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Vet Nurse Small Animal Diploma CQ > Anatomy and Physiology > Flashcards

Anatomy and Physiology Flashcards

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1
Q

What is the meaning of the prefix a/an?

A

Lack of

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2
Q

What is the meaning of the prefix dys?

A

Difficult/defective

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3
Q

What is the meaning of the prefix endo?

A

Within

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4
Q

What is the meaning of the prefix ex?

A

out/away from

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5
Q

What is the meaning of the prefix haem/haemo?

A

Blood

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6
Q

What is the meaning of the prefix hydro?

A

Water

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7
Q

What is the meaning of the prefix hyper?

A

Above/more than

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8
Q

What is the meaning of the prefix hypo?

A

Below/less than

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9
Q

What is the meaning of the prefix inter?

A

Between

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10
Q

What is the meaning of the prefix intra?

A

Within

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11
Q

What is the meaning of the prefix myo?

A

Muscle

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12
Q

What is the meaning of the prefix peri?

A

Around

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13
Q

What is the meaning of the prefix poly?

A

Many

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14
Q

What is the meaning of the prefix pyo?

A

Pus

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15
Q

What is the meaning of the prefix sub?

A

Beneath

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16
Q

What is the meaning of the suffix aemia?

A

Blood

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17
Q

What is the meaning of the suffix ectomy?

A

Cut out

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18
Q

What is the meaning of the suffix graphy?

A

Recording

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19
Q

What is the meaning of the suffix itis?

A

Inflammation

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20
Q

What is the meaning of the suffix logy?

A

The study of

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21
Q

What is the meaning of the suffix oma?

A

A swelling

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22
Q

What is the meaning of the suffix pathy?

A

Any disease

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23
Q

What is the meaning of the suffix phagia?

A

Eating

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24
Q

What is the meaning of the suffix pnoea?

A

Breathing

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25
Q

What is the meaning of alopecia?

A

Loss of hair

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26
Q

What is the meaning of anorexia?

A

Loss of appetite

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27
Q

What is the meaning of apnoea?

A

Ceased breathing

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28
Q

What is the meaning of bradycardia?

A

Abnormally low heart rate

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29
Q

What is the meaning of cardiac?

A

Relating to the heart

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30
Q

What is the meaning of cyanosis?

A

Bluish colour of mucous membranes due to lack of oxygen?

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31
Q

What is the meaning of dysphagia?

A

Difficulty eating

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32
Q

What is the meaning of dyspnoea?

A

Difficulty breathing

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33
Q

What is the meaning of emesis?

A

Vomiting

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34
Q

What is the meaning of hypothermia?

A

Abnormally low body temperature

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35
Q

What is the meaning of pyrexia?

A

Fever

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36
Q

What is the meaning of tachycardia?

A

Rapid heart rate

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37
Q

What is the meaning of tachypnoea?

A

Rapid, shallow breathing

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38
Q

What is the meaning of tenesmus?

A

Painful, unproductive straining

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39
Q

Which part of the nerve cell transmits impulses away from the cell body?

A

Axon

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40
Q

What do Schwann cells create?

A

Myelin sheath

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41
Q

What are the spaces called where oxygen and nutrients are supplied to a neuron?

A

Node of Ranvier

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42
Q

What is the purpose of myelin?

A

Insulated the neuron to increase the speed of the impulse

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43
Q

What is a neuromuscular junction?

A

Where a neuron meets a muscle and causes contraction

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44
Q

What is the name for the junction between two neurons?

A

Synapse

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45
Q

What are the different neurotransmitter chemicals that aid in the transmission of an impulse across a synaptic cleft?

A

Acetylcholine, adrenaline, serotonin, dopamine

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46
Q

Are dendrons or dendrites larger in diameter on the nerve cell?

A

Dendrons

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47
Q

What is myelin composed of?

A

Lipoproteins

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48
Q

What is the central nervous system composed of?

A

Brain and spinal cord

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49
Q

What is the peripheral nervous system composed of?

A

Spinal nerves and cranial nerves

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50
Q

What are the names of the cranial nerves and their types?

A

Olfactory (Sensory)
Optic (Sensory)
Oculomotor (Motor)
Trochlear (Motor)
Trigeminal (Both)
Abducens (Motor)
Facial (Motor)
Vestibulocochlear (Sensory)
Glossopharyngeal (Both)
Vagus (Both)
Accessory (Motor)
Hypoglossal (Motor)

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51
Q

How many pairs of cranial nerves are there?

A

12

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52
Q

What is the function of the Olfactory (I) nerve?

A

(SENSORY) Carries sense of smell from olfactory bulbs to the brain

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53
Q

What is the function of the Optic (II) nerve?

A

(SENSORY) Carries information about sight from eyes to the brain. Involved in the pupillary light reflex

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54
Q

How do both sides of the brain receive information from both eyes, via the optic nerve?

A

Some nerve fibres from each eye cross over via the optic chiasma to the other side of the brain

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55
Q

What is the function of the Oculomotor (III) nerve?

A

(MOTOR) Supplies extrinsic muscles of the eye to control eye movement, pupil constriction and eye focus

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56
Q

What is the function of the Trochlear (IV) nerve?

A

(MOTOR) Supplies extrinsic muscles of the eye to control eye movement

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57
Q

What is the function of the Trigeminal (V) nerve?

A

(BOTH) Sensory fibred carries impulses from skin around they eyes and face
Motor fibres supply the muscles of mastication (mainly temporal and masseter)

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58
Q

What is the function of the Abducens (VI) nerve?

A

(MOTOR) Supplies extrinsic muscles of the eye to control eye movement

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59
Q

What is the function of the Facial (VII) nerve?

A

(MOTOR) Supplies muscles of facial expression; lips, ears, skin around eyes

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60
Q

What is the function of the Vestibulocochlear (VIII) nerve?

A

(SENSORY) Vestibular branch carried information about balance
Cochlear branch carries information about hearing

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61
Q

What is the function of the Glossopharyngeal (IX) nerve?

A

(BOTH) Sensory fibres carry sensation of taste from taste buds to the brain
Motor fibres supply muscles of the pharynx for swallowing and salivation

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62
Q

What is the function of the Vagus (X) nerve?

A

(BOTH) Sensory fibres from the pharynx and larynx
Motor fibres to muscles of the larynx, parasympathetic motor fibres supply visceral organs and abdominal organs

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63
Q

What is the function of the Accessory (XI) nerve?

A

(MOTOR) Supplies muscles of the neck and shoulders, allowing head and shoulder movements, vocalisation and swallowing

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64
Q

What is the function of the Hypoglossal (XII) nerve?

A

(MOTOR) Supplies muscles of the tongue, allowing tongue movements, swallowing and vocalisation

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65
Q

What is the longest cranial nerve?

A

Vagus (X) nerve

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66
Q

Where does the spinal cord begin and end?

A

From the medulla oblongata to the lumbar region, terminating in the cauda equina

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67
Q

What is the spinal cord comprised of?

A

Nerve fibres; outer white matter and inner grey matter

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68
Q

What surrounds the spinal cord?

A

Meninges and cerebrospinal fluid

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69
Q

What are the meninges?

A

3 protective layers around the brain and spinal cord; Dura mater, Arachnoid mater and Pia mater

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70
Q

What is between each meninges layer?

A

Subdural space between the Dura mater and Arachnoid mater. Subarachnoid space between the Arachnoid mater and Pia mater

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71
Q

Which meninges layer is closest to the brain and spinal cord?

A

Pia mater

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72
Q

What is grey matter composed of?

A

Cell bodies of neurons and non-myelinated nerve fibres

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73
Q

What is white matter composed of?

A

Myelinated nerve fibres

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74
Q

How many pairs of spinal nerves are there?

A

36

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75
Q

What is the function of the endocrine system and which other system does it work with?

A

Maintains regulation of the body, works with nervous system to maintain homeostasis

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76
Q

Which is faster in response, nervous system or endocrine system?

A

Nervous system

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77
Q

Endocrine glands are _ . They secrete _ .

A

Endocrine glands are ductless and they secrete hormones

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78
Q

What is meant by the word ‘target organ’?

A

Each hormone has a target organ. There are specific receptor sites on organs that only allow specific hormone to bind. They can’t work on any organs they are not meant to.

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79
Q

How are hormone transported to their target organs?

A

Through the blood stream

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80
Q

When does a hormone start and finish being secreted and what is this known as?

A

Hormones are only secreted after being activated by specific stimuli. The hormone readjusts levels in the body, once an equalibrium is reached the hormone stops. This is known as negative feedback.

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81
Q

Which endocrine gland also has exocrine functions?

A

The pancreas is a mixed gland.

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82
Q

Which hormones are produced by tissues within organs and not secreted by endocrine glands?

A

Gastrin, secretin, chorionic gonadotrophin, erythropoietin

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83
Q

Where is gastrin produced and what is its purpose?

A

Produced in the stomach walls. Causes release of gastric juices to allow digestion once food enters the stomach.

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84
Q

Where is secretin produced and what is its purpose?

A

Secreted by the small intestine wall. Stimulates production of intestinal and pancreatic juices once food enters the small intestine.

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85
Q

When is chorionic gonadotrophin produced and what is its purpose?

A

Produced during pregnancy. Helps to maintain the corpus luteum.

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86
Q

Where is erythropoietin produced and and what is its purpose?

A

Produced in the kidneys when oxygen levels are low. Stimulates production of new red blood cells from the bone marrow.

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87
Q

What is the pituitary gland?

A

One of the main controlling glands of the body, can be divided into anterior and posterior.

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88
Q

What are the other names for anterior and posterior pituitary gland?

A

Anterior = Adenohypophysis
Posterior = Neurohypophysis

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89
Q

Which hormones are secreted by the anterior pituitary gland?

A

Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
Adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH)
Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
Lutenising hormone (LH)
Interstitial cell stimulating hormone (ICSH)
Prolactin
Somatotrophin

FATLIPS

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90
Q

What does thyroid stimulating hormone do and what is its target organ?

A

Target organ = Thyroid gland
Stimulates release of the thyroid hormone. Release of TSH is influenced by the hypothalamus.

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91
Q

What does somatotrophin do and what are its target organs?

A

Target organs = Bone and instestines
Controls epiphyseal growth of bones. Protein production. Regulation of energy use. Secretion is influenced by the hypothalamus.

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92
Q

What does adrenocorticotrophic hormone do and what is its target organ?

A

Target organ = Adrenal cortex
Controls release of adrenocortical hormones. Secretion is influenced by the hypothalamus.

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93
Q

What does prolactin do and what is its targen organ?

A

Target organ = mammary tissue
Stimulates mammary gland development and milk production.


















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94










Q













What does follicle stimulating hormone do and what is its target organ?

















A















Target organ = Ovaries
Stimulates follicle development in ovaries. In male, stimulates spermatozoa production. Release is controlled by gonadotrophin releasing hormone in the hypothalamus.















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95










Q













What does lutenising hormone do and what is its target organ?

















A















Target organ = Graafian (ripe) follicles
Stimulates ovulation and maturation of corpus luteum. Release controlled by decreasing production of oestrogen in graafian follicle.















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96










Q













What does intertitial cell stimulating hormone do and what is its target organ?

















A















Target organ = testes
Stimulates testosterone production in interstitial cells in testes. Secretion is controlled by gonadotrophin releasing hormone in the hypothalamus.















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97










Q













Which hormones are secreted by the posterior pituitary gland?

















A















Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
Oxytoxin















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98










Q













What does antidiuretic hormone do and what is its target organ?

















A















Target organ = Collecting ducts of kidney
Allows collecting ducts to reabsorb water and reduce amount of urine produced. External cellular fluid and plasma concentration controls release.















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99










Q













What does oxytocin do and what are its target organs?

















A















Target organs= Uterus+mammary tissue
Stimulates uterine contaction and milk let down.















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100










Q













What are the thyroid glands?

















A















A pair of glands lying ventrally to the first few tacheal rings.















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101










Q













Which hormones are produced by the thyroid gland?


















A













Thyroxine (T4) 93%
Triiodothyronine (T3) 7%
Thyroxocalcitonin















102










Q













What do thyroxine and triiodothyronine do?


















A













Control metabolic rate and are essential for normal growth. Secretion controlled by release of TSH from the pituitary gland.















103










Q













What happens to young animals that are deficient in thyroxine and triiodothyronine?


















A













Suffer from dwarfism















104










Q













What is hypothyroidism?


















A













Deficiency in thyroxine and triiodothyronine. Results in lowered metabolic rate, animal becomes overweight and sluggish.















105










Q













What are the causes of hypothyroidism?


















A













Primary - atrophy of thyroid gland (90%)
Secondary - reduction in TSH secretion from pituitary gland.















106










Q













What is hyperthyroidism?


















A













Excessive hormones produced. Marked increase in metabolic rate; animal becomes irritable, overactive and loses weight.















107










Q













What does thyroxocalcitonin do?


















A













Works in conjunction with parathormone and reduces the amount of calcium reabsorbed from bone. Secretion influenced by increase in blood calcium levels.















108










Q













Where are the parathyroid glands found?


















A













Cranial and caudal aspects of each thyroid gland.















109










Q













Which hormone does the parathyroid gland secrete?


















A













Parathormone (PTH)















110










Q













What does parathormone do?


















A













Regulates distribution and absorption of calcium in conjunction with thyrocalcitonin. Increases level of calcium in the blood. Released in response to decreaed blood calcium.















111










Q













How does parathormone increase calcium levels in the blood?


















A













Increasing absorption in intestines. 
Increasing reabsorption in kidneys. 
Increasing transfer of calcium from bone to blood.















112










Q













Where is the pancreas?


















A













Lies within the loop of duodenum.















113










Q













Which hormones are produced by the pancreas?


















A













Insulin
Glucagon
Somatostatin















114










Q













Which hormone is produced by the Alpha cells in the Islets of Langerhans?


















A













Glucagon















115










Q













Which hormone is produced by the Beta cells in the Islets of Langerhans?


















A













Insulin















116










Q













Which hormone is produced by the Delta cells in the Islets of Langerhans?


















A













Somatostatin















117










Q













What does Glucagon do?


















A













Breaks down glycogen from the liver, which is realsed into the blood stream. Glucagon is released when blood glucose levels are low.















118










Q













What does insulin do?


















A













Increases uptake of glucose into cells. Promotes storage of excess glucose in the liver as glycogen. Realeased when blood glucose levels are increased (after a meal).















119










Q













What does somatostatin do?


















A













Mildy inhibits glucagon and insulin, preventing them from acting on small swings in levels, giving more even control. Also decreases gut mobility and secretion of digestive juices.















120










Q













What is diabetes mellitus caused by?


















A













Lack of insulin, results in hyperglycemia.















121










Q













What are the clinical signs of dibetes mellitus?


















A













Polyuria/Polydipsia (PU/PD)
Weight loss
Polyphagia
Lethargic
Anorexia
Cataracts
D+ / V+
Dehydration
Ketotic breath
Coma
Death















122










Q













What is the urinary system responsible for?


















A













    

  • Maintaining homeostasis
    • 

  • Balance of water and electrolytes in body fluids
    • 

  • Excess water and electrolytes excreted as urine
    • 
















123










Q













What is the urinary system made up of?


















A













    

  • Left and right kidneys
    • 

  • Left and right uterers
    • 

  • Bladder
    • 

  • Urethra
    • 
















124










Q













What are the functions of the urinary system?


















A













    

  • Form urine
    • 

  • Excrete nitrogenous waste (urea/creatinine)
    • 

  • Regulate volume and chemicals of body fluids
    • 

  • Secrete hormones; erythropoietin + renin
    • 

  • Activates vit D after synthesis in skin
    • 

  • Stores urine in bladder prior to micturition
    • 

  • Maintain correct pH of body
    • 
















125










Q













What is micturition?


















A













Urination















126










Q













What do the hormones that are secreted by the urinary system do?


















A













Erythropoietin
- Initiates formation of erythrocytes in response to low blood oxygen levels
Renin
- Stimulates RAAS in response to low blood pressure















127










Q













What is RAAS?


















A













Renin Angiotensin Aldosterone System















128










Q













Where are the kidneys located in mammals?


















A













    

  • Dorso-lumbar region of abdominal cavity
    • 

  • Left kidney more caudal due to stomach
    • 

  • Retroperitoneal - beneath parietal peritoneum
    • 
















129










Q













What organs lie close to the kidneys?


















A













    

  • Adrenal glands
    • 

  • Ovaries
    • 
















130










Q













What percentage of cardiac output do the kidneys recieve?


















A













    

  • More than 20%
    • 

  • Supplied by renal artery
    • 

  • Returned via renal vein
    • 

  • Renal blood pressure is high
    • 
















130










Q













What supplies the kidneys with blood in the bird?


















A













    

  • 3 renal arteries
    • 

  • Cranial, middle and caudal
    • 
















131










Q













What do the kidneys look like in mammals?


















A













    

  • Bean shaped
    • 

  • Deep red/brown colour
    • 

  • Can be surrounded by layer of fat, acting as an energy reserve
    • 
















132










Q













Where are the kidneys located in the bird?


















A













Depression within the pelvic bone















133










Q













What do kidneys look like in birds and reptiles?


















A













    

  • Trilobed
    • 

  • 2% of birds body weigh, larger than mammal in comparison
    • 
















134










Q













What extra function do some male reptile kidneys have?


















A













    

  • Sexual component
    • 

  • Produces spermatic fluid
    • 
















135










Q













What are the 4 layers of the kidneys?


















A













    

  • Capsule
    • 

  • Cortex
    • 

  • Medulla
    • 

  • Pelvis
    • 
















136










Q













What is the capsule of the kidneys?


















A













    

  • Protective layer
    • 

  • Fibrous tissue
    • 

  • Closely attached to cortex
    • 
















137










Q













What is the cortex of the kidneys?


















A













    

  • Outer layer
    • 

  • Contains functional units (nephrons; corpuscles and convoluted tubules)
    • 
















138










Q













What is the medulla of the kidneys?


















A













    

  • Inner layer
    • 

  • Paler
    • 

  • Arranged in pyramids, separated by cortical tissue
    • 

  • Formed by collecting ducts
    • 

  • Contains loops of henle
    • 
















139










Q













What is the pelvis of the kidneys?


















A













    

  • Fibrous tissue
    • 

  • Whitish appearance
    • 

  • Receives formed urine
    • 

  • Site of uterer attachment where urine leaves kidneys
    • 
















140










Q













What is the hilus of the kidneys?


















A













    

  • Indented
    • 

  • Area of attachment for blood vessels, nerves, uterer
    • 
















141










Q













What are nephrons in the kidneys?


















A













    

  • Microscopic, function units of kidneys
    • 

  • Approximately 1 million in each kidney
    • 

  • Filters blood, produces urine
    • 
















142










Q













What are the different parts of a nephron in the kidneys?


















A













    

  • Renal corpuscle (Glomerulus + Bowmans capsule)
    • 

  • Proximal convoluted tubule
    • 

  • Loop of Henle
    • 

  • Distal convoluted tubule
    • 

  • Collecting ducts
    • 
















143










Q













What is the renal corpuscle in the kidneys?


















A













Glomerulus, blood capillary network
Bowmans capsule, cup shaped
- Inner surface forms basement membrane
- BM has microscopic pores
- Close contact with glomerulus endothelium
- Allows free passage of fluid
- Restricts passage of larger molecules
- Site of ultrafiltration















144










Q













What is the proximal convoluted tubule in the kidneys?


















A













    

  • Lined with cuboidal epithelium and microvilli
    • 

  • Brush border increases surface area for absorption of water and electrolytes
    • 

  • Absorb and secretes
    • 
















145










Q













What is the loop of henle in the kidneys?


















A













Descending limb
- Lined with squamous epithelium
Ascending limb 
- thicker squamous epithelium
- Diffusion















146










Q













What are the loop of henle differences in birds and reptiles?


















A













    

  • 50% of nephrons in the bird have no loop of henle
    • 

  • Reptiles have no loop of henle so don’t produce concentrated urine
    • 
















147










Q













What is the distal convoluted tubule in the kidneys?


















A













    

  • Shorter and less convoluted
    • 

  • Lined with cuboidal epithelium
    • 

  • Has no brush border
    • 

  • Absorbs and secretes
    • 
















148










Q













What is the collecting duct in the kidneys?


















A













    

  • Serve several nephrons
    • 

  • Receives urine
    • 

  • Lined with columnar epithelium
    • 

  • Run through medulla, empty into pelvis
    • 

  • Abdorbs
    • 
















149










Q













What is the difference in a rabbits kidney?


















A













    

  • Uni-papillate
    • 

  • Single renal pyramid that drains into the renal pelvis
    • 
















150










Q













How many litres of urine are made from 100 litres of filtrate?


















A













1 litre















151










Q













What is meant by the term reabsorption in reference to urine formation?


















A













    

  • Substance passes from renal tubules into surrounding capillaries and back to circulation
    • 

  • Kidneys to blood
    • 
















152










Q













What is meant by the term secretion in reference to urine formation?


















A













    

  • Substance passes from surrounding capillaries into renal tubules and out of the body in urine
    • 

  • Blood to kidneys
    • 
















153










Q













What regulates the blood pressure in the glomerulus?


















A













    

  • Hormone Renin
    • 

  • Constricts arteriole leaving glomerulus
    • 

  • Forces fluid + small molecules through pores in basement membrane
    • 
















154










Q













What happens after ultrafltration in the nephrons of the kidneys?


















A













    

  • Dilute glomerular filtrate
    • 

  • Enters PCT, most reabsorption takes place
    REABSORBED TO BLOOD
    • 

  • Sodium ions
    • 

  • 65% of water (by osmosis)
    • 

  • Glucose
    SECRETION TO URINE
    • 

  • Some drugs
    Nitrogenous waste is concentrated, mainly urea
    • 
















155










Q













What happens to the filtrate in the Loop of Henle within the kidneys?


















A













Concentration and volume are regulated
DESCENDING LOOP
- Permeable to water, leaves loop due to osmosis
- Filtrate reaches maximum concentration at the bottom
ASCENDING LOOP
- Sodium reabsorbed
- Filtrate is same concentration entering as leaving loop
- Filtrate volume decreases















156










Q













What occurs in the distal convoluted tubule of a nephron in the kidneys?


















A













REABSORBED
- Sodium
- Water (controlled by aldosterone)
SECRETED
- Potassium
- Hydrogen ions (regulate pH acid base balance)















157










Q













What occurs in the collecting ducts of a nephron in the kidneys?


















A













    

  • Anti-diuretic hormone alters permeability of walls
    • 

  • If animal is dehydrated, walls become more permeable
    • 

  • Urine leaves kidneys via ureter
    • 
















158










Q













What is osmoregulation?


















A













    

  • Plasma volume + chemical concentrations remain the same
    • 

  • Homeostasis maintained
    • 

  • Body can function normally
    • 
















159










Q













How can osmoregulation be controlled?


















A













    

  • Control water loss from body
    • 

  • Control sodium levels within the body
    • 
















160










Q













How is water lost from the body?


















A













    

  • Urine
    • 

  • Faeces
    • 

  • Sweat
    • 

  • Respiration
    • 

  • Vaginal secretions
    • 

  • Tears
    • 
















161










Q













How does a patient become dehydrated and what happens when they are?


















A













    

  • Inadequate supply or excessive loss
    • 

  • Lower blood pressure
    • 

  • Raised sodium concentrations and rise in osmotic pressure
    • 
















162










Q













How does the body react to dehydration?


















A













    

  • Baroreceptors in arterial walls detect low blood pressure; trigger release of ADH
    • 

  • Osmoreceptors in hypothalamus detect change in osmotic pressure; increased thirst + more ADH
    • 

  • Raised blood pressure results in opposite; produce more urine that is more dilute
    • 
















163










Q













How is sodium lost from the body?


















A













    

  • Urine
    • 

  • Faeces
    • 

  • Sweat
    • 
















164










Q













What important role does sodium have within the body?


















A













Determining arterial blood pressure















165










Q













What happens when sodium levels in the diet are high or low?


















A













HIGH
- Increase osmotic pressure
- Draws fluid into the plasma
- Increases blood volume and pressure
LOW
- Draw less fluid into the plasma
- Blood volume and pressure fall
- Stimulates Renin Angiotensin Aldosterone System (RAAS) 
Sodium regulation takes place within distal convoluted tubule, controlled by Aldosterone hormone















166










Q













What happens when RAAS is stimulated?


















A













    

  • Low blood pressure causes Renin to undergo chemical reactions
    • 

  • Increased thirst, casues vasoconstriction and stimulates adrenal gland to produce Aldosterone
    • 

  • Aldosterone acts on kidneys, increasing salt and water retention
    • 

  • These 3 factors increase blood pressure
    • 
















167










Q













How do marine birds control their bodied osmotic pressure?


















A













    

  • Salt gland above the eye
    • 

  • Removes large amounts of sodium through tears
    • 

  • Enables them to cope with salt-water environment
    • 

  • Controlled by AVT hormone (Arginine Vasotocin); bird equivalent of ADH
    OTHER BIRDS use kidneys in salt regulation
    • 
















168










Q













What are ureters and where are they?


















A













    

  • Narrow muscular tube
    • 

  • Lined with transitional epithelium
    • 

  • Runs caudally from kidneys, either side of midline, towards the bladder
    • 
















169










Q













How is urine conveyed along the ureters?


















A













Smooth muscle in the walls creates peristaltic waves















170










Q













Where do the ureters enter the bladder?


















A













    

  • Dorsal aspect, in area called the trigone (between neck of bladder and urethral opening)
    • 

  • Enters at an oblique angle and contains a flap valve, both to reduce back flow
    • 
















171










Q













What is the mammalian bladder?


















A













    

  • Pear shaped, hollow organ
    • 

  • Lies close to midline
    • 

  • Stores urine
    • 

  • Transitional epithelium lining
    • 

  • Elastic tissue and smooth muscle layer in walls
    • 

  • Allows expansion and contraction
    • 

  • In pelvic cavity when empty
    • 

  • Can extend cranially to umbilicus when full
    • 

  • Appears black in ultrasonography
    • 
















172










Q













What is different regarding the bladder in birds, snakes, lizards and chelonians?


















A













BIRDS and SNAKES
- No bladder, ureters empty into urodeum section of cloaca 
SOME LIZARDS
- Have bladders, ureters enter urodeum section of cloaca and then the bladder
CHELONIANS
- Paired ureter deliver dilute urine to large, thin walled bladder















173










Q













How is flow of urine out of the bladder controlled in mammals?


















A













INTERNAL SPHINCTER
- Smooth muscle, involuntary control
EXTERNAL SPHINCTER
- Striated muscle, voluntary control















174










Q













What is the urethra?


















A













    

  • Carries urine from the bladder outside
    • 

  • Tubular canal lined with transitional epithelium
    • 
















175










Q













What is the differences between the female and male urethras?


















A













FEMALE
- Short tube
- External urethral orifice at junction of vestibule and vagina
- Urethral tubercle marks opening(small swelling)
- Only serve urinary system
MALE
- 2 parts; pelvic and penile
- Longer tube
- External urethral orifice at end of penis
- Serves urinary and reproductive systems















176










Q













What are the differences between the male dog and cat urethras?


















A













DOG
- Prostate gland and deferent ducts open into urethra
- Runs caudally through pelvis
- Curves over edge of ischial arch
- Surrounded by cavernous erectile tissue
CAT
- Short length of urethra cranial to prostate gland (pre-prostatic urethra)
- Runs caudally, opens ventral to the anus
- No penile urethra outside of pelvic cavity
- Paired bulbo-urethral glands near urethra end















177










Q













How is micturition controlled?


















A













    

  • Usually reflex action
    • 

  • Can be overridden by voluntary control
    • 
















178










Q













What are the stages of micturition?


















A













    

  • Bladder becomes distended by urine
    • 

  • Stretch receptors in wall muscle stimulated
    • 

  • Nerve impulses sent to spinal cord and back
    • 

  • Contraction occurs
    • 

  • Other nerve impulses relax internal sphincter
    • 
















179










Q













At what age is voluntary control of bladder fully developed?


















A













10 weeks old















180










Q













What are the differences in urine in reptiles, birds, and rabbits?


















A













MAMMALS
- produce urea from protein metabolism
BIRDS and REPTILES 
- produce uric acid + urates from protein 
- Mixed with other waste in cloaca 
- White urates, green-brown faeces, clear urine
REPTILES
- Normal urine only contains water, salts, urea
RABBIT
- Colour varies, red to yellow or white
- Turbid, natural presence of calcium















181










Q













Define origin referring to muscles


















A













Start point of a muscle















182










Q













Define insertion referring to muscles


















A













End point of a muscle















183










Q













Define action referring to muscles


















A













How muscle moves















184










Q













Define tendon


















A













Connects muscle to bone















185










Q













Define ligament


















A













Connects bone to bone















186










Q













Define aponeurosis


















A













Flat sheet of muscle; diaphragm, linea alba















187










Q













Define contraction referring to muscles


















A













Muscles become shorter and fatter















188










Q













Define relaxation referring to muscles


















A













Muscle elongates and becomes thinner















189










Q













Define tone referring to muscles


















A













Degree of tension in a muscle















190










Q













Define muscle belly


















A













    

  • Centre of muscle
    • 

  • Changes shape with contraction/relaxation
    • 
















191










Q













Define antagonistic pairing referring to muscles


















A













Pair of muscles that have the opposite action















192










Q













Define intrinsic muscle


















A













    

  • Origin and insertion in same region of body
    • 

  • Produce smaller movements
    • 
















193










Q













Define extrinsic muscle


















A













    

  • Origin and insertion in different areas of body
    • 

  • Produce larger movements
    • 
















194










Q













What are the major forelimb muscles?


















A













    

  • Biceps Brachii
    • 

  • Triceps Brachii
    • 

  • Pectorals
    • 
















195










Q













Whats muscles make up an antagonistic pair in the forelimb?


















A













Biceps Brachii and Triceps Brachii















196










Q













What is the origin, insertion and action of the biceps brachii?


















A













    

  • Humerus
    • 

  • Radius and Ulna
    • 

  • Flex elbow
    • 
















197










Q













What is the origin, insertion and action of the triceps brachii?


















A













    

  • Humerus
    • 

  • Olecranon
    • 

  • Extend elbow
    • 
















198










Q













What is the origin, insertion and action of the pectorals?


















A













    

  • Ribs and Sternum
    • 

  • Medial aspect of humerus
    • 

  • Adducts forlimb
    • 
















199










Q













What are the major hindlimb muscles?


















A













GLUTEAL MUSCLE GROUP
- Superficial, middle and deep
HAMSTRING GROUP
- Biceps femoris, semimembranosus and semiteninosus
Quadriceps femoris, gastrocnemius, cranial tibialis















200










Q













What does the gluteal muscle group do?


















A













    

  • Powerful extensors for the hip and thigh
    • 

  • Abduct the thigh
    • 
















201










Q













What does the hamstring group do?


















A













    

  • Forms caudal aspect of thigh
    • 

  • Propel and extend whole limb backwards
    • 

  • Extends the hip
    • 

  • Provides most force
    • 
















202










Q













What is the origin, insertion and action of the biceps femoris?


















A













    

  • Pelvis
    • 

  • Tibia and Calcaneous
    • 

  • Extend hip and hock, flex stifle
    • 
















203










Q













What is the origin, insertion and action of the semimembranosus?


















A













    

  • Pelvis
    • 

  • Tibia
    • 

  • Extend hip, flex stifle
    • 
















204










Q













What is the origin, insertion and action of the semitendinosus?


















A













    

  • Pelvis
    • 

  • Tibia and Calcaneus
    • 

  • Extend hip and hock, flex stifle
    • 
















205










Q













What is the origin, insertion and action of the quadriceps femoris?


















A













    

  • Pelvis
    • 

  • Tibial crest
    • 

  • Extend stifle, flex hips
    • 
















206










Q













What is the origin, insertion and action of the gastrocnemius


















A













    

  • Femur
    • 

  • Calcaneus
    • 

  • Flex stifle, extend hock
    • 
















207










Q













What is the origin, insertion and action of the cranial (anterior) tibialis?


















A













    

  • Proximal tibial
    • 

  • Tarsus
    • 

  • Flex hock, medial rotation
    • 
















208










Q













What is the achilles tendon?


















A













    

  • Large tendon runs down back of leg to hock
    • 

  • Includes insertion tendons of gastrocnemius, biceps femoris and semitendinosus
    • 
















209










Q













What are ligaments? (more detail)


















A













    

  • Sheets of dense connective tissue (densely packed collagen bundles)
    • 

  • Arranged in parallel fashion
    • 

  • In some synovial joints, act as stabilisers
    • 

  • Sides of joint; collateral ligaments
    • 

  • Inside joint; intrascapular
    • 

  • Cruciate ligaments are intrascapular
    • 
















210










Q













What muscles are found along the vertebral column and what are their function?


















A













EPAXIAL MUSCLES
- Above transverse processes
- Arranged in 3 longitudinal groups; span length of vertebral column. 
- Support spine, extend vertebrae, lateral flexion
- Site of lumbar IM injections
HYPAXIAL MUSCLES
- Below transverse processes
- Flex neck, tail and vertebra















211










Q













What are the abdominal muscles?


















A













    

  • Each side has 4 muscles
    • 

  • Form flat sheets
    • 

  • Fibres run in all directions to give strength
    • 

  • Support and protect abdominal organs
    • 

  • External abdominal oblique
    • 

  • Internal abdominal oblique
    • 

  • Transverse abdominis
    • 

  • Rectus abdominus
    • 
















212










Q













What is the origin, insertion and location of the external abdominal oblique muscles?


















A













    

  • Ribs, lumbar vertebrae
    • 

  • Linea alba
    • 

  • Most superficial
    • 
















213










Q













What is the origin, insertion and location of the internal abdominal oblique muscles?


















A













    

  • Lumbar vertebrae, pelvis
    • 

  • Linea alba
    • 

  • Intermediate depth
    • 
















214










Q













What is the origin, insertion and location of the transverse abdominis muscles?


















A













    

  • Ribs, pelvis, lumbar vertebrae
    • 

  • Linea alba
    • 

  • Deepest muscle inserting the linea alba
    • 
















215










Q













What is the origin, insertion and location of the rectus abdominus muscles?


















A













    

  • Ribs, sternum
    • 

  • Pelvis (pubis)
    • 

  • Broad band of muscle lying either side of linea alba
    • 

  • Forms floor of abdomen
    • 
















216










Q













What is the location of the linea alba?


















A













    

  • 3 muscles terminate here
    • 

  • Runs from xiphoid process to pubic symphysis
    • 
















217










Q













What is injured in a sprain?


















A













Ligament















218










Q













What is injured in a strain?


















A













Tendon















219










Q













Define capsular ligament


















A













Fibrous layer of a joint capsule















220










Q













Define suspensory ligaments


















A













Suspend sesamoid bones















221










Q













Define fascia


















A













White outer covering of muscle















222










Q













Define bursa


















A













Cushion between bone and tendon to prevent wear















223










Q













What do muscles need to function correctly?


















A













    

  • Efferent nerve supply
    • 

  • Mechanoreceptors in fibres and tendons detect load alterations
    • 

  • Blood
    • 
















224










Q













Define muscle atrophy


















A













Decrease in muscle mass















225










Q













Define muscle hypertrophy


















A













Increase in muscle mass















226










Q













What is the anatomical composition of a muscle?


















A













    

  • Tissue arranged in microfilament bundles
    • 

  • Each unit of tissue called sarcomere
    • 

  • Each fibre called myofibril
    • 

  • 2 proteins make up myofibrils
    • 

  • Actin and myosin (together actymyosin)
    • 

  • Involved in contraction of each fibre
    • 
















227










Q













What are the muscles of mastication?


















A













    

  • Temporalis
    • 

  • Digastricus
    • 

  • Masseter
    • 
















228










Q













What is the location, origin, insertion and action of the digastricus muscle?


















A













    

  • Lateral surface of skull
    • 

  • Occiptial bone
    • 

  • Mandible
    • 

  • Opens jaw
    • 
















229










Q













What is the location, origin, insertion and action of the masseter muscle?


















A













    

  • Lateral to mandible
    • 

  • Zygomatic arch
    • 

  • Masseteric fossa
    • 

  • Closes jaw
    • 
















230










Q













What is the location, origin, insertion and action of the temporalis muscle?


















A













    

  • Dorsal and lateral skull
    • 

  • Temporal fossa
    • 

  • Coronoid process of mandible
    • 

  • Closes jaw
    • 
















231










Q













What are the muscles of the eye?


















A













RECTUS 
- Dorsal (superior)
- Ventral (inferior)
- Lateral
- Medial
OBLIQUE
- Dorsal (superior)
- Ventral (inferior)
RETRACTOR BULBI















232










Q













What are the 3 holes in the diaphragm?


















A













    

  • Aortic hiatus
    • 

  • Oesophageal hiatus
    • 

  • Foraman vena cava
    • 
















233










Q













What is the origin, insertion and action of the external intercostal muscles?


















A













    

  • Caudal border of rib
    • 

  • Cranial border of rib
    • 

  • Assist with inspiration
    • 
















234










Q













What is the origin, insertion and action of the internal intercostal muscles?


















A













    

  • Cranial surface of rib
    • 

  • Caudal border of rib
    • 

  • Assist with expiration
    • 
















235










Q













What are the external and internal intercostal muscles and example of?


















A













Antagonistic pairing















236










Q













Define synergistic pairing referring to muscles?


















A













2 muscles working together to perform same action















237










Q













What percentage of body weight is blood and what is it’s pH?


















A













    

  • 7%
    • 

  • 7.4
    • 
















238










Q













What does the plasma protein albumin do?


















A













    

  • Draws fluids back into blood
    • 

  • Increases blood volume and pressure
    • 
















239










Q













What is the difference between serum and plasma?


















A













SERUM
- Liquid of blood after coagulation, has no clotting factors (no fibrinogen)
PLASMA
- Liquid, cell free, has been treated with anticoagulants















240










Q













What does plasma contain?


















A













    

  • 90% water
    • 

  • Mineral salts; Cl, K, Na, Ca (Maintain pH)
    • 

  • Plasma proteins; albumin, globulin(Maintain osmotic pressure), fibrinogen, prothrombin(clotting)
    • 

  • Foodstuff; amino acids, fatty acids, glucose
    • 
















241










Q













What are the 3 types of blood cells?


















A













    

  • Erythrocytes (RBC)
    • 

  • Leukocytes (WBC)
    • 

  • Thrombocytes (Platelets, cell fragments)
    • 
















242










Q













Erythrocytes


















A













    

  • 7 micrometers diameter
    • 

  • Biconcave discs, no nuclei
    • 

  • Haemoglobin carried oxygen, gives colour
    • 

  • Flexible membrane to fit through capillaries
    • 

  • 120 day life span
    • 

  • Broken down in spleen or lymph nodes
    • 

  • Bird and reptile, oval shape with nucleus
    • 
















243










Q













Production of erythrocytes


















A













    

  • Stem cell; in bone marrow
    • 

  • Erythroblast; in BM, contain nucleus
    • 

  • Normoblast; BM, smaller N, have heamoglobin
    • 

  • Reticulocyte; BM, tiny N, Howell-Joly bodies
    • 

  • Erythrocyte; no N, in circulation
    • 

  • Takes 4-7 days
    • 
















244










Q













What happens in cases of severe blood loss?


















A













    

  • Erythropoietin hormone released by kidney
    • 

  • Stimulates stem cells in bone marrow
    • 

  • Reticulocytes can be released into circulation even with nucleus
    • 
















245










Q













Leukocytes


















A













    

  • White blood cells
    • 

  • Larger than red
    • 

  • Have nuclei
    • 

  • Defend body against infetion
    -70% granulocytes, 30% agranulocytes
    • 
















246










Q













Which cells are granulocytes and which are agranulocytes?


















A













GRANULOCYTES
- Neutrophils
- Basophils
- Esinophils
AGRANULOCYTES
- Lymphocytes
- Monocytes















247










Q













What is the most common granulocyte?


















A













Neutrophils - 90%















248










Q













What is the difference between a thrombus and an embolism?


















A













THROMBUS
- Stationary clot
EMBOLISM
- Clot or fragment floating in circulation















249










Q













What happens in the blood clotting process?


















A













    

  • Thrombocytes stick to damaged vessel and form a plug, release thromboplastin enzyme
    • 

  • Prothrombin converts thrombin, K + Ca
    • 

  • Thrombin converts fibrinogen to fibrin mesh
    • 

  • Fibrin fibres trap blood cells to form clot
    • 

  • Takes 3-5 minutes
    • 
















250










Q













What is the sequence of clotting factors?


















A













    

  • Thromboplastin
    • 

  • Prothrombin
    • 

  • Thrombin
    • 

  • Fibrinogen
    • 

  • Fibrin
    = Clot
    • 
















251










Q































A











































Vet Nurse Small Animal Diploma CQ (10 decks)


























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