscles, lethargy, and stiffness.
The primary laboratory findings include increase in creatine kinase and aspartate aminotransferase activity on a serum biochemistry panel.
The main histological feature of skeletal muscle biopsies is mononuclear cell infiltration of predominantly CD4+ T-lymphocytes and myonecrosis.
Immune-mediated myositis belongs to a group of inflammatory myopathies.
High survival rate unless concurrent fever and illness.
Monitoring of renal variables is important because renal insult resulting in failure is a potential complication.
myositis can have a favorable outcome if clinical signs are recognized early and treatment with corticosteroids is initiated promptly along with supportive care and treatment of any concurrent illness including antimicrobial therapy for those horses with concurrent bacterial infection.
53
P. tenuis nematodiasis in horses
cervical scoliosis and analgesia were attributed to continuous dorsal gray column lesions, whereas general proprioceptive (GP) ataxia and upper motor neuron (UMN) paresis were associated with surrounding white matter involvement.
54
P-tenuis lesions in camelids
Spinal cord white matter
55
The positive predictive value of a positive test is _____ when the prevalence of disease is low, as is the case for the prevalence of EPM among neurologically normal horses.
Decreased!
56
Borrelia burgdorferi infection usually causes
Sub clinical or no disease in horses
30-45% seroprevalence
57
How can you diagnose neuroborreliosis?
Not with Lyme multiplex assay!
Post Mortem histopath
58
The Lyme multiplex assay
is a bead-based multiple antigen immunofluorescent assay that detects antibodies against B. burgdorferi outer surface proteins (Osps) that have variable expression.
-OspA is primarily expressed within the tick
-OspC is expressed during early infection of the mammalian host
-OspF during more chronic infection.
This assay can be performed on serum and CSF
59
Diseases caused by mycoplasma
mastitis, arthritis, pneumonia, otitis media, tenosynovitis, and reproductive disorders
60
Mycoplasma mastitis
-multiple affected quarters coupled with unresponsiveness to treatment.
-Adults and calves can also be affected by arthritis and pneumonia
-otitis media - only observed in calves
61
Mycoplasma culture
-specific enriched culture media needed
-buffer to ph 7.3-7-8
- colonies look like fried eggs
- limit for defection is 272 Cfu/ml in milk
62
Cons of mycoplasma culture from milk
- slow growing
- easily overgrown other bugs
- Intermittent shedding means you need repeat samples
63
When is fecal shedding of listeria highest on small farms?
Spring
64
What values predict negative outcome in down dairy cows?
- HR > 100
-cTnI >0.7ng/ml
-lactate not relevant
65
CDH applied at the onset of sepsis results in what?
Decrease in IL-6 and COX-2, and decreased lamellar leukocytes
66
Bovine hereditary zinc deficiency
a keratinization disorder
caused by a mutation in the SLC39A4 gene
67
Zinc deficiency-like syndrome
-moderate to severe crusting dermatitis mainly on the head, ventrum, and joints.
-Respiratory and digestive tract inflammations were frequently observed.
-Zinc supplementation did not lead to remission of CS in 4; slight anemia in 8; hypoalbuminemia in 6 but reduced serum zinc concentrations in only 3. Mucosal erosions/ulcerations were present in 7 calves and thymus atrophy or reduced thymic weights in 8 calves.
-Histologically, skin lesions were indistinguishable from BHZD.
-ZDL syndrome should be suspected in Fleckvieh calves with crusting dermatitis together with diarrhea
- OR - respiratory tract inflammations without response to oral zinc supplementation.
-Definite diagnosis requires molecular genetic confirmation of the PLD4 mutation.
AUTOSOMAL RECESSIVE
68
Best tx for hypophos
Mono- or di- sodium hydrogen phosphate
60 grams orally
69
multiple acyl-CoA dehydrogenase deficiency (MADD)
A definitive diagnosis of MADD is made by identifying a specific pattern of accumulation of acyl carnitines and urine organic acids caused by alberrant fatty acid and amino acid metabolism
70
ECG’s in hyperkalemic calves
Conclusions and Clinical Importance: Hyperkalemia in neonatal diarrheic calves is associated with serious cardiac conduction abnormalities. In addition to increased S and T wave amplitude voltages, alterations of P and Ta wave amplitudes are early signs of hyperkalemia, which is consistent with the known sensitivity of atrial myocytes to increased cK1.
S wave amplitude voltage decreased when cK1 >7.4 mmol/L
QRS duration increased when cK1 >7.8 mmol/L
J point amplitude increased when cK1 >7.9 mmol/L
ST segment angle increased when cK1 >9.1 mmol/L
P wave amplitude was characterized by a second commonbreak point at cK158.2 mmol/L, above which value the amplitude was 0.
71
Prognosis of cattle with necrotic laryngitis after sx
-Overall survival 65%
-Higher mortality if <6 months old
The venous partial pressure of carbon dioxide (pCO2 64.5 mmHg) was most significantly associated with mortality. Sensitivity and specificity of the final model consisting of age and pCO2 were 49.1 and 86.4%, respectively. Instead of pCO2, total carbon dioxide (TCO2) could also be used, with similar diagnostic accuracy.
72
Lavender foal syndrome
a lethal disorder of Egyptian Arabian foals
dilute coat color and profound neurologic dysfunction
autosomal recessive inherited disorder
frameshift mutation in exon 30 of the myosin Va gene (MYO5A) that results in premature termination of transcription
73
Cerebellar abiotrophy
Cerebellar abiotrophy is inherited as an autosomal recessive trait and is associated with a single-nucleotide polymorphism on chromosome 2 (13074277G>A), located in the 4th exon of TOE1 and in proximity to MUTYH on the antisense strand.
-results in loss of Purkinje neurons + secondary loss of the granular cell layer of the cerebellum.
-CS recognized at birth or up to a few months of age and include ataxia, hypermetria, intention tremors, and lack of menace response.
74
SCID in Arabians
a 5-base pair deletion in the gene encoding the catalytic subunit of DNA-dependent protein kinase (DNA-PK) and is inherited as an autosomal recessive trait.
The lack of activity of DNA-PK leads to failure of T and B lymphocytes to cut, rearrange, and anneal genes that encode surface-expressed antigen-specific receptors. Foals with SCID lack mature functional B and T lymphocytes have profound lymphopenia (<1,000/lL) and low immunoglobulin concentrations followed by agammaglobulinemia after maternal antibodies disappear.
The frequency of the SCID gene carrier state was estimated to be 8.5% in the Arabian population
75
RLN is best currently described as 
A distal axonapthy with clear involvement of both RLN’s
Mononeuropathy of the left
76
Atypical myopathy is caused by
acquired multiple acyl-coenzyme A (CoA) dehydrogenase deficiency (MADD) resulting from ingestion of hypoglycin A (HGA).
This substance is present in the seeds and seedlings of Acer pseudoplatanus.
Hypoglycin A is metabolized to toxic methylene cyclopropyl acetyl-CoA (MCPA-CoA) that inhibits lipid, amino acid, and choline metabolism
77
The common laboratory findings for AM horses are
increased serum creatine kinase (CK) and aspartate aminotransferase (AST) activity, increased concentrations of acylcarnitines, glycine conjugates, and some amino acids.
78
E321G MYH1 mutation
Associated with immune mediated myositis in QHs
strong association between the E321G MYH1 mutation and nonER in QH-related breeds. In total, 67% of nonER QH possessed the MYH1 mutation compared to 5% of randomly selected healthy QH.
exercise was NOT a trigger for rhabdomyolysis in horses with the MYH1 mutation
79
Rate of AF recurrence in horses
39% at 1 year after cardioversion
80
How did sotalol affect TVEC procedure?
Significantly less energy was required for electrical cardioversion in the sotalol group
The increased AFCL after sotalol treatment indicates slowing of the atrial activation rate.
81
Sotalol
Class Ill anti-arrhythmic and b-blocker
82
Commercially available viscoelastic tests
dynamic viscoelastic coagulometry (Sonoclot), thromboelastometry (TEM), and thromboelastography (TEG)
These tests are similar and provide a holistic view of the time to clot formation, the strength of the clot formed, clot retraction, and clot lysis, using whole blood samples.
83
Oxygen saturation of hemoglobin (SaO2)
is the ratio of fully oxygenated hemoglobin to the total hemoglobin in the blood capable of binding oxygen, measured via oximetry or calculated from partial pressure of oxygen (pO2).
84
The 4 principle determinants of venous oxygen saturation values are
arterial oxygen saturation
hemoglobin concentration
cardiac output
tissue oxygen consumption
In healthy (or at least clinically stable) animals the SvO2 and ScvO2 are consistently in the range of 70–75% and 65-70%, respectively.
Low values, representing increased oxygen extraction, occur when oxygen delivery is insufficient to meet metabolic demand. Pathological impairment of oxygen delivery can be due to lung disease with impaired oxygenation of blood (resulting in reduced arterial hemoglobin saturation), low hemoglobin concentration (resulting in low arterial oxygen carrying capacity), impaired circulation (due to decreased effective circulating volume and other causes of reduced cardiac output), or any combination of these. Therefore, animals with unexplained low ScvO2 or SvO2 values should be evaluated for the presence of pulmonary disease, anemia and states of reduced cardiac output, including hypovolemia, cardiac disease or arrhythmias. Because ScvO2 orSvO2 may also be reduced by any cause of high tissue oxygen consumption relative to delivery, conditions such as shivering or muscle tremors should be controlled before assuming that low saturations are due solely to pathological imbalance.
85
Esmolol
a short acting b1-blocker that has been studied in both clinical and experimental studies of patients with sepsis
86
A useful classification system for cows with clinical mastitis utilizes 3 categories
(1) abnormal secretion (visible abnormalities in milk)
(2) abnormal secretion and gland (clinical evidence of udder inflammation, including the presence of heat, redness, swelling, pain, and decreased milk production)
(3) abnormal secretion, gland, and cow (clinical evidence of systemic illness, including fever, decreased appetite, and rumen fill). Subclinical mastitis is not detectable during routine physical examination but is identified by detecting the presence of inflammatory biomarkers or mastitis pathogens in glandular secretions when an intramammary infection is present
87
Traditional contagious mastitis pathogens
S. agalactiae and S. aureus,
88
a contagious mastitis pathogen most commonly associated with subclinical infection of long duration,
Corynebacterium Bovis
89
bladder neoplasia vs. hemorrhagic cystitis syndrome
had lower hematocrits, were older, more likely to be female, and more likely to have a mass detected on ultrasonographic examination of the bladder than horses with hemorrhagic cystitis syndrome
90
Idiopathic hemorrhagic cystitis
a newly described cause of hematuria and stranguria in horses, associated with the presence of proliferative, hemorrhagic bladder mucosa on cystoscopy.
Affected horses should be reevaluated in 2–4 weeks, because they have an excellent prognosis.
91
chronic enzootic hematuria
is associated with bracken fern toxicity, which can progress to bladder neoplasia. Infection with bovine papilloma virus-2 may play a role in progression to bladder cancer in affected cattle
92
recognized risk factor for obstructive urolithiasis
Early castrations especially in goats vs sheep
High grain diet
Obesity
93
the most common clinical signs observed in small ruminants with obstructive urolithiasis
anorexia, colic, teeth grinding, increased heart rate, and abnormal to absent micturition. The latter sign is often regarded as most specific of urolithiasis, with attempts at urination often accompanied by colic, straining, and further expressions of pain.
In our study, signs of pain were recorded only in 50% of all animals. In contrast, colic was reported by the referring veterinarians or owners in 58.1% of the cases.
94
Clinical signs of blocked ruminants- stages
Clinical signs can be divided into:
-early stage: discrete unspecific clinical signs
-painful stage: frequent straining, expression of pain and moderately reduced general condition
-advanced stage: markedly reduced general condition
-eventually recumbency
95
Variables associates with non-survival of obstructive urolithiasis
very poor clinical condition upon presentation, obesity, castration, and evidence of uroperitoneum.
abnormal PCV, severely increased serum creatinine concentrations, and increased CK were associated with increased risk of nonsurvival.
Presence of signs of colic or macroscopic appearance of urine was not significantly associated with outcome.
96
Oak toxicity in cattle
Acute kidney injury (AKI) secondary to ingestion of oak leaves, buds, and acorns (Quercus spp.) has been described in cattle worldwide.
Hydrolyzable tannins are metabolized by rumen microbes to form pyrogallol, which is hepato-and nephrotoxic.
With the development of AKI, the mortality rate can be as high as 83%.
Conventional management of AKI includes fluid therapy to correct dehydration and restore renal perfusion, correction of electrolyte and acid–base abnormalities, and supportive care to address the poor rumen motility and gastroenteritis associated with uremia.
97
When is hemodialysis indicated for acute kidney injury?
in the face of anuria, failure of conventional therapy to induce diuresis and control uremia, fluid overload, severe electrolyte derangements, severe azotemia, or complications of severe uremia
98
Plasma citrulline(CIT) concentration in calves with diarrhea
This study described plasma CIT, ARG, NO, and whole blood ammonia concentrations in diarrheic neonatal calves along with healthy controls. The results indicated that neonatal calves with acute diarrhea have lower plasma CIT and ARG and higher plasma NO and blood ammonia concentrations than healthy calves, and that SIRS status, severity of diarrhea, and degree of dehydration significantly affect levels of plasma CIT and its related metabolites.
Plasmacitrulline (CIT) concentration is considered to be a reliable marker of functional enterocyte mass, primarily in humans.
99
Risk factors for glandular ulcers
A 10.4-fold increased risk of EGGD was associated with exercising ≥5 days per week in the present study, although no effect of exercise intensity or duration was observed.
Exercising Warmblood show jumpers ≥6 days per week increases the risk of disease by 4.6-fold
restricting exercise to ≤4-5 days per week could reduce the risk of EGGD.
100
In calves with diarrhea, concentration of circulating LPS in plasma was higher in ?
-beef (> dairy)
This study highlights a potential role of LPS in the pathogenesis of metabolic derangements such as hyperlactatemia, hypoglycemia, and increased concentration of unmeasured strong anions in diarrheic calves.
101
Atypical actinobacillosis
-Typical usually causes woody tongue (a. Lignierresii)
-Atypical can appear as a small outbreak in cattle with cutaneous and respiratory signs
102
Which oral potassium is best to treat dairy cows with hypo-k?
group B—potassium chloride bolus (release over 12 hours)
groupG—potassium propionate gel (release over 2hours)
group S—potassium chloride solution (immediately available)
Potassium concentrations were repeatedly measured in plasma, erythrocytes, muscle, and urine using ICP-OES.
All the studied potassium formulations are equally effective to treat hypokalemia in dairy cows for over 12 hours but do not influence intracellular concentration or renal excretion of potassium.
**The plasma potassium concentration should be reevaluated after 12 hours
103
TRH stim test
-administer 1mg
-draw blood at 30 minutes
-Results of the TRH stimulation test considered positive if the baseline plasma ACTH concentration is >35 pg/mL or post-stimulation plasma ACTH concentration is >65 pg/mL as described in the Equine Endocrinology Group recommendations
104
Lactate in ponies
-Higher in sick ponies
-Lower in healthy ponies compared to horses (lil guys)
-Lower in ponies with higher BCS (fatties)
105
HMGA2 gene
allele for a known height gene, HMGA2, as contributing to both height and several EMS traits in a cohort of Welsh ponies.
106
Blood biomarkers that may be diagnostic aids in horses with clinical signs of lower airway disease and neutrophilic pulmonary inflammation
surfactant protein D ( SPD)
haptoglobin
secretoglobin (SCGB)
Serum concentration of SP-D>43ng/mL, serum concentration of haptoglobin >5730ng/mL, and serum concentration of SCGB<19ng/mL allowed differentiation of horses with neutrophilic asthma from horses of the control groups
107
Which protocol best reduced EIPH bleeding and may replace race-day lasix?
Administering 0.5mg/kg furosemide 24hours pre-racing combined with controlling water intake
108
Fungi and IAD
A positive fungal culture was obtained in 55% (402/731) of horses.
Horses with fungal elements observed on the TW cytology had 2 times greater chance of having IAD than horses with out fungi.
Risks of being diagnosed with IAD and likelihood of fungi in TW were higher when horses were bedded on straw or fed dry hay.
109
Insect bite hypersensitivity and equine asthma
Susceptibility of IBH-affected horses to develop EA is likely NOT associated with IgE-mediated immune reactions but with other immunopathological mechanisms.
110
Sarcolipin
Transmembrane regulator of the sarcoplasmic reticulum calcium transporting ATPase (SERCA).
Highest expressed serca regulator in the horse - decreases calcium affinity
111
E321G MYH1
an E321G mutation in a highly conserved region of the myosin heavychain 1 (MYH1) gene was associated with susceptibility to IMM and non exertional rhabdomyolysis.
Knowing that reining and working cow QHs have the highest prevalence of the E321G MYH1 variant and that the variant is more prevalent than the alleles for hereditary equine regional dermal asthenia and hyperkalemic periodic paralysis in the general QH population will guide the use of genetics testing for diagnostic and breeding purposes.
112
Heart rate variability and arrhythmias
Healthy horses have little instantaneous R-R variation during exercise.
If a cardiac cycle shortens more than 6% from the previous cycle during the recovery phase, this R-R interval is likely to represent an arrhythmic event.
113
calves with subclinical bovine respiratory disease (BRD)
Neutrophil count ≥4 cells on bronchoalveolar fluid analysis are consistent with subclinical BRD
114
Which cell type is higher in proportion on cytology of broncoalveolar lavage fluid in healthy adult alpacas compared to health adult horses?
neutrophils
115
What is associated with higher rates of bovine respiratory disease complex ?
supplementing feed with antimicrobials
116
Which molecule is bound by leukotoxin in the pathogenesis of M. hemolytica?
CD18
117
Which toxin is the most important in the pathogenesis of Clostridium perfringens Type C?
beta toxin
118
How does colostrum ingestion affect risk of c. perf?
Ingestion of colostrum in neonates increases risk to effects of the (beta) toxin.
119
Which toxin is the most important produced by Clostridium perfringens Type D?
Epsilon toxin
Causes focal symmetrical encephalomalacia.
120
BVDV in alpacas
Large herds have a greater proportion of seropositive animals compared to smaller herds.
121
the most likely effective method in preventing environmental mastitis?
Vaccination using a core antigen bacterin
122
lepto testing in cattle
Second voiding urine samples following administration of furosemide are recommended for testing.
123
Bovine papilloma virus-2.
associated with hemorrhagic cystitis and neoplasms associated with chronic bracken fern (Pteridium aquilinum) in cattle
124
Which Leptospira interrogans serovar is host adapted to cattle?
hardjo
125
Which fetal neuronal cells are affected by in-utero bovine viral diarrhea infection?
purkinje
126
What bacteria is commonly isolated from blood in cows with acute puerperal metritis?
bacillus
127
Which insulin has the most extending duration of action in healthy alpacas?
Neutral protamine Hagedorn.
NPH or isophane
90 minute onset / 24h duration in humans
128
What combination of fluids would be most effective in managing dairy calves with non-infectious osmotic diarrhea?
7.2% sodium chloride intravenously and isotonic (300 Osmo/L) oral electrolytes
129
What clinic-pathological findings is consistent with anaplasmosis in cattle?
bilirubinemia
130
simplified strong ion difference (SID)
(Na+ + K+) - Cl-
131
What will negatively affect absorption of colostral components in a newborn calf?
Respiratory acidosis at the time of feeding colostrum.
132
What enzyme is inhibited by sulfonamide antibiotics
Dihydropteroate synthetase
133
What electrolyte imbalance is the MOST common cause of acidiuria?
hypokalemia
134
What vitamin's absorption is affected following destruction of parietal cells?
Vit B12
135
Why can South American camelids survive at higher altitudes?
increased hemoglobin concentration
136
what mineral causes secondary copper deficiency
molybdenum
137
most appropriate diagnostic to confirm presence of lymphoma
pericardiocentesis
138
An alpaca is presented for suspected Mycoplasma hemollama infection. Which test is the most sensitive in detecting the infection?
PCR
139
What antibiotic’s elimination will be reduced in a lactating cow with hepatic lipidosis?
oxytet
140
For intravenous treatment of acidemia in calves with naturally acquired diarrhea, solutions with a high strong ion difference are ???
more effective at alkalinizing!
141
what acid-base disturbance is commonly associated with atrial fibrillation in cattle?
metabolic alkalosis
142
Dz of which body system is most commonly associated with atrial fibrillation in cattle?
GI
143
Which fluids are most effective in managing dairy calves with non-infectious osmotic diarrhea?
7.2 % sodium chloride intravenously and isotonic (300 Osmo/L) oral electrolyte.
144
What medication should you give tachycardic cattle in AF before quinidine conversion?
digoxin
145
15-F2t-Isoprostanes
accurate biomarker of mammary gland oxidative status in dairy cows with coliform mastitis
146
What cattle disease condition is associated with elevated cardiac troponin-I compared to healthy cows
metritis
147
What metabolites are early indicators of inflammatory response to endotoxin in alpacas?
Neutrophil/lymphocyte ratio and iron concentrations.
148
What is decreased in the peritoneal fluid of cattle with left or right displaced abomasum?
nitric oxide
149
What is the most useful diagnostic test when quantifying cardiac remodeling in calves with clinical signs consistent with congenital heart disease?
Cardiac troponin-I
150
What clinical and or clinico-pathological signs are consistent with adult sheep infected with Anaplasma phagocytophilum?
none - it causes subclinical disease
151
What test has a high sensitivity in detecting Mycoplasma ovis in goats?
real time-PCR
152
Best way to detect Candidatus Mycoplasma haemolamae in alpacas
PCR has a higher sensitivity for detection of infection compared to blood smear
153
floppy kid syndrome
metabolic acidosis is associated with increase D-lactic acid concentrations
154
frothy bloat
Stimulation of the high-tension receptors exacerbates the accumulation of gas
155
What management changes will most likely reduce the incidence of diarrhea in a herd of 60 7-day old dairy calves with an outbreak of crypto?
Increase protein and volume of milk replacer
156
What electrolyte and acid-base abnormalities are associated with a displaced abomasum?
Hypochloremia, hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis
157
Which blood metabolite is the most appropriate for monitoring a group of cows for risk of ketosis and hepatic lipidosis during the dry cow period?
NEFA
158
What ECG findings is consistent with hypokalemia in a cow?
flattened t wave
159
What negatively impacts Mg absorption?
K
160
What medication decreases whole body insulin sensitivity in periparturient dairy cows?
dexamethasone
161
What test will most likely confirm nutritional myodegeneration in a calf with hind limb stiffness?
Glutathione peroxidase activity.
162
Use of DCAD is mostly likely to be effective on DRY COW diets with what?
high quantities of alfalfa hay
163
What is the MOST important risk factor for transmission of Mycobacterium avium ssp paratubertuberculosis in calves?
contact with adult feces
164
What is the most appropriate management of a suspect abscess due to Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis (enlarged left pre-scapular lymph node on a 1-year-old Boer buck) to prevent contamination of the environment?
Intralesional administration of tulathromycin
165
What is a significant risk factor for post-parturient hypophosphatemia in dairy cattle?
twinning
166
Which form of insulin rapidly decreases glucose concentrations when administered intravenously or subcutaneously in health alpacas?
regular
167
What dry cow supplementation combination will most likely reduce post-parturient insulin resistance and improve tolerance in dairy cattle?
Alpha-tocopheryl acetate and sodium selenite.
168
pathogenesis of Mycobacterium avium ssp paratubertuberculosis (MAP) in cattle?
M cells deliver the MAP organisms to macrophages in the intestinal submucosa
169
effect of somatotropin (growth hormone) in tissues in cattle
increase insulin production
170
Elevation of what proteins indicate presence of hepatic lipidosis in post-parturient cows with displaced abomasum?
SAA and haptoglobin
171
DCAD diets
Compensated acidification of the diet is effective at enhancing PTH binding to its receptor
172
reservoir of epizootic hemorrhagic disease
DEER
173
most appropriate test for diagnosing ketosis in post-parturient dairy cows
BHB
174
Which test is the MOST sensitive in diagnosing Cryptosporidium in calves?
Acid fast staining of feces followed by microscopy
175
most appropriate treatment for soybean intoxication in cattle
oral acetic acid
176
rate limiting metabolic substrate for energy metabolism in a cow experiencing negative energy balance
OXALOACETATE
177
lack of Apolipoprotein A negatively affects what
transport of lipids as VLDL from the liver in dairy cows with hepatic lipidosis
178
biological vector that transmits epizootic hemorrhagic disease in cattle
culicoides
179
What pathogens are associated with a higher occurrence of hemorrhagic bowel syndrome in cattle
Aspergillus fumigatus and Clostridium perfringens type A
180
serial test results of cows with delayed exposure to Mycobacterium avium paratuberculosis compared to those exposed early in life demonstrate
Lower incidence of positive tests results on ELISA, fecal culture, and incidence of clinical disease
181
cherry colored blood
cyanide poisoning
182
What factors = increased risk for infection with Cryptosporidium parvum in dairy calves
large herd size
bedded on hay
183
The decrease in ____ cells is the mechanism for decreased glucagon-like peptide-1 production in adult alpacas compared to pre-weaned crias?
L
184
flunixin elimination in cows
Elimination is slower in mastitic cows compared to healthy cows.
185
oral administration of electrolytes solutions in calves with diarrhea
Solutions with high bicarbonate (>70mmol/L) results in large and sustained increase in abomasal pH.
186
Elevation of these parameters in CSF suggest spinal cord damage compared to those without spinal cord lesions in down dairy cattle
TNCC and TP
187
Intervention associated with survival rate in new world camelids less than 30 days of age?
abx treatment with TMS (trimethoprim sulfmethoxAZOLE)
188
contraindicated in camelids with cerebrospinal nematodiasis
corticosteroids
189
most common cause of seizures in sheep and goats
polioencephalomalacia
190
What test is appropriate for testing for Mycobacterium avium paratuberculosis in hospitalized camelids?
PCR
191
What metabolite is LOW in dairy cows with ketosis?
leptin
192
Delphiniums
-second in importance only to locoweed as a source of economic loss due to plant toxicities in range animals of the United States
-toxic principle = Diterpenoid alkaloid
-mechanism = neuromuscular blockade via binding to nicotinic receptors
-CS = staggering, exciteability, basewide stance, bloat, death.
193
Chronic cyanide ingestion in Sorghum grass by pregnant horses and cattle can result in
the birth of foals and calves with arthrogryposis
194
Treatment of nitrate toxicity includes:
removal from offending pasture, administration of cold water, vinegar and mineral oil via nasogastric tube and intravenous methylene blue.
195
sesquiterpene lactone
yellow star thistle / chewing disease
196
White snakeroot (Eupatorium rugosum), Burrow weed (Isocoma pluriflora), and Coffee senna (Senna occidentalis) all cause what?
cardiac and skeletal muscle pathology in large animals
197
The major liver fluke infecting ruminants in the USA is Fasciola hepatica. What degree of fluke burden is proposed to result in
i) economic losses in infected herds, and
ii) clinical disease in individual cattle?
>40 flukes/animal;
>200 flukes/animal.
198
Clostridium novyi type B.
black disease
199
prevention of Bacillary Haemoglobinuria in a cattle herd
control liver flukes
200
What is the mechanism by which addition of ammonium chloride to the feed prevents urolithiasis in goats?
decreases urine pH
201
What is the bacteria most frequently cultured from liver abscesses in cattle and what is its main virulence factor?
Fusobacterium necrophorum; leukotoxin.
202
What medication can induce hypokalaemia in ketotic cattle?
isofluprednone acetate
203
what is recommended for treatment of macrolide-resistant Rhodococcus equi pneumonia in foals?
doxycycline and rifampin
204
produces benign, locally invasive tumours of the nasal turbinates in sheep that eventually lead to facial distortion, dyspnoea and death
Ovine Adenocarcinoma Virus
205
Infection of pregnant cattle with Bovine Virus Diarrhoea Virus at which stage of gestation results in production of persistently infected calves?
50-100
206
diagnosing lungworm (Dictycaulus viviparus) infection in cattle
larvae on Baerrman flotation of faeces.
207
Severe Combined Immunodeficiency
Autosomal recessive; frameshift mutation in the gene encoding the catalytic subunit of DNA-dependent protein kinase (DNA-PKcs).
208
Bovine Lymphoma is often associated with infection with Bovine Leukaemia Virus (BLV), however sporadic forms also occur.
In which organ is lymphoma typically associated with BLV?
abomasum
209
When advising a farmer on colostrum management, what volume of colostrum should you tell him to give his calves within the first few hours of life and what immunoglobulin should the colostrum be richest in?
4L; IgG1.
210
What cytokine is associated with pyrexia and the acute phase response?
IL-6
211
what does LPS bind to
TLR-4
212
RAO- affected horses have a higher odds ratio of also suffering from what?
Insect bite hypersensitivity
213
Suggested management changes for horses with chronic lower airway disease
Feed a poly unsaturated FA supplement containing 1.5-3g DHA for 2 months
Low dust diet
214
What blood parameter is helpful for prognosis in cows with RDA?
Post-operative L-lactate
Not short term change in lactate!
215
Flecanide
Flecainide had clear antiarrhythmic properties in terminating acute pacing- induced AF, but showed no protective properties against immediate reinduction of AF.
Flecainide caused temporary pro- longation in the ventricular repolarization, which may be a proarrhythmic effect.
216
Does phosphorous depletion cause hemolysis (intravascalar) in dairy cows?
Unlikely
217
Is plasma[Pi] a reliable index for intracellular phosphorous concentration of erythrocytes?
No
218
What factors increased odds of survival in horses hospitalized with botulism?
Higher temp at admission
Dysphagia
Treatment with antitoxin
219
What factors decreased odds of survival in horses hospitalized with botulism?
Abnormal respiratory effort
Inability to stand
220
What increased survival % for horses hospitalized for botulism?
Overall survival was 48%
67% for horses that arrived standing
95% for horses that remained able to stand throughout hospitalization
Complications occurred in 62% of horses but were not associated with nonsurvival
221
Adverse reactions to gamithromycin
Colic
Hind limb lameness
222
optimal cTnI cut-off for detection of primary myocardial damage
0.095 ng/mL
sensitivity: 90.5%, specificity: 100%)
223
optimal cTnT cut-off for detection of primary myocardial damage
10.5 pg/mL
sens is low, only 42.9%
6.6 pg/mL
sens is 81%
224
The presence of mycoplasma bovis in dairy calves with BRD was associated with 
Higher odds of clinical signs,lung consolidation, and lower ADG
225
nasopharyngeal carriage of what pathogen was detrimental to health and growth of dairy calves in small herds with a high incidence of BRD?
mycoplasma bovis
226
Acer rubrum mechanism
Gallic acid is metabolized to pyrogallol in the ileum
Oxidative damage leads to formation of eccentrocytes, methemoglobin, and hemoglobinuria
227
with intravascular hemolysis, an expected necropsy finding may be
High liver iron concentration
228
Oxidizing toxins
Nitrate, nitrite, lead
Wilted red maple, sugar maple, silver maple leaves, onions
229
Quality of drugs good for treatment of abscesses
Lipophilic
230
Are macrolides good for treating corynebacterium
lipophilic- so yes
but they may cause colitis so no
231
Are cephalosporins good for treating corynebacterium
No-plasma concentrations of 2 lg/mL would be unachievable for >50% of the dosing interval in adult horses using the labeled and commonly used dosage
232
Good treatment choices for corynebacterium abscesses
tetracyclines, fluoroquinolones, potentiated sulfonamides
need MIC testing
233
In liver disease, serum bile acids were correlated with
SBA were significantly and positively correlated with
overall, parenchymal, and portal inflammation,
and portal and bridging fibrosis.
234
survival in horses with hepatic disease
Of 81 cases 90% survived short-term and 83% long-term.
235
factors associated with survival in horses with hepatic disease
SBA concentrations are associated with inflammation and fibrosis suggesting interference with hepatic function.
A
histopathological score >2 and, less so, SBA >20 umol/L are specific but not sensitive indicators of nonsurvival.
236
relationship between equine hepatic disease and serum bile acid
SBA was higher in short and long term non survivors but not necessarily accosicated with non survival
237
in the dunkel 2015 paper on heaptic disease, what parameter offered the best specificity for long term survival?
histopathologival score
> 2 = poor survival prognosis
238
horses are most commonly affected by type __ botulism
B
239
horses with botulism that lose the ability to stand
have a poor chance of survival
240
horses with botulism have increased chance of survival if
higher rectal temp at admission
dysphagia
**treated with antitoxin (strongedt association)
241
botulism survival rate
Overall survival was 48%
but was significantly higher (67%, P = .011)
for horses that arrived standing
and even higher (95%, P < .001) for horses that remained able to stand throughout hospitalization
Complications occurred in 62% of horses but were not associated with nonsurvival
242
survival rate for hospitalized foals with botulism
96%
88% if ventilated
243
variable most strongly associated with nonsurvival in adult botulism
development of sustained recumbency
