All (English, Bio, Chem, Phys, History, French, Geo) Flashcards
(538 cards)
1
Q
How is “London” patterned metrically, and in what way does that rhythm amplify Blake’s critique?
A
Iambic tetrameter; its steady beat mirrors the relentless, regulated control Blake condemns.
2
Q
How many quatrains (with an ABAB scheme) structure the poem London, and what does this regularity symbolise?
A
Four; the tight pattern reflects the “chartered” restrictions placed on Londoners.
3
Q
(London) From whose point of view is the poem narrated?
A
First-person singular (“I wander”), giving eyewitness authenticity.
4
Q
(London) Which adjective is repeated to describe both “street” and “Thames,” and what does it imply?
A
“Chartered” – even nature is owned and controlled by commerce and government.
5
Q
(London) What word in London is repeated six times in the opening stanzas, and to what effect?
A
“Every” – shows misery is universal across ages, classes, jobs.
6
Q
(London) Explain the metaphor “mind-forg’d manacles.”
A
People’s thoughts are imprisoned by institutions and internalised oppression.
7
Q
(London) Quote that exposes Church hypocrisy and explain it.
A
“Every black’ning Church appalls”- the Church is stained by industrial soot and moral corruption.
8
Q
(London) Quote that critiques the monarchy and give its meaning.
A
“Runs in blood down Palace walls” – soldiers’ sacrifices (or looming revolution) taint royal power.
9
Q
(London) Identify the oxymoron in the final line and its significance.
A
“Marriage hearse” – new beginnings already doomed by social disease and death.
10
Q
(London) Who are the “Chimney-sweepers,” and why do they matter?
A
Orphaned children forced into hazardous labour; symbols of exploited innocence.
11
Q
(London) What does the “youthful harlot’s curse” probably refer to?
A
A sexually transmitted infection that ruins families, showing social decay.
12
Q
(London) Name two major problems Blake highlights.
A
Poverty and child labour (others include war, disease, hypocrisy).
13
Q
(London) In what year was the poem published and what era frames its backdrop?
A
1794 during the Industrial Revolution.
14
Q
(London) How does the colour image “black’ning” reinforce Blake’s criticism of industry?
A
Literal soot + symbolic moral darkness spreading over institutions.
15
Q
(London) How are soldiers portrayed in the phrase “hapless Soldiers’ sigh”?
A
Their effort feels futile; their blood serves the Palace but changes nothing.
16
Q
(London) Identify the sound device in “Marks of weakness, marks of woe” and the quote’s meaning.
A
The alliteration of w and how you can see marks and signs of weakness and depression in everybody.
17
Q
(London) Beyond single words, how does Blake’s repetition of structure create meaning?
A
The unchanging rhythm and pattern evoke monotony and inescapable oppression.
18
Q
(London) Explain how both instances of “chartered” demonstrate the theme of control.
A
The legalistic word shows people’s movements and environment are mapped, owned, monetised and how even nature is marked and clasped in the government’s control.
19
Q
(London) Summarise Blake’s message in one sentence.
A
London is trapped in a man-made cycle where institutions chain both body and mind, erasing genuine freedom or joy.
20
Q
(London) How did the historical moment in which Blake lived and wrote “London” shape the poem’s content and tone?
A
Written in 1794, when the Industrial Revolution darkened cities and post-Revolution fears tightened authority, Blake channels urban poverty, child labour, and institutional hypocrisy into his bleak vision of London.
21
Q
(Tyger) What distinctive, pounding beat drives the poem and makes each line feel like a smith’s hammer‑strike or a predator’s prowl?
A
A heavy trochaic rhythm (stressed–unstressed) that echoes forging and stalking.
22
Q
(Tyger) Why does Blake spell the creature “Tyger” instead of the modern “Tiger”?
A
The archaic spelling makes it mythic, timeless and slightly uncanny.
23
Q
(Tyger) Explain the metaphor “Tyger Tyger, burning bright.”
A
Likens the animal’s fiery stripes/eyes to living flames, announcing its fierce brilliance.
24
Q
(Tyger) What two‑word phrase captures the beast’s perfect yet terrifying balance of power and beauty?
A
“Fearful symmetry.”
25
(Tyger) Which innocent animal is invoked later to sharpen the central theological paradox?
The Lamb (“Did he who made the Lamb make thee?”).
26
(Tyger) Name two forge‑tools Blake lists and state their effect.
“Hammer,” “anvil,” “furnace,” “chain” – cast creation as violent metalwork on a cosmic scale.
27
(Tyger) How do the verbs “burnt,” “seize,” “twist,” “clasp” colour the act of creation?
They add force and danger, suggesting creation is daring—even reckless.
28
(Tyger) What repeated device (13 times) propels the poem’s sense of urgent inquiry?
Rhetorical questions.
29
(Tyger) Quote the cosmic image that shows even heaven recoiling from the Tyger.
“When the stars threw down their spears / And water’d heaven with their tears.”
30
(Tyger) Fire operates on two levels throughout the poem—name them.
Literal glow of the Tyger’s body and metaphorical forge‑fire of its creation/destructive potential.
31
(Tyger) What troubling question about the creator’s attitude appears in stanza 5?
“Did he smile his work to see?”—wondering if the maker delights in danger.
32
(Tyger) Which adjective, twice paired with body parts (“hand,” “grasp,” “feet”), intensifies menace?
“Dread.”
33
(Tyger) In which 1794 collection was the poem published, and what companion book provides its foil?
Songs of Experience, set against Songs of Innocence.
34
(Tyger) State the poem’s final punctuation mark and explain its effect.
A question mark—leaves the mystery unresolved.
35
(Tyger) According to class notes, why isn’t the Tyger labelled “evil”?
It is simply powerful and lethal; moral judgment is a human construct.
36
(Tyger) What big moral dilemma does the poem pose about divine responsibility?
Whether it is justifiable to create a being with such overwhelming destructive power.
37
(Tyger) The student calls the poem “primordial.” What core theme justifies that label?
It probes origins—how life, good and terror arise at creation’s dawn.
38
(Tyger) How does the poem’s chant‑like repetition of the opening stanza at the end function?
Creates a circular structure, showing the speaker’s awe remains unanswered.
39
(Tyger) Give one reason the poem feels “vivid” or “real,” according to the notes.
Concrete sensory imagery + pounding rhythm make the Tyger almost tangible.
40
(Tyger) Summarise Blake’s central paradox in a single clause.
A single creator forges both innocent gentleness (Lamb) and awe‑inspiring danger (Tyger).
41
What is the basic unit of matter?
Atom
42
True or False: Atoms are made up of protons, neutrons, and electrons.
True
43
Fill in the blank: The center of an atom is called the ______.
nucleus
44
What charge do protons have?
Positive charge
45
What is the charge of electrons?
Negative charge
46
Which subatomic particle has no charge?
Neutron
47
What is the term for a substance made of only one type of atom?
Element
48
True or False: A compound is made up of two or more different types of atoms chemically bonded together.
True
49
What is the chemical formula for water?
H2O
50
What do we call a mixture that is uniform throughout?
Homogeneous mixture
51
What is an example of a heterogeneous mixture?
Any clunky and uneven mixture
52
What is the process of a solid turning directly into a gas called?
Sublimation
53
What is the pH range of acids?
Less than 7
54
What is the pH range of bases?
Greater than 7
55
True or False: Neutral substances have a pH of 7.
True
56
What is the law that states matter cannot be created or destroyed?
Law of Conservation of Mass
57
What is the process of a liquid turning into a gas called?
Evaporation
58
What do we call a chemical reaction that absorbs heat?
Endothermic reaction
59
What do we call a chemical reaction that releases heat?
Exothermic reaction
60
Fill in the blank: The periodic table organizes elements based on their ______.
atomic number
61
What information does the atomic number of an element provide?
Number of protons in the nucleus
62
What are vertical columns in the periodic table called?
Groups or families
63
What are horizontal rows in the periodic table called?
Periods
64
Which group of elements is known as the noble gases?
Group 18
65
True or False: Metals are typically good conductors of electricity.
True
66
What is the main characteristic of nonmetals?
They are poor conductors of heat and electricity.
67
What is the term for a chemical bond formed by the sharing of electrons?
Covalent bond
68
What is the term for a chemical bond formed by the transfer of electrons?
Ionic bond
69
Fill in the blank: A solution is made when a solute is dissolved in a ______.
solvent
70
What is the most common solvent?
Water
71
What is concentration in a solution?
The amount of solute in a given volume of solvent.
72
What do we call a change in a substance that does not change its chemical composition?
Physical change
73
What is a chemical change?
A change that results in the formation of new substances.
74
True or False: Rusting is an example of a chemical change.
True
75
What is the main purpose of a catalyst in a chemical reaction?
To speed up the reaction without being consumed.
76
What is the unit of measurement for mass in the metric system?
Gram
77
What is the unit of measurement for volume in the metric system?
Liter
78
Fill in the blank: The temperature at which a solid becomes a liquid is called the ______.
melting point
79
What is the temperature at which a liquid becomes a gas called?
Boiling point
80
What do we call the process of separating a mixture using a filter?
Filtration
81
What is chromatography used for?
To separate mixtures based on different affinities.
82
What is the main focus of chemistry?
The study of matter and its interactions.
83
What is particle theory?
Particle theory states that matter is made up of tiny particles that are in constant motion.
84
True or False: In particle theory, all particles are identical.
False: Different substances have different types of particles.
85
Fill in the blank: The three states of matter are solid, liquid, gas but is there a fourth and if so what is it .
Plasma is also counted as a state of matter
86
What happens to particles in a solid?
In a solid, particles are closely packed together and vibrate in fixed positions.
87
Which state of matter has a definite shape and volume?
Solid
88
What is the main difference between liquids and gases in terms of particle arrangement?
In liquids, particles are close together but can flow, while in gases, particles are far apart and move freely.
89
True or False: Heating a substance generally causes its particles to move faster.
True
90
What is diffusion?
Diffusion is the process where particles spread from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration through a partially permeable membrane.
91
Multiple Choice: Which state of matter has the least energy in its particles? A) Solid B) Liquid C) Gas
A) Solid
92
What happens to the spacing of particles when a substance melts?
When a substance melts, the particles gain energy and move further apart.
93
Fill in the blank: In gases, particles move _____ and are _____ apart.
randomly; far
94
What is the term for a change from gas to liquid?
Condensation
95
True or False: The particle theory can explain why ice floats on water.
True
96
What does increasing the temperature of a gas do to its pressure (assuming volume is constant)?
Increasing the temperature increases the pressure of the gas.
97
Multiple Choice: Which of the following is NOT a state of matter? A) Plasma B) Liquid C) Vapour
C) Vapour
98
What are the symbols for each state of matter
G (gas), L (liquid), S (solid), P (plasma)
99
What is an aqueous substance.
A solid dissolved in a liquid
100
What is the name of the change from gas to solid.
Deposition
101
What is the basic unit of life?
Cell
102
True or False: All living organisms are made of cells.
True
103
Fill in the blank: Plant cells have a _____ that provides structure and support.
cell wall
104
Which organelle is responsible for respiration in both animal and plant cells?
Mitochondria
105
What is the function of the chloroplast in plant cells?
Photosynthesis
106
Multiple Choice: Which of the following is NOT a component of a plant or animal cell? A) Nucleus B) Ribosome C) Slime coat D) Cytoplasm
C
107
True or False: Both plant and animal cells contain a nucleus.
True
108
What is the jelly-like substance inside the cell called?
Cytoplasm
109
Fill in the blank: The _____ is the control center of the cell.
nucleus
110
What structure regulates the movement of substances in and out of the cell?
Cell membrane
111
Short Answer: What is one key difference between plant and animal cells regarding storage?
Plant cells have large central vacuoles for storage.
112
Multiple Choice: Which of the following is a function of the cell membrane? A) Energy production B) Protein synthesis C) Selective permeability D) Photosynthesis
C) Selective permeability
113
True or False: Ribosomes are involved in protein synthesis in both animal and plant cells.
True
114
What is the primary function of a light microscope?
To magnify small objects for detailed observation.
115
True or False: The eyepiece lens is used to focus the image in a light microscope.
False
116
Fill in the blank: The __________ is the part of the microscope that holds the slides in place.
stage
117
Which part of the microscope is responsible for directing light towards the specimen?
condenser
118
What is the typical magnification range of a light microscope?
40x to 1000x
119
Multiple Choice: Which of the following parts adjusts the amount of light reaching the specimen? A) Objective Lens B) Diaphragm C) Stage D) Base
B) Diaphragm
120
What is the purpose of the objective lenses in a light microscope?
To provide different levels of magnification.
121
True or False: The light source in a light microscope can be a mirror or an electric bulb.
True
122
What is the role of the coarse focus knob?
To make large adjustments to the focus of the specimen.
123
Fill in the blank: The __________ is the part of the microscope you look through.
eyepiece
124
What are the seven life processes?
Movement, respiration, sensitivity, growth, reproduction, excretion, and nutrition.
125
True or False: All living organisms exhibit all seven life processes.
True
126
Fill in the blank: The process by which living organisms obtain energy from food is called __________.
respiration
127
What is cell specialization?
The process by which cells develop into distinct types with specific functions.
128
Which type of cell is specialized for transporting oxygen in the blood?
Red blood cell
129
Multiple choice: Which of the following is NOT a life process? A) Growth B) Digestion C) Photosynthesis D) Excretion
C) Photosynthesis
130
What type of cell is responsible for transmitting nerve impulses?
Nerve cell (neuron)
131
True or False: Muscle cells are specialized for contraction and movement.
True
132
Fill in the blank: Plants use __________ to convert sunlight into energy.
photosynthesis
133
What is the primary function of white blood cells?
To fight infection and protect the body.
134
What is the function of root hair cells in plants?
To absorb water and minerals from the soil.
135
True or False: All cells in an organism have the same structure and function.
False
136
Fill in the blank: The life process that involves the removal of waste products is called __________.
excretion
137
What is the basic unit of life?
Cell
138
True or False: All living organisms are made up of cells.
True
139
Fill in the blank: The process by which cells divide to form new cells is called _______.
Cell division / mitosis
140
What are the two main types of cells?
Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic (with and without a nucleus)
141
Which part of the flower is responsible for reproduction?
The reproductive structures (stamens and pistils)
142
What is the function of the stamen in a flower?
To produce pollen
143
Multiple choice: Which part of the flower attracts pollinators? A) Sepals B) Petals C) Stamen D) Ovary
B) Petals
144
What is the role of the ovary in a flower?
To contain the ovules and develop into fruit after fertilization
145
True or False: Chloroplasts are found in animal cells.
False
146
What is the function of chloroplasts?
To conduct photosynthesis
147
Fill in the blank: The outer protective layer of a flower is called the _______.
Sepal
148
What is the main function of the roots in a plant?
To anchor the plant and absorb water and nutrients
149
Multiple choice: Which structure in a flower develops into seeds? A) Stigma B) Ovule C) Anther D) Petal
B) Ovule
150
What is the function of the xylem in vascular plants?
To transport water and minerals from the roots to the rest of the plant
151
True or False: The pistil is the female reproductive part of the flower.
True
152
What is photosynthesis?
The process by which green plants use sunlight to make food from carbon dioxide and water
153
Fill in the blank: The tissue responsible for transporting food in plants is called _______.
Phloem
154
What are the two main functions of petals ?
Reproduction and attracting pollinators
155
Multiple choice: Which part of the flower contains the pollen? A) Ovary B) Stigma C) Anther D) Style
C) Anther
156
What is the importance of pollination in flowering plants?
It allows for fertilization and the production of seeds
157
What is the order of cells
Cells, tissues, muscles, organs, organ systems, organism
158
Aimer
to like
159
Asseyez-vous
Sit
160
au bord de la mer
by the seaside
161
au Canada
Canada
162
au Pakistan
Pakistan
163
au Pays de Galles
Wales
164
au Portugal
Portugal
165
au Sénégal
Senegal
166
à la campagne
in the countryside
167
Aujourd'hui c'est
The date is
168
aussi
as well/also
169
Baissez le doigt
Hand down
170
Bleu
blue
171
Bonjour
hello
172
Bonne nuit
good night
173
Bonsoir
good evening
174
Brun
brown
175
cependant
however
176
Chanter
to sing
177
Cliquer
to click
178
Comment ça s'écrit?
How do you spell it?
179
Comment ça va?
how are you?
180
Comme ci comme ça
so-so
181
Comptez
count
182
Copiez
copy
183
Croisez les bras
cross your arms
184
Dans l'est
in the east
185
Dans le nord
in the north
186
Dans le sud
in the south
187
Dans l'ouest
in the west
188
Dans une maison individuelle
detached house
189
Dessiner
to draw
190
Deux
2
191
Dimanche
Sunday
192
Dix
10
193
Dix-sept
17
194
Douze
12
195
Écrivez
write
196
Écoutez
Listen
197
En Algérie
Algeria
198
En Allemagne
Germany
199
En Angleterre
England
200
En Écosse
Scotland
201
En Espagne
Spain
202
En France
France
203
En Inde
India
204
En Irlande
Ireland
205
En Italie
Italy
206
en général
in general
207
et
and
208
fait (maths)
equals
209
Gris
grey
210
Habiter
to live
211
Huit
8
212
Il fait beau
It's good/nice
213
Il fait chaud
It's hot
214
Il fait froid
It's cold
215
Il fait mauvais
It's bad
216
Il neige
It's snowing
217
Il pleut
It's raining
218
Il y a du brouillard
It's foggy
219
Il y a du soleil
It's sunny
220
Il y a du vent
It's windy
221
Jaune
yellow
222
J'adore
I love
223
J'aime
I like
224
J'aime beaucoup
I like a lot
225
J'ai 11 ans
I am 11 years old
226
Je déteste
I detest
227
Je m'appelle
my name is
228
Je n'aime pas
I don't like
229
Je suis
I am
230
Jeudi
Thursday
231
Jouer
to play
232
L'automne
autumn
233
La belle-mère
the step mother
234
La cousine
the female cousin
235
La demi-sœur
the step sister
236
La famille
the family
237
La fille
the daughter
238
La grand-mère
the grandmother
239
La mère
the mother
240
La semaine
the week
241
La sœur
the sister
242
La tante
the aunt
243
Le basket
basketball
244
Le beau-père
the step father
245
Le cousin
the male cousin
246
Le demi-frère
the step brother
247
Le fils
the son
248
Le football
football / soccer
249
Le frère
the brother
250
Le grand-père
the grandfather
251
Le hockey
hockey
252
Le père
the father
253
Le printemps
spring
254
Le rugby
rugby
255
Le tennis
tennis
256
Le plus
plus
257
Le moins
minus
258
Levez le doigt
Hand up
259
Levez-vous
Stand
260
Lisez
read
261
L'oncle
the uncle
262
L'été
summer
263
L'hiver
winter
264
Lundi
Monday
265
mais
but
266
Merci
thank you
267
moins
minus
268
Neuf
9
269
Noir
black
270
Non
no
271
Orange
orange
272
Oui
yes
273
plus
plus
274
Porter
to wear
275
Quand
when
276
Quel âge as-tu?
how old are you?
277
Quelle est la date aujourd'hui?
What's the date?
278
Quel temps fait-il?
What's the weather?
279
Quarante
40
280
Quarante-quatre
44
281
Quatre
4
282
Quatre-vingt-dix
90
283
Quatre-vingt-deux
82
284
Quatre-vingt-onze
91
285
Quatre-vingt-treize
93
286
Quatre-vingt-un
81
287
Quatre-vingts
80
288
Regardez
Watch
289
Répétez
repeat
290
Rose
pink
291
Rouge
red
292
Samedi
Saturday
293
Seize
16
294
Sept
7
295
Silence
Silence
296
Six
6
297
Soixante
60
298
Soixante et un
61
299
Soixante et onze
71
300
Soixante-dix
70
301
Soixante-dix-neuf
79
302
Soixante-neuf
69
303
souvent
often
304
Travaillez à deux
work in pairs
305
Travailler
to work
306
Trente
30
307
Trente et un
31
308
Trente-neuf
39
309
Trois
3
310
Un
1
311
Un jour
a day
312
Une maison jumelée
semi-detached house
313
Une maison mitoyenne
terraced house
314
Vendredi
Friday
315
Vendredi le 4 avril
Friday the 4th of April
316
Vert
green
317
Vingt
20
318
Vingt-cinq
25
319
Name a good electrical insulator.
Plastic.
320
Why are wires covered in plastic?
To insulate them and prevent electric shocks.
321
In a series circuit, how does current flow?
The same current flows through all components.
322
What happens if one component breaks in a series circuit?
The whole circuit stops working.
323
In a parallel circuit, how does current flow?
It splits across branches and recombines.
324
What happens if one component breaks in a parallel circuit?
Other parts of the circuit still work.
325
Which type of circuit is used in homes?
Parallel circuits.
326
What is a force?
A push or a pull on an object.
327
Name a contact force.
Friction.
328
Name a non-contact force.
Gravity.
329
What does friction do?
It slows down or stops motion.
330
What does air resistance affect?
Moving objects through air.
331
What is mass?
The amount of matter in an object.
332
What is weight?
The force of gravity acting on an object’s mass.
333
What unit is mass measured in?
Kilograms (kg).
334
What unit is weight measured in?
Newtons (N).
335
Why does weight change but mass doesn't?
Because weight depends on gravity, which varies.
336
What does a force diagram show?
All the forces acting on an object.
337
How are forces represented in diagrams?
With arrows.
338
What does the length of a force arrow show?
The size (magnitude) of the force.
339
What does the direction of a force arrow show?
The direction in which the force is acting.
340
What does it mean if arrows are equal and opposite?
The forces are balanced.
341
What is the equation for speed?
Speed = Distance ÷ Time.
342
What is the equation for distance?
Distance = Speed × Time.
343
What is the equation for time?
Time = Distance ÷ Speed.
344
What is the unit for speed?
Metres per second (m/s).
345
If a car travels 100m in 20s, what is its speed?
5 m/s.
346
What does a straight, sloping line on a distance-time graph mean?
Constant speed.
347
What does a flat line on a distance-time graph mean?
The object is stationary.
348
What does a steep line on a distance-time graph mean?
Faster speed.
349
What does a downward sloping line on a distance-time graph mean?
Returning to the start.
350
How do you find speed on a distance-time graph?
Divide distance by time (gradient).
351
What are balanced forces?
Forces that are equal in size and opposite in direction.
352
What happens to an object if forces are balanced?
It stays still or moves at constant speed.
353
What are unbalanced forces?
Forces that are not equal.
354
What do unbalanced forces cause?
A change in speed or direction.
355
How can you tell if forces are unbalanced on a diagram?
Arrows are unequal.
356
What is the Sun?
A star at the centre of our solar system.
357
How many planets orbit the Sun?
Eight.
358
Name the four rocky (inner) planets.
Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars.
359
Name the four gas giants.
Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune.
360
What keeps planets in orbit around the Sun?
Gravity.
361
What causes phases of the Moon?
The Moon’s position relative to the Earth and Sun.
362
What is a new moon?
When the Moon is between Earth and Sun and appears dark.
363
What is a full moon?
When Earth is between the Moon and the Sun.
364
What is a solar eclipse?
When the Moon blocks the Sun.
365
What is a lunar eclipse?
When the Earth blocks sunlight from reaching the Moon.
366
What causes day and night?
Earth's rotation on its axis.
367
How long does one full rotation take?
24 hours.
368
What causes seasons?
The tilt of Earth's axis as it orbits the Sun.
369
When is it summer in the UK?
When the North Pole is tilted towards the Sun.
370
When is it winter in the UK?
When the North Pole is tilted away from the Sun.
371
What is static electricity?
A build-up of electric charge on the surface of an object.
372
How is static electricity created?
By rubbing two insulating materials together.
373
What type of charge do electrons have?
Negative.
374
What happens when two objects with the same charge meet?
They repel each other.
375
What happens when a charged object is brought near an uncharged object?
It can attract the uncharged object.
376
What is a conductor?
A material that allows electric current to flow through it easily.
377
Name a good electrical conductor.
Copper.
378
What is an insulator?
A material that does not allow electricity to pass through easily.
379
Name a good electrical insulator.
Plastic.
380
What is gravity?
A force that attracts objects towards each other.
381
Who discovered gravity?
Isaac Newton.
382
What happens to gravitational force with distance?
It gets weaker.
383
What object has the strongest gravity in our solar system?
The Sun.
384
Why do astronauts float in space?
Because they are in free fall around the Earth.
385
What is terminal velocity?
The fastest speed a falling object can reach.
386
What is air resistance?
A force that opposes motion through air.
387
What affects air resistance?
Shape, size, and speed of an object.
388
Why do parachutes slow people down?
They increase air resistance.
389
How does mass affect falling speed in a vacuum?
All objects fall at the same rate.
390
What happens when forces are balanced on a moving object?
It keeps moving at the same speed.
391
What happens when forces are unbalanced on a still object?
It starts to move.
392
What is a resultant force?
A single force that has the same effect as all forces combined.
393
How do you calculate resultant force?
Add forces in the same direction, subtract if opposite.
394
What does a bigger resultant force cause?
More acceleration.
395
What is acceleration?
A change in speed or direction.
396
What is deceleration?
A decrease in speed.
397
What is friction caused by?
Surfaces rubbing together.
398
How can friction be reduced?
Use lubricants or smoother surfaces.
399
Why is friction useful?
It helps us to walk and stop vehicles.
400
Who was king of England at the start of 1066?
Edward the Confessor.
401
Why was there a succession crisis in 1066?
Edward died without a clear heir.
402
Name the three main claimants to the throne in 1066.
Harold Godwinson, William of Normandy, Harald Hardrada.
403
Why did Harold Godwinson become king?
He was chosen by the Witan after Edward's death.
404
What was the Witan?
A council of nobles who advised the king.
405
What did William of Normandy claim Edward had promised him?
The throne of England.
406
Why did Harald Hardrada believe he should be king?
He claimed a deal had been made with a previous Viking king.
407
What happened at the Battle of Fulford?
The Vikings defeated the English forces in the north.
408
What happened at the Battle of Stamford Bridge?
Harold Godwinson defeated and killed Harald Hardrada.
409
What impact did the Battle of Stamford Bridge have on Harold's army?
They were tired and had to march south quickly to face William.
410
When was the Battle of Hastings?
14 October 1066.
411
Where did the Battle of Hastings take place?
Near Hastings, at Senlac Hill.
412
Why did William win the Battle of Hastings?
He used better tactics, including a feigned retreat.
413
What mistake did Harold make during the battle?
He kept his army at the top of the hill and did not wait for reinforcements.
414
What happened to Harold Godwinson in the battle?
He was killed, possibly shot in the eye.
415
What were the main differences between Harold's and William's armies?
Harold had mainly foot soldiers; William had cavalry and archers.
416
What was a feigned retreat?
A tactic where soldiers pretended to run away to trick the enemy.
417
What role did luck play in William’s victory?
Bad weather delayed William, giving Harold time to fight the Vikings.
418
What role did the Pope play in the Battle of Hastings?
He supported William's claim, giving him a papal banner.
419
What did William do after winning the battle?
He marched to London and was crowned king.
420
How did William keep control of England?
He built castles and introduced the feudal system.
421
What was the feudal system?
A system of land ownership where loyalty was exchanged for land.
422
What was the Domesday Book?
A survey ordered by William to assess land and taxes.
423
Why did William build castles?
To show power and defend against rebellion.
424
What was the Harrying of the North?
A brutal campaign where William destroyed northern villages.
425
How did the Church help William rule?
The Church supported his authority and spread Norman ideas.
426
What happened to Anglo-Saxon lords after the conquest?
They lost land and were replaced by Normans.
427
What language became common among the ruling class? (History 1066)
Norman French.
428
How did the Normans change English law?
They introduced new legal systems and trial by combat.
429
How did the conquest affect ordinary peasants?
They faced stricter control and higher taxes.
430
What is meant by the Divine Right of Kings?
The belief that kings were chosen by God.
431
What is excommunication?
Being banned from the Church and sacraments.
432
Why was the Church powerful in medieval England?
It owned land, educated people, and could control kings.
433
How could the Church challenge a king's authority?
By excommunicating him or refusing to follow his orders.
434
Why did kings need the support of the Church?
To gain legitimacy and control over the people.
435
What did the Church provide in society?
Education, healthcare, and religious guidance.
436
Why did some kings argue with the Pope?
They wanted to appoint their own church leaders.
437
What is meant by 'papal supremacy'?
The belief that the Pope had authority over all Christians.
438
Why was King John unpopular with the barons?
He raised taxes and ignored their advice.
439
What land did King John lose in France?
Normandy and other territories.
440
Why did King John argue with the Pope?
He refused to accept the Pope's choice of Archbishop.
441
What did the Pope do to punish King John?
He excommunicated him.
442
When was Magna Carta signed?
1215
443
What was the purpose of Magna Carta?
To limit the king’s power and protect barons’ rights.
444
Name one clause from Magna Carta.
The king could not raise taxes without the barons’ consent.
445
Why did the barons rebel against King John?
They were angry about high taxes and loss of land.
446
What is the long-term significance of Magna Carta?
It influenced the development of democracy and rule of law.
447
What is trial by combat?
A way of settling disputes by fighting, introduced by Normans.
448
Why did William replace English bishops with Normans?
To make the Church more loyal to him.
449
Why were motte and bailey castles quick to build?
They were made from wood and earth.
450
What was the purpose of a keep in a Norman castle?
To provide defence and a home for the lord.
451
What is homage in the feudal system?
A public show of loyalty to a lord or king.
452
Why did William fear rebellion in the north?
It supported Edgar Aetheling and resisted Norman control.
453
What was the result of the Harrying of the North?
Towns and crops were destroyed, causing famine.
454
Why did William introduce the Domesday Book?
To know who owned what for taxing and controlling land.
455
How did Norman castles change over time?
They became stone castles for better defence.
456
Why did the Church support William’s right to rule?
They believed his claim was backed by God and the Pope.
457
What are clouds?
Clouds are tiny water droplets or ice crystals suspended in the air.
458
Name three main types of clouds.
Cumulus stratus cirrus.
459
What are air masses?
Large bodies of air with similar temperature and humidity.
460
Name four main types of air masses.
Tropical continental tropical maritime polar continental polar maritime.
461
What is coastal management?
Strategies to protect the coastline from erosion and flooding.
462
Give one hard and one soft engineering method.
Hard: sea wall; Soft: beach nourishment.
463
What is longshore drift?
The movement of sediment along the coast by wave action.
464
Name one landform created by deposition.
Spit.
465
Name two landforms created by coastal erosion.
Headlands and bays arches.
466
Name four coastal erosion processes.
Hydraulic action abrasion attrition solution.
467
What is qualitative data?
Descriptive data (e.g. photos opinions).
468
What is quantitative data?
Numerical data (e.g. temperature population).
469
What are settlements?
Places where people live and establish a community.
470
Name three types of settlement patterns.
Linear nucleated dispersed.
471
What does the Hoyt model describe?
Urban land use arranged in sectors from the city centre.
472
What does the Burgess model show?
Urban land use in concentric rings (CBD in the centre).
473
What is a physical landscape?
Natural features like rivers mountains coasts.
474
What is a human landscape?
Man-made features like buildings roads cities.
475
What is meant by distribution in geography?
The way something is spread out over an area.
476
What is a choropleth map?
A map that uses different shades or colours to show data density or values.
477
Why are motorways important in geography?
They improve transport connect cities and support economic activity.
478
What is a 4-figure grid reference used for?
To locate a specific square on a map.
479
What is a 6-figure grid reference used for?
To locate an exact point within a grid square on a map.
480
How do you read a grid reference?
Go along the corridor (eastings) then up the stairs (northings).
481
What are map symbols?
Pictures or icons used to represent real-world features on a map.
482
Where can you find the meanings of map symbols?
In the map key or legend.
483
What is relief on a map?
The height and shape of the land shown using contour lines or shading.
484
What do close contour lines mean?
Steep slope.
485
What do wide contour lines mean?
Gentle slope.
486
What does EQ stand for in geography fieldwork?
Environmental Quality Survey – a method to assess how good or poor an environment is.
487
How is an Environmental Quality Survey carried out?
By scoring different aspects of a place (e.g. noise litter greenery) using a rating scale.
488
Why are EQ surveys useful?
They help compare the quality of different environments and identify areas for improvement.
489
What is coastal erosion?
The wearing away of land by the sea.
490
Name three types of coastal erosion.
Hydraulic action abrasion attrition.
491
How are caves formed?
Waves erode cracks in the headland enlarging them into caves.
492
How are arches formed?
Caves break through a headland to form an arch.
493
What happens after an arch collapses?
It leaves a stack which may later become a stump.
494
Name one famous example of a coastal arch.
Durdle Door on the Jurassic Coast.
495
Why does erosion happen faster on some coasts?
Because of soft rock strong waves or lack of protection.
496
How can human activity increase coastal erosion?
Building too close to the edge or removing natural barriers like dunes.
497
What is hydraulic action?
The force of water hitting the coastline and breaking rocks apart.
498
What is abrasion?
Rocks being thrown at cliffs wearing them away.
499
What is attrition?
Rocks hitting each other and breaking into smaller smoother pieces.
500
What is solution (in erosion)?
Chemicals in the water dissolving certain types of rocks.
501
Name a feature formed by longshore drift.
Spit.
502
What is a tombolo?
A spit that connects the mainland to an island.
503
What is a bar?
A spit that grows across a bay trapping water behind it.
504
What is beach nourishment?
Adding sand or shingle to a beach to make it higher or wider.
505
What is a groyne?
A wooden or stone barrier built at right angles to the beach to reduce longshore drift.
506
What is a sea wall?
A concrete wall built to reflect waves and prevent erosion.
507
What is managed retreat?
Allowing certain areas of the coast to flood naturally.
508
Name a type of soft engineering.
Dune regeneration.
509
What are prevailing winds?
Winds that blow most often in a particular direction.
510
How do waves form?
Waves are formed by the wind blowing across the surface of the sea.
511
What are constructive waves?
Waves that build up beaches with strong swash and weak backwash.
512
What are destructive waves?
Waves that erode the coast with strong backwash and weak swash.
513
What is weathering?
The breakdown of rocks in situ by weather conditions.
514
What is erosion?
The wearing away and removal of rock by natural forces.
515
What is transportation in rivers or coasts?
The movement of sediment from one place to another.
516
What is deposition?
The laying down of material carried by rivers wind or waves.
517
What is a headland?
A piece of land that juts out into the sea and is made of harder rock.
518
What is a bay?
An area of softer rock eroded more quickly than headlands.
519
What is a cave in coastal erosion?
A hollowed-out area in a cliff formed by wave action.
520
What is an arch?
A curved opening formed when caves on both sides of a headland meet.
521
What is a stack?
A tall rock left standing after an arch collapses.
522
What is a stump?
A small rock left after a stack is eroded.
523
What is urbanisation?
The growth of towns and cities.
524
Name a human feature on a map.
Roads railways buildings.
525
Name a physical feature on a map.
Rivers hills forests.
526
What are the cardinal directions?
North South East West.
527
What are contour lines?
Lines that show elevation and the shape of the land.
528
What is the difference between weather and climate?
Weather is short-term atmospheric conditions; climate is long-term average weather.
529
Name a renewable energy source.
Solar power.
530
Name a non-renewable energy source.
Coal.
531
What is deforestation?
The removal of large areas of forest.
532
Why is plastic pollution a global issue?
It affects oceans wildlife and food chains across the planet.
533
What is a primary industry?
An industry that extracts natural resources (e.g. farming mining).
534
What is a secondary industry?
An industry that manufactures goods from raw materials.
535
What is a tertiary industry?
An industry that provides services (e.g. teaching retail).
536
How do humans use coasts?
For housing, tourism, fishing, and industry.
537
What is a floodplain?
Flat land near a river that is likely to flood.
538
Why are some coastlines more at risk than others?
Due to geology, wave energy, human activity, and lack of defences.
