Alpacas Flashcards

The basics (99 cards)

1
Q

TPR

A
  • Temp: 37.5-38.9C
  • RR: 1-30brpm
  • HR: 60-90bpm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Points for distant observation/exam

A
  • Stand and walk with straight or slight dorsal curve to spine
  • excessive hunching: lameness or skeletal or abdominal pain
  • Respiratory pattern: even and without effort
  • Abdomen: full but not distended
    gaunt/tucked up: anorexia
  • Body contour: smooth, no lumps or bumps
  • Perineum: clean, no discharge
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

MM examination
(where? colour? crt? peripheral perfusion?)

A
  • Oral (Only when sedated), Vuvla, Ocular
  • Pale pink and moist
    CRT <2seconds
  • Peripheral perfusion: distal extremity temperature – ears, feet and legs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What can mm changes indicate?

A
  • toxaemia
  • cyanosis
  • jaundice
  • anaemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

MM changes indicating septicaemia

A
  • petechial haemorrhage +/- injected scleral blood vessels
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What vaccination should alpacas receive?

A
  • clostridial
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Clostridial vaccine course

A
  • primary vaccine: 2 injections 3-6w apart
  • annually
  • boosters before surgery if annual injection >6m and pregnant animals 4-6w before unpacking
  • give to cries that have good passive transfer at 2-3m/o
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Examples of clostridial vaccines

A
  • lambivac
  • heptovac
  • bravoxin
  • covexin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

GIT of alpacas

A
  • pseudo-ruminants
  • 3 compartments
    – C1, C2 (reticulum) & C3 (abomasum)
  • spiral colon
    – flat, single spiral
    – obstructions possible at the junction where the centripetal loop becomes centrifugal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Dentition of alpacas

A
  • growth stops after castration
  • incisors grow continuously and have an open pulp cavity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Why is tooth removal difficult?

A
  • deep, curved roots
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

GIT condition examples

A
  • mandibular abscess
  • osteomyelitis/lumpy jaw
  • hepatic lipidosis
  • megaoesophagus
  • gastric atony
  • d+
  • gastric ulceration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Mandibular abscess - which teeth are affected?

A
  • pre molars / 1st and 2nd molars
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Mandibular abscess - CS

A
  • lateral swelling +/- draining tract
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Mandibular abscess - tx

A
  • tooth extraction required
    – lateral incision over the teeth
    – split tooth
    – divergent roots, repel tooth into oral cavity
    – done under GA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Osteomyelitis/lumpy jaw - CS

A
  • drooling
  • weight loss
  • ill thrift
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Osteomyelitis/lumpy jaw - diagnosis

A
  • radiographs/CT/MRI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Hepatic lipidosis - which animals?

A
  • all ages
  • esp pregnant and lactating females, and anorexic animals
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Hepatic lipidosis - diagnosis

A
  • increased serum triglycerides and lipids
  • US changes in liver echogenicity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Hepatic lipidosis - tx

A
  • supportive tx e.g. fluids
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Megaoesophagus - CS

A
  • Weight loss
  • Regurgitation
  • Hypersalivation
  • Frothing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Megaoesophagus - diagnosid

A
  • barium contrast study
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Megaoesophagus - tx/management

A
  • diet changes
    – easy swallowing and feeding from an elevated surface
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Gastric atony - CS

A
  • anorexia
  • loss in BCS
  • depression
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Gastric atony - tx
- fluids - if anorexic for 3-5d, death of bacteria and protozoa in C1&2 -> requires transfaunation
26
Causes of d+ in adults
- feed changes - eosinophilic enteritis - eimeria - mycobacterium paratuberculosis - parasites
27
Is mycobacterium paratuberculosis in alpacas fatal?
- yes
28
Causes of d+ in cria
- milk scour - diet change - rotavirus - coronavirus - cryptosporidium - e.coli - eimeria (around weaning -> stress induced) - giardia - yersinia pseudotuberculosis - salmonella
29
Why can diet change in cria be a problem?
- can lead to a blockage of the spiral colon and colic
30
D+ tx
- fluids - electrolyte replacement - antibiotics - NSAIDs
31
Where in alpacas does gastric ulceration occur?
- C3 & proximal duodenum
32
CS of gastric ulceration
- anorexia - colic - bruxism - depression
33
Gastric ulceration tx
- IV pantoprazole or omeprazole to increase C3 pH - +/- blood transfusion
34
Tx of vitamin D deficiency - when and what with?
- oral paste - injectable - young animals: --3 doses: November, January, March - all ages -- November - pregnant females -- 2 doses: January & November
35
How to improve bonding after unpacking
- minimal handling
36
What should the weight gain of a cria be at 1 month old?
- double birth weight
37
Navel dipping routine post-unpacking
- navel dipping daily with chlorhexidine until dry
38
Cria TPR + weight
- weight 7-11kg - HR 60-100bpm - RR 30brpm - temp 37.8
39
How much colostrum should cries ingest within 12-24h?
- 10-15% BWT (ideally within 12h)
40
What IgG (g/dl) would indicate FPT at 18-24h?
- <5.5g/dl
41
Tx of FPT
- 1 unit of plasma (300ml) taken from an older vaccinated male from the same herd if possible
42
CS of FPT
- dull and depressed - unable to stand - no suckle reflex - hypothermia - septicaemia - d+
43
Congenital abnormalities examples
- choanal atresia - umbilical hernia - VSD - segmental aplasia - atresia ani/coli - syndactyly/polydactyly - angular limb deformities - prematurity - wry nose/face - blue eyed deafness - juvenile cataracts - blocked nasolacrimal ducts - tail defects
44
Examples of female congenital urogenital abnormalities
- uterus unicornis - hypoplastic ovaries - double cervices - segmental aplasia of vagina/uterus - clitoral hypertrophy - unilateral kidney / no kidneys
45
Examples of male congenital urogenital abnormalities
- hypospadias - retained testicles - testicular hypoplasia - persistent frenulum - ectopic testicles - corkscrew penis
46
Which is the most common congenital abnormality? Describe it
Choanal atresia - uni or bilateral - partial or complete blockage - fatal as obligate nasal breather - respiratory distress, esp at nursing
47
Examples of angular limb deformities
- valgus/varus - arthrogryposis - tendon laxity
48
CS of prematurity
- domed head - floppy ears - excess foot periople - silky fur - failure to stand - poor suckle reflex - FPT
49
Wry nose/face
- <5 degree or >60 degree lateral deviation of the maxilla - mandible may able be affected
50
Pre-op considerations for castration
- clostridial vaccination - starve for 12h (regurgitation risk) - AB: penicillin - NSAIDs - LA into testicle after sedation
51
Sedation for castration
- triple stun IM -- xylazine 0.3-0.5mg/kg -- butorphanol 0.05-01mg/kg -- ketamine 3-5mg/kg
52
Closed castration technique
- Sterile clip and prep - 2 -3 cm incision over testicle parallel to median raphe on caudal ventral aspect of scrotum - Break down ligament using sterile swabs - Keep tunic closed - Break down ligament with swabs and remove any fascia - Three clamp method - Transfixation and encircling suture - Emasculation of spermatic cord - Check for heamorrhage - Leave scrotum open - Ensure no soft tissue is protruding from incision - Topical antibiotics and fly treatment when required
53
CS of endoparasites
- d+ - ill thrift - anaemia - malaise - death
54
Endoparasites examples
- nematodirus - haemonchus - liver fluke - coccidiosis - lung worm - cryptosporidium
55
What does liver fluke affect?
- the bile ducts
56
Liver fluke
= fasciola hepatica
57
Liver fluke shedding
- in faeces at 10-12d but not always seen
58
CS of liver fluke
- ill thrift - poor growth - death
59
Liver fluke diagnosis/biochem
- increased serum bile acids >25mcmol/l - ALP >121U/l - AST >235U/l
60
Why with liver fluke must you vaccinate for clostridial dz?
- increased risk of blacks disease (C. novyi)
61
Dermatological conditions
- copper deficiency - dorsal nasal alopecia - zinc responsive dermatosis - munge
62
CS & tx of copper defieicny
- depigmentation of fibre - wire texture - poor growth - predisposed to dz - dietary supplementation required
63
CS of dorsal nasal alopecia
- dermatitis on bridge of nose - scaled, hyperpigmentation, thickened
64
Dorsal nasal alopecia- other name
- dark nose syndrome
65
Which colour is dorsal nasal alopecia seen in?
- dark coloured animals
66
Cause of dorsal nasal alopecia
- burrowing mites
67
Diagnosis of dorsal nasal alopecia
- skin scrapes - biopsy
68
Tx of dorsal nasal alopecia
- parasite tx +/- steroids (topical or systemic)
69
Zinc responsive dermatosis - what is it?
- idiopathic hyperkeratosis
70
Zinc responsive dermatosis - age affected?
- any age
71
Zinc responsive dermatosis - CS
- non-pruritic papule with tightly adherent crust - less densely haired areas on perineum, ventral abdomen, inguinal region, medial thighs, axilla, medial forearms, face
72
Zinc responsive dermatosis - diagnosis
- skin biopsy
73
Zinc responsive dermatosis - tx
- oral zinc sulphate - topical zinc shampoos
74
Munge - CS
- severe dermatitis -- heavy, adherent, hyperketatotic crusts - paranasal/perioral regions
75
Munge tx
- tx secondary bacterial infection +/- mange
76
Munge - ddx
- viral contagious pustular dermatitis - dermatophilosis - dermatophytosis - bacterial dermatitis - immune-mediated dz
77
Ectoparasites
- Sarcoptes - Psoroptes - Chorioptes - Demodex - Biting Damalinia breviceps - Sucking Microthoracius cameli - ticks
78
CS of ectoparasites
- alopecia - hyperkeratosis - scaling - pruritis
79
Ectoparasites ddx
- zinc deficiency
80
Ectoparasites - diagnosis
- skin biopsies - sellotape test (for D. breviceps & M. cameli)
81
Sarcoptes, Psoroptes, Chorioptes, Demodex - tx
- ivermectin repeated q14d IM/SC -- not oral
82
D. breviceps tx
- topical pyrethrin
83
M. cameli tx
- Ivermectin
84
CS of ticks
- tick paralysis - inner ear issues leading to Horners syndrome +/- encephalic death
85
TB types
- mycobacterium pinnipedii - mycobacterium bovis - mycobacterium microti
86
CS of TB
- lethargy - anorexia - weight loss - coughing - resp signs mild to severe - sudden death
87
Is TB zoonotic?
- yes
88
TB testing
- blood test - PM: granulomas in lungs and lymph nodes, acid fast bacilli
89
Mycoplasma haemolamae - CS
- mild-fatal anaemia
90
Mycoplasma haemolamae - diagnosis
- PCR or blood smear
91
Mycoplasma haemolamae - tx
- oxytetracycline - +/- blood transfusion
92
Placement of jugular catheters
- RHS of neck - high up or low down - LA for placement - 16-18G for adults
93
Injection sites
- IM: rump, cranial neck - SC: axilla, cranial to scapula
94
MSK conditions
- lameness - fractures
95
Lameness - CS
- NWB - +/- vocalisation
96
Minor injuries causing lameness
- sprains - ligament damage
97
Lameness tx
- NSAIDs and rest
98
Common fracture sites
- limbs - spine
99
Fracture tx
- NSAIDs - referral -- can use pins, plats and screws (but signalment and weight dependent)