Things To Know Flashcards
1
Q
most common murmur in horses
A
aortic regurg associated with degenerative valve disease
2
Q
anemia, neutrophilia, increased globulins, SAA, fibrinogen, +/- liver enzymes
ventricular hyperkinesis and chamber enlargement on echo
ragged edges of one valve appreciated
A
bacterial endocarditis
3
Q
prognosis of TR in horses
A
Negative indicators include TR associated with:
1. structural valve lesions (endocarditis, flail leaflets, ruptured chordae tendinae)
2. clinical signs of right sided CHF
3. severe MR or pulmonary hypertension
4
Q
in horses, degenerative valve disease affects which valve most frequently
A
aortic
5
Q
what is the cause of TV endocarditis in horses
A
IVC infections
6
Q
endocarditis mostly affects what valve in horses
A
aortic and mitral equally
7
Q
bacterial endocarditis most commonly affects what valve in cattle
A
tricuspid
8
Q
abnormal systolic jugular venous pulsations occur with
A
tricuspid regurg
9
Q
bounding arterial pulse quality indicates what in horses with AR
A
severity and left ventricular volume overload
10
Q
AR in horses
A
L sided diastolic
descrescendo, musical
11
Q
what category of murmurs are most common in large animals
A
diastolic, regurgitation
12
Q
what can help distinguish v-tachycardia from other tachy-arrythmias?
A
jugular pulses
bruit de cannon
rapid regular rhythm
13
Q
drugs for v tach treatment
A
lido
quinidine
procainamide
mag sulfate
14
Q
Treatment for V-tach is indicated when?
A
- HR >120 horses, >140 cattle
- clinical signs of CHF or CV collapse
- multifocal origin for VPDās
- torsades des pointes (wide VT)
- āR on Tā
15
Q
coumarin-derived anticoagulant
A
warfarin
16
Q
how does warfarin act
A
competitive inhibition of vitamin K
17
Q
vit K dependent clotting factors
A
2, 7, 9, 10
18
Q
CS of warfarin toxicosis
A
hematomas, ecchymoses of mms, epistaxis, hematuria
19
Q
lab indication of warfarin tox
A
prolonged PT
because the plasma half life of factor 7 is shorter than the others
20
Q
diagnosis of warfarin tox
A
history
signs of large vessel hemorragic diathesis
history of exposure
prolonged PT, +/- PTT
no other clotting abnormalities
!!
21
Q
treatment of warfarin tox
A
give Vit K1 .5-1mg/kg (SC or IM) q6h until PT is normal again
DO NOT GIVE K3 - highly nephrotoxic
22
Q
CS: spontaneous bleeding, intermittent epistaxis unrelated to exercise, petechial and ecchymotic hemorrhages, hematomas, prolonged bleeding after sx or needle sticks
Platelets have normal morphology, coag parameters, and FDPs
A
Glanzmannās thrombasthenia
23
Q
Glanzmannās thrombasthenia gene
A
ITGA2B
24
Q
glanzmannās thrombasthenia
A
platelets are unable to aggregate in response to collagen or ADP blood forms loose clots with limited serum separation and deceased tensile strength
25
atypical equine thrombasthenia
TB's
-platelets form normal clots and aggregate normally in response to ADP
-significantly reduced fibrinogen binding
-limited prothrombinase activity
-give amicar at sx
26
equine anemia
-edema, fever, etc.
-morulae observed in the cytoplasm on neutrophils
anaplasma phagocytophila
27
diagnosis of anaplasma
- morula within the cytoplasm of neutrophils and eos (difficult to find though!!
)
-positive PCR on blood (buffy coat)
-paired serology
28
tx of anaplasma
oxytet / doxy
29
-appear within mature erythrocytes
-non pigmente, paired, pair shaped bodied joined at an acute angle
Babesia bigemina
big boy
30
-small, pleomorphic
-single round or pear shape
-joined at an obtuse angle within mature erythrocyte
babesia bovis
little b
the most virulent of the 2
31
what tick spreads babesia
one-host, infected transovarially
boophilus
32
how does babesia cause anemia
-intraerythrocytic reproduction, then the escaping merozoites destroy cells intravascularly
-massive osmotic lysis
-immune mediated removal of damaged and healthy RBCs
33
diagnosis of babesia
-identification on Giemsa-stained blood smears
-serology
-PCR
34
prognosis of babesia tx
better if PCV >12%
poor if PCV <10%
35
maltese cross
-thileria equi
-intraerythrocytic parasite of the horse
-divides into four cells
-treat with imidocarb
36
QH gelding with blood at the end of urination - most likely cause
urethral hemorrhage
-tear / fistula formation along the dorsocaudal aspect of the ischial arch
- Dx on scope
-rest, can give TMS, Sx correct if persistent prob
37
according to smith, what gent dose is require for nephrotoxicity in the healthy horse?
20mg/kg q8h for several days
38
leptin and adiponectin come from?
they are both adipokines released from fat tissue
39
adiponectin
-anti-inflammatory
-insulin-sensitizing
-decreases with obesity, IR, and laminitis risk
40
which adipokine is helpful in assessing laminitis risk
adiponectin, NOT leptin
41
if cows are going down 48 hours post calving, what do they need?
CALCIUM
add calcium salts IV, SC
manage DCAD
42
prussian blue stain detects
hemosiderin
iron stores or deposits
43
Hemochromatosis
Deposition of hemosiderin in parenchymal cells -> tissue damage and dysfunction of liver and other tissues
-Described in Salers cattle:
-Increased iron deposits in liver
-Homozygous recessive inappropriate absorption of iron by GI tract, with subsequent hepatic storage and loss of hepatic function
44
CS of hemochromatosis in cattle
decreased weight gain, poor BCS, dull hair coat, loss of incisor teeth, diarrhea
Total serum iron, total iron-binding capacity, and saturation of transferrin (>60%) are increased
Liver iron concentration: >5000ug/g on a wet basis
45
CS of hemochromatosis in horses
-ALP, GGT, AST elevated, serum total bile acids >40uM/L
-Total serum iron NOT elevated no saturation of the iron-binding capacity
-Total liver iron: as high as 6700 ppm
46
Hemosiderosis
iron accumulates in reticuloendothelial system, not hepatocytes
47
hemochromatosis results in
accumulation of iron in the LIVER / hepatocytes
48
in horses with hepatic disease, what were specific indicators of non survival?
1. SBA > 20umol/L
2. histopath score > 2
49
in horses with hepatic disease, serum bile acids were associated with what
-inflammation
-fibrosis
suggesting interference with hepatic function
50
Type 1 vagal indigestion
gas accumulation - free gas bloat
always failure to eructate not increased production
upper left distention
51
Type 2 vagal indigestion
failure of omasal transport - obstruction of the omasal orifice can be either functional or mechanical
rumen distended with feed
fluid accumulation arises from a failure of rumen outflow with continued food and water intake and saliva production
abdomen is distended at the
midflank and dorsally on the left and ventrally on the right
on rectal examination,
the classic finding of an āLā-shaped rumen is felt due to the significant expansion of the ventral sac toward the right flank
52
Type 3 vagal indigestion
failure of abomasal outflow
primary or secondary abomasal impaction
1. Primary - dry course feed with limited water.
2. Secondary - disturbances in abomasal motility or pyloric outflow failure.
classic papple shape
causes: TRP, ischemia of the vagus nerve as a sequelae to RDA, mechanical obstruction or neurogenic dysfunction at the level of the pylorus d/t lymphosarcoma
53
Type 4 vagal indigestion
failure of pyloric outflow
partial forestomach obstruction common in late pregnancy
less distention than type 2/3
the enlarged uterus displaces the abomasum cranially
54
most common clinical sign seen with lawsonia (EPE)
hypoproteinemia
T.P. < 5.0 g/dl with albumin usually < 2.0g/dl.
55
lawsonia testing in foals on farm?
rtPCR is most SENSITIVE
56
lawsonia testing in adults
Immunoperoxidase monolayer assay is the most SPECIFIC when determining presence of antibodies in adult horses with EPE
57
tx for salmonella in cows
TMS or florfenicol or cephalosporins
58
what antibiotic can be used in feedlots to prevent liver abscesses
tylosin
59
how long after infection do horses shed coronavirus?
up to 24 days
60
what volume of colostrum does a dairy calf need
4L with 50gg/L IGG
61
Dx and Px for a 2 month old foal with hypermetria and trouble nursing
cerebellar hypoplasia
bad
62
Fell / Dale immunodeficiency syndrome
-normal at birth, develops up to 3 months later
-anemia: normocytic normochromic, no hemolysis
-WBCC low, B cells low, T cells normal, neutrophils often high
63
Difference between Fell/Dale immunodeficiency and SCID
SCID: No IgM, no B or T cells, lymphopenia
F/DI: low IgM, low B normal T cells, anemia + lymphopenia
64
Tyzzer's diagnosis
-multifocal hepatitis and necrosis
-Intrahepatocellular filamentous bacteria will be present at the periphery of the lesion.
-Silver and Giemsa stains may help facilitate diagnosis.
-PCR for C. piliforme can aid in diagnosis and treatment.
65
cause of head tilt in a calf
mycoplasma bovis otitis
treat with oxytet or tulathromycin
66
The EPM SAG2, 4/3 ELISA indicates a serum positive for exposure at
> 1:250
67
The EPM SAG2, 4/3 ELISA Serum:CSF ratio is predictive of EPM if
< 100
68
The EPM SAG2, 4/3 ELISA correlates well with EPM if the CSF value is
> 1:40
69
which biovar causes more cases of EHM?
EHV-1 D752 (n is more abortions)
70
CSF in EHM
xanthrochromia
increased protein
+/- monocytic pleocytosis
71
Scrapie transmission
PrPsc occurs at very high concentrations in placental tissue and fluids and is also shed in colostrum and milk, making the periparturient period the riskiest time for the transmission of classical scrapie. Most animals are thought to be infected from their dam at or near birth. Horizontal transmission to other members of the herd or flock that contact fetal membranes and fluids increases during this time as well. Evidence for in utero transmission has been documented. In one study of experimentally infected pregnant ewes, even delivering lambs via cesarean section and removing them immediately from the dam did not break the transmission cycle.
72
WNV and viremia
level of viremia directly correlates with the probability of neuroinvasion
73
CAEV diagnosis in a goat kid
ELISA is sensitive
AGID is specific
PCR is specific
kids may be transiently positive on serology with MDA - but PCR should be true
74
D, L tryptophan
- lush forage in autumn
- causes AIP
- converted to 3-methylindole in the rumen
75
AIP signs
pulmonary emphysema
edema
hyaline membrane formation
alveolar epithelial cell and intersitial tissue hyperplasia
76
furasium solani
moldy sweet potatoes
4-ipomeanol is the pulmonary toxin
77
perilla frutescens
- cause of AIP
- perilla ketone
- high morbidity and case fatality
78
primary ruminal tympany
frothy bloat
-pasture: legumes, alfalfa hay
-feedlot: finely ground grain
79
bloat safe legumes
digested more slowly
80
preventing feedlot bloat
- rations should contain 10-15% roughage, chopped and mixed in
- use cereal grain straw or grass hay
- NO ALFALFA
- NO FINE GRAINS OR PELLETS
- rolled or cracked
- can add tallow or salt
81
strangles SeM titres
1:200-400
Weak
- very recent exposure
- vaccinated a long time ago
- rec repeat test in a week
82
strangles SeM titres
1:800-1600
Moderate
- 2-3 weeks post exposure
- 6mos - 2yrs post infection
83
strangles SeM titres
1:3200 - 6400
High
- 4-12 weeks after infection
- 2 weeks post vaccination
- DO NO VAX
84
strangles SeM titres
> 1:12,800
Very high
- diagnostic for abscess or purpura
85
After sx and ventilation, what pneumonia should be suspected? What prognosis?
-Klebsiella
-pleuropneumonia
-47% survival
86
"rattles"
watery mouth
-e coli endotoxemia and FPT
-NO DIARRHEA
-dull weak cold bloated
87
SCID foal presents with pneumonia
- DX pneumocystis carii
- TX TMS
88
D-penicilamine
binds excess copper
89
What changes can you expect with Vitamin D supplementation in camelids?
-increased Ca/Mg
-calcinosis
-increased P?
90
chronic sorghum ingestion causes what
-ataxia, hopping gait of both hind limbs
-urine dribbling, flaccid bladder
-abortion, arthrogryposis, neuro defects
91
best antioxidants for cows
feed selenium and VitE at NRC guidelines
minimize NEB!
92
lead poisoning in cows
-CNS derangement
-ataxia, fasciculation, cortical blindness, running, bellowing
-frothing and GI signs
93
lead poisoning in horses
weight loss, incoordination, laryngeal paralysis, CP deficits, loss anal tone, facial paralysis, dysphagia
94
DX lead poisoning
- heparinized blood will not chelate lead
- level in liver / kidney / bone
95
TX lead poisoning
calcium disodium EDTA chelation
sx removal from GIT
96
vitamin a deficiency occurs in
growing feedlot cattle
-short term protection by ability to accumulate in the liver
-poor dry forage and grains
97
CS of Vit a deficiency
-ill thrift, diarrhea, blindness, pneumonia
-star gazing and seizures in adults
98
which influenza vaccine is recommended to use in an outbreak
Flu-Avert intranasal single dose
induces protection within 7 days
99
apolipoproteins upregulated in inflammation
-induced proteins that chemotactically recruit neutrophils
SAA
100
which type of pain medication stops nerve transmission?
local / lido etc
101
EVA
-fever, anorexia, orbital edema / conjunctivitis / lacrimation
- edema and urticaria
- abortion
- aerosol spread or venereal
102
what abc are approved for mastitis
NO systemic
7 IMM formulas
