Animal welfare, health and husbandry (SA4) Flashcards

1
Q

What is the Animal Welfare Act (2006)?

A
  • To prevent suffering
  • Legal duty of care to be fulfilled by owners and keepers (5 freedoms)
  • Improvement notice can be served if needs not met
  • Notice outlines steps to meet needs and time period
  • If no improvement, steps can be taken, including prosecution
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2
Q

What are the 5 welfare needs?

A
  • Need for suitable environment
  • Need for suitable diet
  • Need to be able to exhibit normal behaviour
  • Need to be house with or apart from other animals
  • Need to be protected from pain, suffering, injury and disease
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3
Q

What does DEFRA stand for?

A

Department for Environment, Food and Rural Affairs

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4
Q

What have DEFRA developed that can be used as a reference guide by the public and professionals caring for animals?

A

Codes of practice for the welfare of dogs, cats, horses, ponies, donkeys and non-human primates.

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5
Q

What do the DEFRA codes of practice outline?

A

What steps need to be taken to meet welfare needs in relation to the Animal Welfare Act (2006).
RSPCA and other enforcement agencies use these to demonstrate best practice.

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6
Q

What are the five freedoms?

A
  • Freedom from hunger and thirst; ready access to food and fresh water
  • FF discomfort; appropriate environment, shelter and comfortable rest area
  • FF pain, injury or disease; prevention, rapid diagnosis and treatment
  • F to express normal behaviour; sufficient space, proper facilities, company of animals own kind
  • FF fear and distress; conditions and treatment that avoid mental suffering
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7
Q

What does APHA stand for?

A

Animal and Plant Health Agency

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8
Q

What is the Animal and Plant Health Agency?

A

Exectutive agency of DEFRA and works on behalf of the Scottish and Welsh government; launched on 1 October 2014

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9
Q

What are the roles of APHA?

A
  • Identify and control notifiable endemic and exotic diseases in animals
  • Scientific research into bacterial, viral and parasitic diseases and vaccines
  • Regulates safe disposal of animal by-products to reduce risk of potentially dangerous substances entering the food chain
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10
Q

What did the Veterinary Surgeons Act (1966) establish?

A
  • Management of veterinary profession
  • Registration of veterinary sureons and practitioners
  • Regulates professional code of conduct and education
  • Allows suspension/cancellation of registration if misconduct
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11
Q

What were the amendments to the Veterinary Surgeons Act (1966) in 1991 and 2002?

A
  • 1991 - Provision for VNs, Schedule 3 procedures allowed
  • 2002 - SVNs allowed to partake in Schedule 3 under supervision
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12
Q

How does the Veterinary Surgeons Act (1966) maintain animal welfare?

A
  • VS must be qualified and meet minimum standards
  • Only VS can practice surgery
  • Only RVN can perform certain procedures
  • RVNs can only act under direction of VS
  • MOP can administer first aid and medication to their own pet
  • Ensures VS and RVNs keep up to date with CPD
  • VS are regulated and can be suspended in cases of misconduct
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13
Q

What does the Schedule 3 amendment to the Veterinary Surgeons Act (1966) allow RVNs to do?

A
  • Any medical treatment or minor surgery not entering a body cavity
  • Under direction of VS
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14
Q

What does RSPCA stand for?

A

Royal Society for the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals

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15
Q

What does RSPB stand for?

A

Royal Society for the Protection of Birds

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16
Q

What is the role of the RSPCA?

A

Protect all animals and improve living conditions for domestic, farm, wild and aquatic animals by;
- Working for welfare of pet animals
- Improving life and reducing suffering of farm animals
- Working for animals used in research and testing

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17
Q

What is the role of the RSPB?

A

Promote conservation and protection of birds and the wider environment through;
- Public awareness campaigns
- Petitions
- Operation of nature reserves throughout the UK

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18
Q

What is the Pet Travel Scheme (PETS)?

A
  • Allows movement of dogs, cats and ferrets within EU without quarantine
  • AHC are required, UK Pet Passports not valid
  • Animals with EU Pet Passports can still use these
  • Specific documentation must be signed by an Official Veternarian (OV)
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19
Q

What are the roles of an animal welfare charity?

A
  • Protect and promote animal welfare
  • Educate owners
  • Rehome animals in suitable, vetted homes
  • Alert correct bodies of welfare concerns
  • Provide financial support for care of animals
  • Advise local authorities
  • Produce strict code of conduct with aims and objectives
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20
Q

What is the role of an RSPCA inspector?

A
  • Investigate complaints regarding cruelty and neglect
  • Inspect animal establishments; pet shops, kennel/cattery facilities
  • Advise members of public on care of animals
  • Inspect events where animals are present; livestock shows
  • Rescuing trapped or injured animals and wildlife
  • Work with police, local authorities and prepare evidence for court
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21
Q

What are the environmental considerations important to animal health in relation to accommodation?

A
  • Heating, lighting, ventilation
  • Structure, space, size allowing normal behaviour
  • Location of services; electricity, water
  • Predator/prey contact, minimising stress
  • Security
  • Social needs, density and mix of animals according to species
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22
Q

What does the Animal Activities Act 2018 require of boarding kennels and what advice is given to clients of these?

A
  • Location and construction must comply with local gov requirements
  • Kennels are licensed by local councils annually
  • Only granted if requirements are met
  • Advise clients to inspect boarding kennels before leaving their pet there
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23
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of constructing kennels from concrete?

A

Advantages
- Indestructible
- Easy to clean if sealed
- Cool in summer
- Easily laid
Disadvantages
- Uncomfortable
- Cold in winter
- Porous when not sealed
- Needs planning permission

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24
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of constructing kennels from wood?

A

Advantages
- Inexpensive
- Warm
- Easy construction
- Movable
Disadvantages
- Not long lasting
- Needs maintenance
- Destructible
- Hard to clean and disinfect

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25
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of constructing kennels from fibreglass?

A

Advantages
- Easy to clean
- Warm
- Indestructible
- Durable
- Minimum maintenance
Disadvantages
- Expensive
- Difficult installation
- Damaged by some chemicals

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26
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of constructing kennels from stainless steel?

A

Advantages
- Easy to clean
- Indestructible
- Minimum maintenance
Disadvantages
- Expensive
- Cold
- Noisy

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27
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of constructing kennels from tiles?

A

Advantages
- Indestructible
Disadvantages
- Cold
- Hard to clean
- Tiles may crack
- Slippery when wet
- Expensive to install

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28
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of constructing kennels from breeze blocks?

A

Advantages
- Inexpensive
- Durable
- Good sound-proofing
- Insulating
Disadvantages
- Porous (harbours bacteria)
- Difficult to clean
- Rough
- Unattractive

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29
Q

What are the 4 different types of kennels?

A
  • H Block - specialist kennels housing +++ animals
  • Parasol - Similar to corridor but animals can’t see each other
  • Run access - Usually used by pet owners
  • Corridor - Most common, suitable for medium to large boarding kennels
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30
Q

Why is heat needed in accommodation?

A
  • Provide warmth and comfort
  • Rapid drying after cleaning and disinfecting
  • Lower risk of respiratory disease as less condensation
  • Comfortable working conditions for staff
  • Prevent frost and damp damage
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31
Q

What temperature should a hospital accommodation remain at?

A

Between 18 - 21°C for patients that are ill and recovering

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32
Q

What temperature should boarding kennels not drop below?

A
  • 7°C
  • 10°C for sleeping areas
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33
Q

What are the different types of heating methods in accommodation?

A
  • Central heating - may need additional kennel heating
  • Electric fan - moved dust, spread airborne diseases, expensive to run
  • Underfloor heating - hard to remove f+
  • Portable heaters - long time to heat, can get too hot
  • Infra-red lamps - can be directed to specific area, needs thermostat to prevent overheating
  • Heated beds/pads - Risk of burns and overheating
  • Hot water bottles - Risk of burns and scalds
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34
Q

It is vital that sufficient day and night lighting is provided in accommodation, why?

A

Dogs and cats require lighting during daytime hours to
- promote activity
- mental stimulation
- prevent boredom

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35
Q

Why is good ventilation essential in animal accomodation?

A
  • Provide clean air for staff and animals, removes odours, fumes and gases
  • Reduce risk of airborne disease cross contamination
  • Controls humidity
  • Assists in temperature regulation
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36
Q

What are the 2 types of ventilation?

A
  • Passive - fresh air; open windows, doors, vents - Ineffective ventilation when used alone in kennels
  • Active - Actively pulls in fresh air and forces out stale air - extractor fans, air conditioning systems
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37
Q

What are 2 important factors when designing accommodation?

A
  • Access to electricity and water
  • Minimal noise - sound proofing for reduced stress
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38
Q

Accommodation must provide enough space for what?

A

For each animal to
- Feed
- Sleep
- Sit
- Lie down with limbs extended
- Stretch and move around

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39
Q

What are the recommended short-term kennel sizes for dogs up to 60cm at shoulder?

A
  • Height - 1.85m
  • Exercise area - 2.46m squared
  • Sleep area - 1.9m squared
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40
Q

What are the recommended short-term kennel sizes for dogs over 60cm at shoulder?

A
  • Height - 1.85m
  • Exercise area - 3.35m squared
  • Sleep area - 1.9m squared
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41
Q

What are the recommended short-term cattery sizes for one cat?

A
  • Height - 1.85m
  • Exercise area - 1.7m squared
  • Sleep area - 0.85m squared
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42
Q

What are the recommended short-term cattery sizes for up to 3 cats?

A
  • Height - 1.85m
  • Exercise area - 3m squared
  • Sleep area - 1.5m squared
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43
Q

What are the important design points for kennels?

A
  • Separated by solid/chain wire partitions - physical contact impossible
  • Easy cleaning
  • Easy to control disease
  • Impervious, solid and washable surfaces
  • Raised sleeping area
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44
Q

What are the important design points for exercise yards?

A

Points to be considered
- Cross-contamination reduction
- Ease of cleaning
- Security
- Prevent fighting

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45
Q

What are important design points for catteries?

A
  • Exercise area - access at least twice daily for no less than 1 hour
    Enrichment
  • Each unit to have hideaway
  • Higher area with cat ladder
  • Bedding placed in high area
  • Provide scratching posts and toys
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46
Q

Why is hospital accommodation smaller than kennel accommodation?

A

Designed to be restrictive as patients require rest

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47
Q

What is the minimum recommended size of hospital kennel for a cat?

A
  • Height - 45.72cm
  • Width - 45.72cm
  • Depth - 72.39cm
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48
Q

What is the minimum recommended size of hospital kennel for a small dog?

A
  • Height - 45.72cm
  • Width - 60.96cm
  • Depth - 72.39cm
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49
Q

What is the minimum recommended size of hospital kennel for a medium dog?

A

Height - 76.2cm
Width - 76.2cm
Depth - 72.39cm

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50
Q

What is the minimum recommended size of hospital kennel for a large dog?

A
  • Height - 76.2cm
  • Width - 121.92cm
  • Depth - 72.39cm
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51
Q

What is the minimum recommended size of hospital kennel for a giant dog?

A
  • Height - 91.44cm
  • Width - 152.4cm
  • Depth - 72.39cm
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52
Q

What is the minimum recommended size of hospital kennel for a walk-in kennel?

A
  • Height - 180cm
  • Width - 140cm
  • Depth - 110cm
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53
Q

Which situation might require adaptation for specialist accommodation?

A
  • Whelping bitches
  • Long vs short stay hospitalised patients
  • Intensive care
  • Food chain issues - House prey and predators separately
  • Isolation - Non vacc’d/young, dog reactive
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54
Q

What is the minumum size for rabbit housing for a pair of average sized rabbit?

A

3m x 2m x 1m

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55
Q

What are the specifications for rabbit housing?

A
  • Able to stand on hind legs without ears touching top
  • Able to stretch, exercise and display normal behaviour
  • Protected from extremes of temperature, weatherproof
  • Access to grazing for part of the day
  • Secure from predators
  • Environmental enrichment provided
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56
Q

What measures should be taken to avoid stress in hospitalised rabbits?

A
  • Away from predator species
  • Protected from noise
  • Hides provided
  • Companion rabbit if applicable
  • Litter tray if used to using one
  • Temperature 21-23°C max as unable to sweat
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57
Q

Why must stress be reduced in hospitalised rabbits?

A

Stress can lead to
- Delayed recovery
- Anorexia
- Gut stasis

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58
Q

Why must accommodation within the veterinary practice be cleaned and disinfected daily?

A

To prevent and control risk of disease

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59
Q

What is the minimum requirement for accommodation cleaning and disinfecting?

A
  • Cleaned and disinfected once daily
  • Excretions removed as necessary
  • Not to be left wet after cleaning
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60
Q

Should hospitalised patients accommodation be cleaned and disinfected more?

A

Yes
- More than once daily
- Especially with infectious cases

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61
Q

What is the definition of quarantine?

A

Segregation of individuals of unknown disease status for a period, prior to entering new premises or country, to limit risk of disease introduction

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62
Q

What is the definition of isolation?

A

Physical segregation of animal or group of animals suspected or proven to have a contagious disease, to prevent the transmission to other susceptible individuals

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63
Q

What is needed for quarantine kennels?

A
  • Security
  • No communal areas or drains
  • Roofs on runs
  • Double inward opening doors
  • Good health and safety
  • Clear identification
  • Hygiene - use of approved disinfectants
  • Restricted access
  • Good health records
  • Vaccinated within 24 hours of arrival
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64
Q

An isolation unit should be designed to:

A
  • Prevent cross infection
  • Be easily cleaned and disinfected
  • Contain minimal equipment
  • Contain washing facilities and PPE
  • Contain bowls, litter trays, waste bags, thermometers
  • Contain ventilation
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65
Q

Should visitors be allowed into isolation?

A

No

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66
Q

What is active exercise?

A

Animal is encouraged to make movements itself, increases muscle strength and improves awareness of position and movement of the body

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67
Q

What is passive exercise?

A

Animal is unable to move on own accord, improved strength, coordination and range of motion. Should be undertaken 2-4 times a day

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68
Q

What conditions have a contraindication to active and passive exercise?

A
  • Fractures
  • Neoplasia
  • Infection
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69
Q

When should care be taken while undertaking active or passive exercise?

A

Must only be performed if directed by a VS
- Geriatric
- Underlying health conditions

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70
Q

What exercises can active physiotherapy include?

A
  • Limb stretches - sit then stand
  • Walking - over poles, difference surfaces and slopes
  • Balance - wobble boards and trampolines
  • Hydrotherapy
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71
Q

What is passive physiotherapy good for?

A
  • Promote blood and lymph circulation
  • Relaxation
  • Pain relief
  • Prevent stiffness
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72
Q

How often should passive physiotherapy be performed on recumbent patients?

A

Every 2 - 4 hours

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73
Q

What exercises can passive physiotherapy include?

A
  • Limb stretches
  • Joint mobilisation - Flexion and extension of the limb
  • Massage - stroking, effleurage, coupage
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74
Q

Why is exercise important?

A
  • Maintain health
  • Prevent obesity
  • Mental well being
  • Prevent behavioural problems
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75
Q

What factors need to be considered with exercise?

A
  • Breed
  • Age
  • Weight
  • Physical characteristics
  • Underlying health conditions
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76
Q

How much exercise is enough for dogs?

A
  • Daily walks may be enough
  • Some may need more intense workouts
  • Aerobic exercise (enough to pant) 3 times a week
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77
Q

What methods of exercise are available for dogs?

A
  • Walking
  • Running
  • Swimming
  • Fetch
  • Jumping
  • Toys
  • Agility
  • Flyball
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78
Q

How much exercise is enough for cats?

A
  • At least 15 to 30 minutes of activity a day
  • Physical exercise and better bonding
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79
Q

What methods of exercise are there for cats?

A
  • Climbing
  • Hunting
  • Jumping
  • Running
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80
Q

What enrichment can promote exercise for indoor cats?

A
  • Towers
  • Fishing toys
  • Clockwork mice
  • Wheels
  • Hiding food
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81
Q

Why is exercise important for rabbits?

A
  • Maintain good health and normal behaviour
  • Promotes gut mobility
  • Can become aggressive, withdrawn, lethargic and obese with lack of exercise
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82
Q

How much exercise is enough for rabbits?

A
  • Plenty of time outside cage
  • Can roam enclosed area, entire room or house
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83
Q

What methods of exercise are available for rabbits?

A
  • Tubes
  • Digging
  • Running
  • Foraging
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84
Q

What enrichment is available to promote exercise in rabbits?

A
  • Sandpits
  • Scatter feeding
  • Runs
  • Essential to be predator proof
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85
Q

Are the exercise needs the same for every life stage?

A
  • Young animals should not be over exercised, gradually increase exercise as grows within recommended guides
  • Recommended guides to exercise for different breeds, important to monitor body score and adjust accordingly
  • Senior and geriatric still need exercise to promote muscle and joint health, they should exercise less than younger adults, important to think about body score and other health issues, monitor other things like stiffness and pain
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86
Q

Why is grooming important?

A
  • Matted coat can harbour bacteria and hide skin conditions
  • Dull or balding coat indicative to medical conditions
  • Regular coat inspections when grooming allows for monitoring of changes
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87
Q

What are the different categories of dog hair type?

A
  • Smooth coat
  • Double coat
  • Silky coat
  • Wire hair
  • Wool coat
  • Felt coat
  • Corded coat
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88
Q

What are the characteristics and examples of smooth coat dogs?

A
  • Boxer, bulldog, dalmatian, dachshund, chihuahua
  • Very easy to groom
  • Only require brushing and occasional bath
  • Bristle brush works well
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89
Q

What are the characteristics and examples of double coat dogs?

A
  • Long haired german shepherd, rough collie
  • Long top coat, thick soft undercoat
  • Don’t generally get very dirty or develop matts
  • May require occasional trim for ease of care and cleanliness
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90
Q

What are the characteristics and examples of silky coat dogs?

A
  • Afghan hound, spaniels, setters, some retrievers, bearded collies
  • Medium to long
  • Fine texture
  • Need to avoid tangling
  • Blow dry entire coat with pin brush to ensure no tangles are missed
  • Trim paws and pads
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91
Q

What are the characteristics and examples of wire hair dogs?

A
  • Border terrier, irish terrier, scottish terrier
  • Thick, harsh outer coat, soft under coat
  • Wire coat doesn’t shed, can be good for allergies
  • Best way to groom is plucking with fingers and stripping knife - time consuming
  • This stimulates skin and allows new healthy hair to grow
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92
Q

What are the characteristics and examples of wool coat dogs?

A
  • Poodle, curly coated retriever, bedlington, irish water spaniel, bichon frise
  • Curls
  • Tangles and knots easily, can become dry
  • Always use conditioning spray before brushing to avoid breakage
  • Monthly groom with clippers unless showing
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93
Q

What are the characteristics and examples of felt coat dogs?

A
  • Bergamasco
  • Ensure felts don’t get too wide
  • Grooming and bathing needed for skin health
  • Lots of coat care for first 3 years while felts develop
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94
Q

What are the characteristics and examples of corded coat dogs?

A
  • Hungarian puli, komondor
  • Various cord types, small round to wide flat ribbons
  • Need to be kept clean and dust free
  • Regular bathing keeps cords and skin clean
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95
Q

What types of coat can cats have?

A
  • Long hair
  • Short hair
  • Hairless
  • Curly coat
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96
Q

What types of hair are cat coats made from?

A
  • Guard hairs - long coarse outer coat
  • Awn hairs - intermediate length
  • Down hairs - fine, soft, fluffy, closest to skin for insulation
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97
Q

What are the characteristics and examples of long hair cats?

A
  • Persian, himalayan, ragdoll
  • Need the most grooming assistance
  • Hair can grow up to 5 inches and shed lots
  • Tangle easily and get debris stuck in hair
  • Use fingers to remove tangles
  • Once knots removed, use brush to smooth hair
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98
Q

What are the characteristics and examples of short hair cats?

A
  • Siamese, Burmese
  • Hair usually measures less than 2 inches
  • Brush occasionally
  • Use comb to remove tangles
  • Use brush to smooth coat
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99
Q

What are the characteristics and examples of hairless cats?

A
  • Sphynx
  • Appear hairless
  • Downy hair only, short and close to skin
  • Care for skin; remove grease, apply suncream
  • Sensitive to extreme temperatures
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100
Q

What are the characteristics and examples of curly coat cats?

A
  • Devon rex
  • Curly awn hairs, no guard hairs
  • Coat easily broken
  • Can be greasy, may need bathing
  • Sensitive to extreme temperatures
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101
Q

Why is nail trimming important?

A
  • Long nails put stress on paw by forcing weight onto back of pad
  • Long nails can scratch skin, furniture, etc.
  • Cats can develop ingrown claws, especially geriatric
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102
Q

How should a nail be cut?

A
  • Cut below quick at 45° angle
  • Have blood clotting product on hand in case the quick gets cut
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103
Q

What are the symptoms of ear problems?

A
  • Frequently shake head
  • Rub ears on floor
  • Scratch ear with foot
  • Smell/discharge from ears
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104
Q

How often should rabbits be brushed?

A
  • Regularly, depending on breed
  • Daily during moulting to avoid excessive hair ingestion
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105
Q

What tools should be used to groom a rabbit and why?

A
  • Soft bristle or rubber brush
  • Skin is thin, sensitive and delicate
  • If using water only do spot treatments and dry area immediately
  • Loose heat easily
  • Clip nails with clippers when necessary
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106
Q

What should a handler check a rabbit for when grooming them?

A
  • Remove any matts
  • Check for faeces and urine scalding
  • Especially important in summer when more flies are around to avoid flystrike
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107
Q

What is the canine dental formulae for a puppy?

A

I (3/3) C (1/1) PM (3/3) M (0/0)
Total number of teeth = 14 x 2 = 28 teeth
These are not present at birth, complete by day 60

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108
Q

What is the canine dental formulae for adult dogs?

A

I (3/3) C (1/1) PM (4/4) M (2/3)
Total number of teeth = 21 x 2 = 42 teeth
Permanent, emerge at 4 months old

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109
Q

What is the feline dental formulae for a kitten?

A

I (3/3) C(1/1) PM (3/2) M (0/0)
Total number of teeth = 13 x 2 = 26 teeth
These are not present at birth, complete by day 60

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110
Q

What is the feline dental formulae for an adult cat?

A

I (3/3) C (1/1) PM (3/2) M (1/1)
Total number of teeth = 15 x 2 = 30 teeth
Permanent, emerge at 4 months old

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111
Q

What are the 2 main forms of dental disease?

A
  • Gingivitis
  • Periodontitis
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112
Q

What is gingivitis?

A
  • Reversible condition
  • Inflammation of the gingiva
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113
Q

What is periodontitis?

A
  • Irreversible
  • Progression from gingivitis
  • Affects gingiva, alveolar bone, periodontal ligament and cementum of tooth
  • Gums will recede and teeth loosen
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114
Q

How are teeth held firmly in the animals mouth?

A

The peridontium must be healthy

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115
Q

What is glossitis?

A

Inflammation of the tongue

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116
Q

What is stomatitis?

A

Inflammation of the oral mucosa

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117
Q

What is gingival overgrowth?

A
  • Enlarged gingiva causing pockets
  • Hereditary in some breeds - Boxers
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118
Q

What are resorptive lesions?

A
  • Resorption of root
  • Progresses to crown, results in holes in enamel
  • Gingiva often grow lesions in cats
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119
Q

What is furcation?

A
  • Tooth roots divide
  • Root becomes exposed and visible
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120
Q

What is caries?

A
  • Dental decay
  • Usually in molars that trap food
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121
Q

What is chronic gingivostomatitis?

A
  • Seen in cats
  • Can be associated with viral infections
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122
Q

What is plaque?

A
  • Sticky, colourless film of bacteria
  • Forms on teeth constantly
  • Begin to reform 24 hours after scale and polish
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123
Q

What is tartar?

A
  • Accumulation of hardened palque and mineral depositis
  • Yellow or brown in colour
  • Can only be removed through dental scaling
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124
Q

What does Schedule 3 (2002) of The Veterinary Surgeons Act (1966) allow nurses to do?

A
  • Perform minor surgical procedures
  • Without entering a body cavity
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125
Q

What dental work does the RCVS Code of Conduct state nurses can carry out?

A
  • Nurses and student nurses under direction of a veterinary surgeon
  • Routine dental hygiene work
  • Extraction of teeth using only fingers
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126
Q

What are some precautions needed for the animals safety when scaling and polishing teeth?

A
  • Intubated with well fitting, cuffed ET tube
  • Keep patients mouth lower than pharynx
  • Use of throat packs, wring out/change regularly
  • Ensure patient is kept dry, avoid hypothermia
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127
Q

What are some health and safety precautions that should be considered for staff when scaling and polishing teeth?

A
  • Rinse mouth with chlorhexidine prior to scaling to reduce bacterial aerosol
  • Ensure room is well ventilated
  • PPE - Goggles, mask, gloves
  • Consider position and height adjustable equipment to avoid excessive bending over table
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128
Q

What needs to be considered with the technique of scaling and polishing teeth?

A
  • Tip of oscillates at ultrasonic frequencies
  • Remove larger calculus with forceps
  • Never use point of scaler directly on tooth, use edge
  • Ensure plently of water coolant is used
  • Move off tooth quickly to avoid heat damage
  • Polishing removes non-visible plaque and covers minor scratches
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129
Q

What is the Triadan Numbering System?

A

3 digit numbers representing each tooth, found in dental charts

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130
Q

What is the veterinary nurses role in dentistry?

A
  • Using dental charts, recording clinical findings
  • Dental x-rays
  • Scale and polishing
  • Dental nurse clinics
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131
Q

What is the aim of dental nurse clinics?

A
  • Educate owner on dental homecare to prevent dental disease
  • Oral examination
  • Discuss dental products
  • Demonstrate tooth brushing
  • Discuss dental diets
  • Prevention is better than cure
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132
Q

What are the 2 types of dental homecare?

A
  • Physical - tooth brushing, chews, diets
  • Chemical - mouthwash, gels, water additives
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133
Q

What should owners avoid to protect their pets teeth?

A
  • Stone chewing
  • Hard chews (antlers)
  • Tennis balls, abrasive dirt sticks in fibres
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134
Q

What is the rabbit dental formulae?

A

I (2/1) C (0/0) PM (3/2) M (3/3) = 28 teeth

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135
Q

How quickly do rabbit teeth grow and why is this important?

A
  • 2mm per week
  • Essential to grind down regularly
  • Achieved through good diet, grass and hay
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136
Q

What are 2 common dental diseases in rabbits?

A
  • Incisor malocclusion
  • Molar malocclusion
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137
Q

What is incisor malocclusion in rabbits?

A
  • Misalignment of teeth, results in poor wear and overgrowth
  • Lower incisors grow into hard palate or protrude from mouth
  • Upper incisors curl around lower or impinge on mandible
  • Common in brachycephalic breeds
  • Can be secondary to overgrown molars
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138
Q

What is molar malocclusion in rabbits?

A
  • Misalignment of teeth, results in poor wear and overgrowth
  • Abnormal enamel spurs on crowns
  • Causes trauma to tongue and cheeks
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139
Q

What are the clinical signs of dental disease in rabbits?

A
  • Poor grooming habits
  • Ocular and nasal discharge
  • Weight loss
  • Diarrhoea
  • Anorexia
  • Gastrointestinal stasis
  • Hypersalivation
  • Exophthalmos (eye bulging)
  • Draining tracts on face/mandible
  • Swollen jaw
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140
Q

How can rabbit dental disease be treated?

A
  • Teeth should only be burred, never clipped
  • Protect soft tissue while burring
  • Dental x-rays
  • Potential removal of incisors if recurring
  • Provide analgesia
  • Nursing care, syringe feed, IVFT if anorexic
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141
Q

At what angle should nails be trimmed?

A

45 degrees

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142
Q

What is a biological vector?

A
  • Also called intermediate host
  • Some development of organism must take place
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143
Q

What is a mechanical vector?

A
  • Transmit infection
  • No development takes place
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144
Q

What is a paratenic host?

A

Host must be eaten to pass on infection

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145
Q

What are the 3 types of endoparasites?

A
  • Nematodes (Round Worms)
  • Cestodes (Tape Worms)
  • Protozoa
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146
Q

What nematodes are there?

A
  • Ascarids (Toxocara canis, cati, leonina)
  • Hookworms
  • Whipworms
  • Heartworms
  • Lungworms
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147
Q

What do nematodes look like?

A

Smooth, non-segmented appearence

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148
Q

What issue will kittens and puppies suffer from with heavy worm burdens?

A
  • Poor growth
  • Poor development
  • Intestinal impactions
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149
Q

Ascarids have a ‘free-living direct life cycle’, what does this mean?

A

Live first part of life cycle in the environment

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150
Q

What are the clinical signs of toxocara cati?

A
  • Distended abdomen
  • Weakness
  • Diarrhoea
  • Vomiting
  • Abdominal pain
  • Dull coat
  • Weight loss
  • Worms in faeces or vomit
  • Pneumonia if migrate to lungs
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151
Q

How is toxocara cati transmitted?

A
  • From mother through milk
  • Ingestion of eggs in environment
  • Ingestion of paratenic host
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152
Q

Is toxocara cati host specific?

A

Yes - Only seen in cats

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153
Q

How can toxocara cati be controlled?

A

Through correct worming protocol
- Anthelmintic treatment from 3 weeks
- Treat every 2 weeks until 8 weeks old
- Treat monthly from 8 weeks to 6 months
- Treat every 1-3 months from 6 months old

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154
Q

What are the clinical signs of toxocara canis?

A
  • Noisy breathing
  • Cough
  • Nasal discharge
  • Vomiting
  • Diarrhoea
  • Stunted growth rate
  • Distended abdomen
  • Pale mucous membranes
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155
Q

Is toxocara canis host specific?

A

Yes - Only seen in dogs

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156
Q

Is toxocara canis zoonotic?

A

Yes

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157
Q

How is toxocara canis transmitted?

A
  • In utero around 42nd day, transmitted via placenta
  • Migrates through liver and lungs of puppy, then coughed up and swallowed
  • Eggs in environment
  • Through mothers milk
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158
Q

How can zoonotic transmission of toxocara canis be controlled?

A
  • Use poo scoopers
  • Thoroughly wash hands after handling puppies and before eating
  • Avoid handling puppies not thoroughly wormed
  • Don’t allow dogs to lick hands and faces
  • Consider monthly worming when dogs are around children and immunosuppressed
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159
Q

What is toxocara cati?

A

A nematode (Roundworm) that only affects cats

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160
Q

What is toxocara canis?

A

A nematode (Roundworm) that only affects dogs

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161
Q

What is the aim of endoparasitic control against toxocara canis?

A
  • Prevent disease in puppies
  • Prevent eggs being shed into the environment
  • Prevent children being infected
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162
Q

How is toxocara canis controlled prenatally?

A
  • Anthelmintic treatment for bitch before whelping
  • Fenbendazole kills migrating larvae
  • Treat from 40th day to 2 days post whelping
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163
Q

How is toxocara canis controlled post whelping?

A
  • Treat puppies from 2 weeks old to 2 weeks post weaning
  • Fenbendazole or other licensed anthelmintic for puppies
  • Treat monthly from 8 weeks old until 6 months
  • Treat every 3 months from 6 months old
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164
Q

What is toxocara leonina?

A
  • Nematode (Roundworm) affects cats and dogs
  • No prenatal infection
  • Seen in adolescence/older animals
  • No associated clinical signs
  • Does not normally become a problem
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165
Q

What species do hookworms infect?

A
  • Dogs
  • Cats
  • Urban foxes
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166
Q

What do hookworms look like?

A
  • Short stouted with hooked heads
  • Each type has a variation of head shape
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167
Q

What is the most common species of hook worm in the UK?

A
  • Unicinaria stenocephala
  • Occurs in small intestines of dogs
  • Common in kennels; racing or hunting dogs
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168
Q

How are animals infected by hookworms?

A
  • Puppies infected through bitches milk
  • Animals commonly infected by larvae penetrating skin or being ingested
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169
Q

What can heavy burdens of hookworms cause?

A
  • Anaemia
  • Diarrhoea
  • Weight loss
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170
Q

What is a whipworm?

A
  • Trichuris Vulpis
  • Nematode only infecting dogs
  • Whip-like appearance
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171
Q

What is a trichuris vulpis?

A

Whip worm

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172
Q

What do whipworm eggs look like and how does this help them survive?

A
  • Trichuris vulpis eggs oval shape
  • Thick shell with polar like plugs
  • Enables resistance to temperature extremes
  • Infective 1st stage larvae in eggs can survive in ground for several years
  • Causes reoccurring problems
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173
Q

What area of the dogs body is effected by whipworms?

A
  • Trichuris vulpis burrow and lay eggs in large intestines
  • Heavy burdens cause bloody, mucous diarrhoea
  • Clinical disease is rare in UK
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174
Q

What is heart worm?

A
  • Dirofilaria immitis
  • Nematode (Roundworm) infecting dogs and cats
  • More common in dogs than cats
  • Not native to UK, found in warmer countries
  • Consider treatment when travelling
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175
Q

How is heart worm transmitted?

A
  • Intermediate host, mosquito
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176
Q

What is the 1st stage of Dirofilaria immitis (heartworm) larvae called?

A

Microfilariae

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177
Q

Where is dirofilaria immitis found?

A

In pulmonary vessels of the heart

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178
Q

What happens if an animal is infected with dirofilaria immitis?

A
  • Single worm in cat has severe implications
  • Light infection in dogs can be tolerated
  • Large burden can lead to right sided heart failure
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179
Q

What is lung worm?

A
  • Angiostronglus Vasorum
  • Infects dogs and sometimes foxes
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180
Q

What is Angiostronglus Vasorum?

A

Lung worm affecting dogs and foxes

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181
Q

How are dogs and foxes infected by lungworm?

A
  • Dogs/foxes ingest slug infected with larvae
  • Eggs live in pulmonary artery, travel to alveoli
  • Develops and hatches, larvae travels to tissues
  • Cough larvae up then swallow and excrete in faeces
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182
Q

What are the clinical signs of lung worm in dogs and foxes?

A
  • Dyspnoea
  • Coughing
  • Coagulopathies
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183
Q

How is lung worm diagnosed in dogs and foxes?

A
  • Faecal sample
  • Radiography
  • Bronchial Alveolar Lavage (BAL) sample
  • Blood testing
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184
Q

What species of lung worm infects cats?

A

Aelurostrongylus Abstrusus

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185
Q

What is Aelurostrongylus Abstrusus?

A

Lung worm infecting cats

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186
Q

How does lung worm infect cats?

A
  • Ingest snail or slug (rare)
  • Ingest paratenic host infected with larvae
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187
Q

What are the clinical signs for lungworm in cats?

A
  • Adult lung worm live in lung tissue
  • Small amount not normally a clinical problem
  • Large burden can cause coughing
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188
Q

How is lung worm diagnosed in cats?

A
  • Faecal sample containing larvae
  • Does not produce eggs, only larvae
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189
Q

How are cats treated for round worms?

A
  • Most common milbemycin - oral tablet
  • Spot on treatment available
  • To treat lung worm, milbemycin or combination of spot ons every month is required
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190
Q

What is a cestode?

A

Tapeworm

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191
Q

How many body parts does a cestode have and what are they?

A

3
- Scolex (head)
- Proglottids (segments)
- Maturing segments (bottom end)

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192
Q

What happens to a tapeworm in an intermediate host?

A

Development of their immature stage

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193
Q

What are the 3 most common cestodes?

A
  • Taenia Spp
  • Echinococcus Granulosus
  • Dipylidium Caninum
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194
Q

What is Dipylidium Caninum?

A
  • Known as dog tapeworm
  • Can also be seen in cats
  • Most common tapeworm in UK
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195
Q

What is the intermediate host for Dipylidium Caninum?

A

Flea and biting louse are intermediate hosts for dog tapeworm

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196
Q

How are dogs and cats infected with Dipylidium Caninum?

A
  • Tapeworms develop into infective stage in adult flea
  • Fleas are ingested by infested cats and dogs when grooming
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197
Q

How is Dipylidium Caninum diagnosed?

A
  • ‘Egg packet’ segments visible around anus and in faeces
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198
Q

What are the clinical signs of Dipylidium Caninum?

A
  • May not cause symptoms
  • Heavy burdens cause weight loss and GI signs
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199
Q

What is Taenia Spp?

A
  • Tapeworm infecting domesticated animals
  • Intermediate hosts are rabbits, sheep, ruminants
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200
Q

How are dogs infected with Taenia Spp?

A

Eating raw meat, uncooked or offal containing larval cysts

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201
Q

How are cats infected with Taenia Spp?

A
  • Eating prey with intermediate level tapeworms
  • E.g. rabbits
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202
Q

What is the difference between Dipylidium Caninum and Taenia Spp?

A
  • Same life cycle
  • Different intermediate hosts
    DC = fleas TS = mammals
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203
Q

How is Taenia Spp diagnosed?

A
  • Identify segments in faeces
  • Rarely, eggs in faeces seen under microscope
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204
Q

What is Echinococcus Granulosus?

A
  • Very rare tapeworm
  • 2 areas of uk dogs have access to feed on sheep carcasses in hills of countryside
  • Zoonotic - causes serioud disease
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205
Q

Is Echinococcus Granulosus zoonotic?

A
  • Yes
  • Causes hyatid disease
  • Hyatid cysts form in liver and lungs
  • Cause serious disease
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206
Q

What are proglottids?

A

Segments of tape worms

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207
Q

How many proglottids do Echinococcus Granulosus have?

A

Only 3
- Immature
- Mature
- Gravid

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208
Q

How is Echinococcus Granulosus diagnosed?

A
  • Segments (prolottids) unlikely seen in faeces
  • Visually see adult worms in intestines
  • Thousands can be found
  • Can remain infected for 2 years without treatment
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209
Q

What are the intermediate hosts for Echinococcus Granulosus?

A

Ruminants, including horses
- Hyatid cysts found in liver, lungs and other organs

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210
Q

How are cestodes treated?

A
  • Same protocols as roundworms for tapeworms
  • Broad spectrum or specific anthelmintics
  • Some spot ons DO NOT cover tapeworms
  • Any animal with fleas or lice should be treated
  • Hunting cats should be treated
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211
Q

What worms does the anthelmintic Pyrantel cover?

A

Nematodes (Roundworms)

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212
Q

What worms does the anthelmintic Praziquantel cover?

A

Cestodes (Tapeworms)

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213
Q

What worms does the anthelmintic Milbemycin cover?

A
  • Nematodes (Roundworms)
  • Whipworms
  • Lungworms
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214
Q

What worms does the anthelmintic Fenbendazole cover?

A
  • Nematodes (Roundworms)
  • Whipworms
  • Hookworms
  • Taenia Spp Cestodes (Tapeworms)
  • Some Lungworms
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215
Q

What are protozoa?

A

Small unicellular organisms

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216
Q

What are the 4 types of protozoa?

A
  • Coccidia
  • Hammondia
  • Giardia
  • Trichomonas
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217
Q

What are the 3 types of Coccidia protozoa?

A
  • Eimeria Spp
  • Crytosporidium parvum
  • Toxoplasma Gondii
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218
Q

What is coccidia?

A
  • Protozoal parasite
  • Causes marked D+ in young animals
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219
Q

What is Eimeria Spp?

A
  • Type of coccidia causing coccidiosis
  • Infects rabbits, live stock, horses, birds
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220
Q

What are the clinical signs of Eimeria Spp in rabbits?

A

Emaciation from D+

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221
Q

How is Eimeria Spp diagnosed and controlled?

A
  • Identification of oocysts in faeces
  • High cleaning and welfare standards
  • Ensure no D+ or faeces in rabbit feeding area
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222
Q

What is Cryptosporidium Parvum?

A
  • Small protozoa parasite found in epithelium of SI
  • Infects puppies and kittens that ingest sporulated oocysts
  • Causes D+
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223
Q

Is Cryptosporidium Parvum zoonotc?

A
  • Yes
  • Causes severe, painful D+
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224
Q

How is Cryptosporidium Parvum diagnosed?

A

identification of oocysts in faeces

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225
Q

How is Cryptosporidium Parvum controlled?

A
  • No effective treatment
  • Barrier nursing
  • Extreme cleanliness
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226
Q

What is Toxoplasma Gondii?

A
  • Internal coccidia parasite
  • Definitive (final) host is the cat
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227
Q

Is Toxoplasma Gondii Zoonotic?

A
  • Yes
  • Dangerous in pregnant and immunosuppressed
  • Can cause spontaneous abortion, congenital defects
  • Flu symptoms in adults
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228
Q

How does Toxoplasma Gondii effect sheep?

A
  • Pregnant ewes can have spontaneous abortions
  • Vaccination available for sheep
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229
Q

How is Toxoplasma Gondii controlled?

A
  • Wear gloves for gardening
  • Pregnant not to empty litter trays
  • Pregnant should not lamb ewes
  • Ensure meat is thoroughly cooked
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230
Q

How is Toxoplasma Gondii diagnosed?

A
  • Identification of oocysts in faeces
  • Serological diagnoses via antibodies
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231
Q

What happens to cat infected with Toxoplasma Gondii?

A
  • Usually show no clinical signs
  • Excrete oocysts for 10 days
  • Will become immune and stop producing oocysts
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232
Q

What is Hammondia?

A
  • Protozoa parasite
  • Rodents are intermediate host
  • Cats are definitive hosts
  • Reproduction in intestines, oocysts in faeces
  • No clinical signs, not zoonotic
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233
Q

What is Giardia Spp?

A
  • Flagellate protozoa in SI of humans and domestic animals
  • Some species are zoonotic, some host specific
  • Puppies are most at risk of becoming infected
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234
Q

What are the clinical signs of Giardia Spp?

A
  • Can be asymptomatic
  • Chronic or transient D+
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235
Q

How is Giardia Spp diagnosed?

A
  • Cysts in faecal samples
  • 3 day pooled sample for lab analysis
  • Cysts passed intermittently in small numbers
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236
Q

How is Giardia Spp treated?

A
  • Fenbendazole anthelmintic or Metronidozole
  • Cleaning and hygiene very important
  • Eliminate cysts to prevent further outbreak
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237
Q

What is Tritrichomonas Foetus?

A
  • Unicellular flagellate protozoa
  • Causes chronic D+ in cats
  • Difficult to treat, may need off-license drugs
  • Can occur as co-infection with other pathogens
  • Diagnosed via visual of parasite on smear
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238
Q

What is Encephalitozoon Cuniculi?

A
  • E. Cuniculi
  • Microspordian parasite seen in rabbits
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239
Q

Is Encephalitozoon Cuniculi zoonotic?

A

Yes

240
Q

How do rabbits become infected with Encephalitozoon Cuniculi?

A
  • Inhaling or ingesting spores
  • From environment or infected rabbit urine
241
Q

What are the clinical signs of Encephalitozoon Cuniculi in rabbits?

A
  • Ataxia
  • Paralysis
  • Urinary incontinence
  • Seizures
  • Weight loss
  • Polydipsia/polyuria
  • Can cause renal and CNS damage
242
Q

How is Encephalitozoon Cuniculi diagnosed and treated in rabbits?

A
  • Can lie dormant
  • Clinical signs often only apparent after stress
  • Treated by 28 day course of Fenbendazole
  • Possibility of recurrence
243
Q

What is Leishmania Spp?

A
  • Flagellate protozoa
  • More prevalent due to animal travel
  • Transmitted through sand flies
  • Seen in warmer Mediterranean countries
  • Normally seen in dogs
  • Cats and humans can be infected
244
Q

Is Leishmania Spp zoonotic?

A

Yes

245
Q

What are clinical signs of Leishmania Spp?

A
  • Causes mucocutaneous and visceral disease in dogs, humans and other mammals
  • Localised alopecia and skin lesions
  • Weight loss
  • Renal problems
246
Q

What is Babesia Spp?

A
  • Parasites that infect RBC of dogs
  • Causes profound anaemia
  • Transmitted via ticks
  • More common in central and south europe
  • Some cases reported in UK
247
Q

What are the clinical signs of Babesia Spp?

A
  • Causes acute disease
  • Profound anaemia
  • Pyrexia
  • Jaundice
  • Without rapid treatment, causes death
248
Q

What are Prions?

A
  • Distorted version of normal proteins
  • Found in animal and human brains
  • Potentially in other living tissue
  • Prions cause fatal neurological diseases
  • Causes mad cow disease (Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy), Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD) and Scrapie disease
249
Q

What is an ectoparasite?

A
  • Lives on outside of host animal
250
Q

What is an insect?

A
  • 3 pairs of legs
  • 3 body sections
  • Head, thorax, abdomen
251
Q

What is an arachnid?

A
  • 4 pairs of legs
  • 2 body sections
  • Cephalothorax, abdomen
  • Mites and ticks are arachnids
252
Q

What does the term macroscopic mean?

A

Visible to naked eye

253
Q

What deos the term microscopic mean?

A

Only visable under a microscope

254
Q

Whats are the 4 most common types of mites?

A
  • Sarcoptic Scabiei
  • Demodex
  • Otodectes Cynotis
  • Cheyletiella
255
Q

What are Sarcoptes Scabiei?

A
  • Mites - Arachnid
  • Burrowing mite
  • Causes Sarcoptic Mange
  • Small tunnels in skin, lays eggs in pockets
256
Q

What hosts do Sarcoptes Scabiei infect?

A
  • Dogs
  • Foxes
  • Other canids
  • Not zoonotic but can irritate skin
257
Q

How are Sarcoptes Scabiei transmitted?

A
  • Close contact with infected animals
  • Eggs/mites in environment
258
Q

How are Sarcoptes Scabiei diagnosed and what size are they?

A
  • Skin scrapes
  • Blood test
  • Microscopic
259
Q

What are Demodex?

A
  • Mite - Arachnid
  • Lives in hair follicles and sebaceous glands
  • Cigar shaped body
  • Does not always cause problem to host
260
Q

What hosts does Demodex infect?

A
  • Dogs
  • Hamsters
261
Q

How is Demodex diagnosed?

A
  • Skin scrapes
  • Hair plucks
262
Q

How does Demodex effect its host?

A
  • On younger dogs - genetic predisposition
  • On older dogs - immunosuppressed
  • Increase in number cause non-puritic dematitis
  • Localised - small regions on face
  • Generalised - Normally on feet
263
Q

What are Otodectes Cynotis?

A
  • Oval shaped, white ear mite - arachnid
  • Surface feeding mite
  • Causes mange in ears and dark waxy discharge
264
Q

How are Otodectes Cynotis diagnosed and what size are they?

A
  • Examination
  • Ear swab under microscope
  • Macroscopic
265
Q

What are Cheyletiella?

A
  • Walking dandruff
  • Fur mite - arachnid
266
Q

What hosts do Cheyletiella infect?

A
  • Dogs
  • Cats
  • Rabbits - very common during moulting or if not grooming
  • Zoonotic - Causes mild dermatitis
267
Q

How are Cheyletiella diagnosed and what size are they?

A
  • Coat brushing
  • Sellotape strips
  • Macroscopic
268
Q

What are fleas?

A
  • Insect
  • Bite host for blood meal
  • Macroscopic
  • Not zoonotic but will bite
  • Diagnosed by combing fleas or faeces on coat
269
Q

What are the 3 most common types of fleas?

A
  • Ctenocephalides Canis - Dogs
  • Ctenochephalides Felis - Cats
  • Spillopsylla Caniculi - Rabbits
270
Q

What is Flea Allergy Dermatitis (FAD)?

A
  • Animal becomes sensitised to flea allergens
  • exaggerated immunological response
  • severe dermatitis can occur from few bites
271
Q

What are Ctenocephalides Canis?

A
  • Dog flea - most common in kennels
  • Transmits Dipylidium Caninum (worms)
272
Q

What are Ctenocephalides Felis?

A
  • Cat flea - also on dogs
  • Transmits Feline Infectious Anaemia
273
Q

What are Spillopsylla Caniculi?

A
  • Rabbit flea - + cats hunting rabbits
  • Only attaches to face
  • Transmits Myxomatosis
274
Q

What are lice?

A
  • Insects
  • Heavy infestations cause pediculosis
  • Infects dogs, cats, rabbits, rodents, birds
275
Q

What are the 2 families of lice?

A
  • Chewing/biting lice
  • Sucking lice
276
Q

What are the 3 most common lice?

A
  • Trichodectes Canis - Dog biting lice
  • Felicola Subrostratus - Cat biting lice
  • Linognathus Setosus - Sucking lice
277
Q

What are Trichodectes Canis?

A
  • Dog biting lice
  • Infects dogs and wild canids
  • Entire life cycle on host
  • Intermediate host = Dipylidium Caninum
278
Q

How are Trichodectes Canis diagnosed and transmitted?

A
  • Macroscopic
  • Brush, skin scrape, visible on skin
  • Close contact with infected
  • Eggs on fomites
  • Not zoonotic
279
Q

What are Felicola Subrostatus?

A
  • Cat biting lice
  • Host specific to cats
280
Q

How are Felicola Subrostratus diagnosed and transmitted?

A
  • Macroscopic
  • Brush, skin scrape, visible
  • Close contact with infected
  • Eggs on fomites
  • Not zoonotic
281
Q

What are Linognathus Setosus?

A
  • Sucking lice
  • Cause anaemia in large quantities
282
Q

How are Linognathus Setosus diagnosed and transmitted?

A
  • Macroscopic
  • Brush, skin scrape, visible on skin
  • Close contact with infected
  • Eggs on fomites
  • Not zoonotic
283
Q

What is Myiasis?

A
  • Fly strike
  • Infestation of dipteran fly larvae in living tissue
  • Most common green bottles in summer but can be other species
  • Most commonly seen in rabbits
  • Can be seen in other domestic animals
  • Due to poor hygiene
  • Can be fatal if not treated
284
Q

What are microchips?

A
  • Have unique ID numbers linked to database
  • Implanted between scapulae
285
Q

When should dogs be microchipped?

A
  • Microchipping of Dogs Regulations 2015
  • Required for all dogs over 8 weeks
  • Breeders legally obliged to chip and register
286
Q

Who can legally implant microchips?

A
  • Veterinary Surgeon
  • RVN/SVN under direction of VS
  • Completed secretary of state training course
287
Q

What are tattoos?

A
  • Not routinely used for ID in UK
  • May be seen on imported pets
  • Racing greyhounds, Lab animals
288
Q

Where can birds be microchipped?

A

In pectoral muscle

289
Q

Where can chelonia be microchipped?

A

Left hind leg

290
Q

Where can chelonia be microchipped?

A

Left hind leg

291
Q

How can birds be identified other than microchips?

A
  • Leg rings
  • Temporary coloured rings for races
  • Owner details stamped on wings
292
Q

How can rabbits be identified other than microchips?

A
  • Pedigree rabbits being shown have ID rings on their legs
  • Required by British Rabbit Council
293
Q

What dogs need ID tags and what information is required?

A
  • Control of Dogs Order 1992
  • All dogs in a public place
  • Owners name, address, postcode
  • Phone number advisable
294
Q

How can animals be identified in the hospital?

A
  • Clipboard on kennels
  • Temporary paper/plastic hospital tags/collars
295
Q

How can DNA testing be used for identification?

A
  • Prove parentage or breeding
  • Clarify sex of birds and exotic species
  • Check for inherited diseases
  • Cat blood type to check compatibility for breeding
296
Q

What are the Welfare of Animals (Transport) Order 2006?

A
  • Fit for journey
  • Not transported in way that will cause harm
  • Personnel must be trained and competent
  • Must not be at 90% gestation
  • Must not have given birth within last week
  • Vehicle allows disinfection, safe loading, barriers, bedding and ventilation
  • If become ill or injured, vet treatment must be provided
297
Q

When are animal transport certificates and contingency plans in case of problems required?

A

Journeys over 8 hours

298
Q

Who needs a transporter authorisation certificate issued by APHA?

A

Anyone commercially transporting animals over 40 miles

299
Q

What are the signs of a normal dog?

A
  • Happy and alert
  • Tail at normal, relaxed position
  • Moves freely with head held high
  • Jaw relaxed, tongue may loll in mouth
  • Tail wagging when greeting
300
Q

What are the signs of a fearful or anxious dog?

A
  • Avoiding eye contact
  • Unwilling to eat
  • Hackles may be raised
  • Cowering, panting, licking lips, yawning
  • Tail tucked under body
  • May growl or snap if pushed
  • May kennel guard
301
Q

What are the signs of a confident aggressive dog?

A
  • Advances confidently
  • Tail and ears held high
  • Looks straight ahead
  • Bared teeth, snapping, ready to bite
302
Q

What are the signs of a depressed dog?

A
  • Withdrawn, unwilling to interact
  • Off food, sleeping a lot
  • May become snappy
  • Can be seen when separated from owner/other pets
303
Q

What are the signs of a dog in pain?

A
  • Panting
  • Unwilling to move/abnormal gait
  • Vocalising
  • Withdrawn/unwilling to interact
  • Not eating, restless
  • Abnormal posture, stretching, praying position
  • Bed soiling, unwilling to eliminate
  • Snapping
304
Q

What are the signs of a friendly cat?

A
  • Approach without hesitation
  • Tail and head held high
  • Pupils open, not dilated
  • Whiskers held laterally
  • Often purr/greeting sound
  • May push head against person
305
Q

What are the signs of a fearful or anxious cat?

A
  • Pupils enlarged
  • Whiskers bristling
  • Ears flat
  • Mouth open, may hiss, spit
  • Back arched, body turned sideways
  • Tail, fur along back raised
  • Often front paw lifted, ready to strike
306
Q

What are the signs of an aggressive cat?

A
  • Pupils, closed to slit
  • Whiskers bristling forwards
  • Mouth wide open, lips curled back
  • Growling, hissing, spitting
  • Crouches, ready to strike
  • Fur smooth
  • Tail low and close, bristling and swishing
307
Q

What are the signs of a depressed or stressed cat?

A
  • Off food
  • Outburst of aggression
  • Hiding away
  • Inappropriate elimination
  • Excessive grooming
308
Q

What are the signs of cat in pain?

A
  • Hunched, reduced mobilising
  • Off food
  • Aggression
  • Lack of grooming
  • Ears rotated and flat, frowning
  • Hiding, unwilling to interact
  • Vocalisation and hissing
309
Q

How should approaching and restraining dogs be planned ?

A
  • Check notes and ask owner about behaviour
  • Allow time to explore room while talking to owner
  • Observe body language
  • Assess relationship with owner, stay or leave?
  • Aware of trigger stacking
  • Less is more + distraction techniques
310
Q

How should dogs be approached?

A
  • Allow dog to approach you
  • Approachable body language
  • Body to side, don’t stare
  • Confident welcoming tones
  • Use slip leads, don’t grab collar
311
Q

How should dogs be caught and moved?

A
  • Securely restrained before moving
  • Ensure collar/lead secure/in good condition
  • Double slip lead if in doubt
  • Ask owners to leave first, dog will follow you
  • Avoid flexi leads, can break, fail or wrap around
  • Attach long lead to kennel guarders
312
Q

What should be considered before handling small animals?

A
  • Respiratory distress?
  • Used to handling?
  • Metabolic bone disease? Easily fracture
  • Visual examination enough?
313
Q

What are the different types of muzzles available?

A
  • Basket, plastic or metal
  • Fabric open ended
  • Tape muzzles (bandage)
  • Brachychephalic muzzles
314
Q

How should dogs be lifted and carried?

A
  • Over 20kgs should be lifted by 2
  • Dogs should feel safe and secure
  • Stretchers/trolleys for injured/anaesthetised
315
Q

How should large dogs be carried?

A
  • One handler hold under chest and head
  • Other hold under abdomen and hind legs
316
Q

How should small and medium dogs be carried?

A
  • Hind legs held against body by elbow/arm
  • Hand supporting under chest
  • Other arm to support chest and head
317
Q

What should be considered before stressful restraint methods?

A
  • Pain related? Will analgesia help?
  • Essential? If yes, sedation?
  • Bad experience = future problems
  • Long term problems? Referral to behaviourist?
318
Q

What restraint equipment is there for dogs, other than muzzles?

A
  • Rolled up towels/blankets
  • Dog catchers
319
Q

How should cats be approached?

A
  • Calm, quiet, confident
  • Spray pheromones
  • Avoid eye contact, offer hand, fuss under chin
  • Never pull cat out of carrier
  • Can remove top of carrier to examine cat
  • Less is more
320
Q
A
321
Q

How should cats be transported?

A
  • Always in suitable cat box
  • Sturdy and secure, cardboard can be shredded my claws or disintegrate from urine
322
Q

What equipment can be used for restraining cats?

A
  • Towels
  • Cat bags
  • Cat muzzles
  • Gauntlets
  • Crush cage
  • Cat catchers
323
Q

Why do rabbits and rodents easily become stressed in a veterinary environment?

A

They are prey species

324
Q

What is the major concern when handling rabbits?

A

They can injure their spine or limbs when struggling

325
Q

How should aggressive rabbits be held?

A
  • Hold scruff with one hand
  • Other hand under rump
  • Hold close to body
326
Q

How should rabbits be handled?

A
  • One hand under thorax
  • Thumb and fingers holding forelimbs
  • Other hand supporting back
  • Towels and restraint bags can be used
  • Ensure rabbit does not overheat
327
Q

What should not be done when holding rabbits?

A

Should not be placed on their back

328
Q

How should a gerbil be held?

A
  • Never hold by tail
  • Use cupped hands
  • Grasp across shoulders, thumb under chin
  • Hold scruff
329
Q

How should a chinchilla be held?

A
  • One hand around pectoral girdle
  • Other supporting hind legs
  • Shed fur and spray urine when stressed
330
Q

How should a rat be held?

A
  • Hold around pectoral girdle
  • Other hand under hind limbs
331
Q

How should a hamster be held?

A
  • Hold around pectoral girdle
  • Scruffing can cause prolapsed eyeball
  • Can use clear box if aggressive
332
Q

How should a mouse be held?

A
  • Grasp tail with one hand
  • Hold scruff with other hand
333
Q

How should a guinea pig be held?

A
  • One hand around shoulders
  • Other hand support rump
334
Q

What is hypothyroidism?

A
  • Under secretion of Thyroxine
  • Primary, Secondary, Congenital, Iatrogenic
335
Q

What is primary hypothyroidism?

A
  • Results from destruction of thyroid gland
  • Lymphatic thyroiditis - immune-mediated
  • Idopathic atrophy
336
Q

What is secondary hypothyroidism?

A
  • Results from destruction of pituitary gland
  • Usually caused by growing tumors
337
Q

What is congenital hypothyroidism?

A
  • Results from abnormal organ development
  • Or defective hormone synthesis/secretion
338
Q

Can cats get hypothyroidism?

A
  • Yes but rare
  • Most common iatrogenic hypothyroidism
  • Results from treatment for hyperthyroidism
  • Can occur after thyroidectomy
339
Q

How does hypothyroidism effect the body?

A
  • Slows cellular metabolism
  • Alopecia and secondary pyoderma
  • Entire dogs and bitches - affect fertility
  • Some occasions associated with neurological
  • Severe cases can lead to coma
340
Q

What are the clinical symptoms of hypothyroidism?

A
  • Lethargy
  • Obesity
  • Bradycardia
  • Hypothermia
  • Alopecia
  • Skin infections
  • Dull and dry coat
  • Hyperpigmentation
  • Seborrhoea
341
Q

How does hypothyroidism effect young dogs?

A

Stunted growth

342
Q

What dog breeds have a potential predisposition to hypothyroidism?

A
  • Golden Retriever
  • Doberman Pinscher
  • Irish Setter
  • Mini Schnauzer
  • Dachshund
  • Cocker Spaniel
  • Airedale Terrier
343
Q

How is Hypothyroidism treated?

A
  • Supplement of Thyroxine (Levothroxine)
  • Measuring T4 levels
  • Observing clinical signs
344
Q

What are the special nursing considerations for Hypothyroidism patients?

A
  • May have decreased appetite
  • Monitor BSI for obesity
  • May have coat problems and skin infections
  • Good hygiene, regular cleaning and grooming
  • May feel sluggish and not want to exercise
  • Encourage gentle exercise, monitor mobility tolerance
345
Q

What is hyperthyroidism?

A
  • Thyroid gland produces excess Thyroxine
  • Majority of cases caused by harmless swellings
  • 1-3% of cases are cancerous
  • Causes high metabolic rate, high blood pressure and hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
  • Common in older cats, rare in dogs
  • Symptoms appear slowly but can be fatal if not treated
346
Q

What are the symptoms of Hyperthyroidism?

A
  • Weight loss
  • Polyphagia
  • D+/V+
  • Tachycardia
  • Dull coat
  • Lethargy
  • PU/PD
  • Hyperactivity/demanding
  • Alopecia
347
Q

How is Hyperthyroidism treated?

A
  • Medication to slow production of Thyroxine
  • Life long, regular blood tests to monitor
  • Surgery to remove affected thyroid gland
  • Low iodine diet
  • Radioactive iodine treatment
348
Q

What nursing considerations are there for Hyperthyroidism patients?

A
  • Tachycardia, heart failure
  • Monitor resp and HR
  • Increased appetite, give normal/low iodine diet
  • Monitor weight
  • Poor coat; good hygiene, clean and groom
349
Q

What is cushings disease?

A
  • Hyperadrenocorticism
  • Over production of cortisol steroid hormone ACTH
350
Q

What causes Cushings disease?

A
  • Pituitary gland tumor (85-90% of cases)
  • Adrenal gland tumor
  • If benign and removed will cure disease
  • Iatrogenic - excessive use of steroid meds
351
Q

What are the symptoms of cushings disease?

A
  • 5 P’s
  • Polyphagia
  • PU/PD
  • Panting
  • ‘Pot-bellied’
  • Lethargy
352
Q

Which breeds are predisposed to Cushings disease?

A
  • Poodles, especially mini
  • Dachshunds
  • Boxers
  • Boston terriers
  • Yorkshire terriers
  • Staffordshire terriers
  • More common in dogs than cats
353
Q

Precocial

A

Young born already fully developed
Not reliant on mother

354
Q

Altricial

A

Young that are reliant on mother

355
Q

Heamatoptysis

A

Coughing up blood

356
Q

Sinus arythmia

A

Heart rate increases when patient breaths
Normal in healthy animals

357
Q

Cyanosis

A

Blue mucous membranes

358
Q

Ictaric

A

Yellow

359
Q

Dyspnoea

A

Difficulty breathing

360
Q

Poikilothermic

A
  • Core body temperature reliant on environment
  • Cold blooded species
  • Newborn mammal neonates
361
Q

Decubritis ulcers

A

Pressure sores

362
Q

Ataxia

A

Neurological unstableness

363
Q

Biological value

A

Quality of protein

364
Q

Stridor

A

High pitched wheezing sound
Caused by disrupted airflow

365
Q

Stertor

A

Low pitched noise resulting from pharyngeal vibrations
Snoring

366
Q

Crepuscula

A

Active at twilight

367
Q

Steatorrhoea

A

Fat in faeces

368
Q

Acities

A

Fluid in abdomen

369
Q

Post ictal

A

Post seizure

370
Q

Aniscoria

A

Unequal pupil sizes

371
Q

Cyanotic

A

Blue mucous membranes caused by hypoxia

372
Q

Induced ovulator

A

Ovulates only after mating
Cats, rabbits, ferrets

373
Q

What is meant by medical nursing?

A

Nursing according to disease/surgery/diagnosis

374
Q

What is meant by holistic nursing?

A

Addressing all the patients needs

375
Q

What basic visual observations should be checked when nursing?

A
  • Reflexes-response to noise, touch
  • Coat condition-clean, groomed, hair loss?
  • Patients head-tilt, discharge, eyes, ears, pupils
  • Thorax-RR, effort, noise, movements
  • Abdomen-shape, hunched, tense
  • Genitalia-symmetrical testes, discharge?
  • Hind Limbs-muscle mass, gait, use
  • U+/F+-any passed? normal?
  • Appetite-eating? inappetent?
376
Q

What are patients perameters affected by?

A
  • Metabolic rate
  • Values higher in smaller and younger
  • Values vary between species
377
Q

What is the normal temperature range for dogs?

A

38.3 - 39.2

378
Q

What is the normal temperature range for cats?

A

38.2 - 38.6

379
Q

What is the normal temperature range for rabbitS?

A

38.5 - 40

380
Q

Diphasic

A

Fluctuating temperature

381
Q

When would temperature abnormalities be seen?

A
  • Anaesthetics
  • Neonates
  • Disease
  • Unsuitable environment
  • Heat stroke
382
Q

How can patients control their temperature?

A
  • Panting
  • Sweating
  • Change of posture
  • Vasodilation/vasoconstriction
  • Hair/erector pili muscles
  • Shivering
  • Exercise, rest
383
Q

What is the normal pulse range for dogs?

A

70 - 140

384
Q

What is the normal pulse range for cats?

A

100 - 200

385
Q

Whats is the normal pulse range for rabbits?

A

130 - 325

386
Q

What are the common sites for pulse measurement?

A

Where artery crosses a bone
- Femoral artery
- Carpal artery
- Coccygeal artery
- Sublingual artery
- Jugular
- Brachial

387
Q

Arrhythmia

A

Abnormal heart rate

388
Q

Weak thread pulse

A

Seen in shock cases and diminished cardiac output

389
Q

Pulse deficit

A
  • More heart beats recorded than femoral pulse
  • Indicative of severe arrhythmia
390
Q

Sinus arrhythmia

A
  • Pulse quickens when breathing in
  • Pulse slows when breathing out
  • Normal in healthy animals
391
Q

Auscultation

A

Listening to heart, lungs, other organs with a stethoscope

392
Q

Where should a stethoscope be placed to hear a heart beat?

A
  • Lower left side of chest
  • Caudal and slightly dorsal to elbow
  • Between 3rd and 6th rib
393
Q

Systole

A
  • Contraction of the heart to expel blood
  • Lub sound
394
Q

Diastole

A
  • Chambers relax and fill with blood
  • Dub sound
395
Q

What may abnormal heart sounds indicate?

A
  • Murmurs
  • Gallop rhythms
396
Q

What might increase respiration rate?

A
  • Increased temperature
  • Pain
  • Excitement
397
Q

What might decrease respiration rate?

A
  • Older animals
  • Larger animals
  • General anaesthetic
398
Q

What is the normal range for respiration rate in dogs?

A

10 - 30

399
Q

What is the normal range for respiration rate in cats?

A

20 - 30

400
Q

What is the normal range for respiration rate in rabbits?

A

30 - 60

401
Q

What may crackles indicate when listening to lung sounds?

A
  • Pulmonary oedema
  • Haemorrhage
402
Q

What may wheezes indicate when listening to lung sounds?

A
  • Partial blockage
  • Secretions into airway
403
Q

What information can be gained from palpating the abdomen?

A
  • Palpate structures
  • Assess abdominal pain
  • Auscultation for gut sounds
404
Q

What structures can be palpated in the abdomen?

A
  • Bladder
  • Kidneys
  • Spleen
  • Small + large intestines
  • Enlarged prostate
  • Enlarged uterus
  • Liver
405
Q

What can make abdominal palpating difficult?

A
  • Temperament
  • Tense / Painful
  • Overweight
  • Body shape; deep chested
406
Q

How can mucous membranes indicate a patient is dehydrated?

A
  • CRT longer than 2 seconds
  • Dry mucous membranes
407
Q

What is a fast capillary refill time associated with?

A

Sepsis

408
Q

Pink MMs

A

Normal

409
Q

Brick red MMs

A
  • Toxic
  • Vasodilation
410
Q

White/pale MMs

A
  • Anaemia
  • Shock
411
Q

Blue/cyanotic MMs

A

Hypoxic - Not enough oxygen

412
Q

Yellow/icteric MMs

A

Jaundice

413
Q

Black MMs

A

Normal pigmentation

414
Q

What causes enlarged lymph nodes?

A
  • Infection
  • Neoplasia
415
Q

Neoplasia

A

Uncontrolled growth of cells (Tumor)

416
Q

What lymph nodes can be palpated?

A
  • Submandibular
  • Prescapular
  • Popliteal
  • Auxillary and inguinal only when enlarged
  • Rabbits have smaller lymph nodes, not always palpable
417
Q

What factors can make weight an inaccurate way to assess body condition?

A
  • Fluid accumulation
  • Muscle mass
  • Tumors
418
Q

What does body condition scoring entail?

A
  • Visual assessment and palpation
  • 5 and 9 point systems in use
  • Breed variations must be accounted for
419
Q

What can cause loss of appetite?

A
  • Mouth ulcers/dental disease
  • Nasal congestion
  • Infectious disease
  • Metabolic disease
  • Pyrexia
  • Dislike food
  • Stress
420
Q

What can cause excess in appetite?

A
  • Parasites
  • Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency
  • Starvation
  • Hypoglycaemia
  • Hyperthyroidism
421
Q

Coprophagia

A
  • Eating faeces
  • Behavioural
  • Insufficient diet
  • Rabbits do this naturally
422
Q

Projectile vomiting

A

From stomach or small intestine

423
Q

Stercoraceous vomit

A

Contains faecal material

424
Q

Haematemisis

A

Vomit containing blood

425
Q

Bilious

A

Vomit containing bile

426
Q

Cyclic

A

Recurring

427
Q

Retching

A
  • Attempting to vomit
  • Different to coughing
428
Q

Can rabbits vomit?

A

No

429
Q

What can cause vomiting?

A
  • Foreign body
  • Infection
  • Toxins
  • Drug reactions
  • Renal disease/ UT obstruction
  • Pyometra
  • Pancreatitis
  • Diabetic ketoacidosis
430
Q

What is regugitation?

A
  • Passive process
  • Comes back before entering stomach
  • Aspiration pneumonia can occur
  • Malnutrition if ongoing
431
Q

Megaoesophagus

A
  • Dilated oesophagus
  • No muscle tone
  • Gravity feeding required
432
Q

Anorexia

A

No appetite

433
Q

Inappetant

A

Reduced appetite

434
Q

Tenesmus

A

Straining to defecate

435
Q

Dyschezia

A

Pain when defecating

436
Q

Steatorrhoea

A

Fat in faeces

437
Q

Melaena

A
  • Black tarry faeces
  • Bleeding in upper GI tract
438
Q

What can cause straining?

A
  • Dietary
  • Foreign body
  • Furballs
  • Dehydration
  • Enlarged prostate gland
  • Diarrhoea
  • Colitis
439
Q

What should be checked when patients are defecating?

A
  • Volume
  • Frequency
  • Colour
  • Smell
  • Texture
  • Parasites
440
Q

What can cause acute diarrhoea and how should it be treated?

A
  • Dietary change
  • Scavenging
  • Infectious cause (Parvo, giardia)
  • Remain hydrated, IVFT if severe
  • Bland, easy to digest food in small portions
441
Q

How should chronic diarrhoea be treated?

A
  • Investigate cause
  • May need hypoallergenic food
  • Steroids if inflammatory condition
  • Enzyme supplements if exocrine pancreatic insufficiency
442
Q

What are the clinical signs of small intestinal diarrhoea?

A
  • Vomiting common
  • Increased appetite common
  • Increased faecal volume
  • Watery faeces
  • Normal frequency with no urgency
  • No mucus
  • Malaena (Black stools) may be seen
443
Q

What are the clinical signs of large intestinal diarrhoea?

A
  • Vomiting unusual
  • Normal appetite and faecal volume
  • Urgency
  • Increased frequency
  • Straining and mucus common
444
Q

What is another word for gut stasis?

A

Ileus

445
Q

Dysuria

A

Difficulty urinating

446
Q

Anuria

A

No urination

447
Q

Urinary tenesmus

A

Straining

448
Q

Haematuria

A

Blood in urine

449
Q

Oliguria

A

Reduced urine production

450
Q

What is the normal urine output for dogs and cats?

A

1 - 2ml / kg/ hour
24 - 48ml / kg / day

451
Q

What is the daily fluid requirement for dogs and cats?

A

40 - 60ml / kg / day

452
Q

What is the daily fluid requirement for rabbits?

A

50 - 150ml / kg / day

453
Q

What should be assessed when patients urinate?

A
  • Colour
  • Quantity
  • Turbidity
  • Smell
  • Test?
454
Q

What can problems when patients urinate indicate?

A
  • Calculi (stones)
  • Enlarged prostate
  • FLUTD (Feline lower urine tract disease)
  • Renal disease
  • Diabetes mellitus
  • Diabetes insipidus
  • Infection
  • Tumors
455
Q

What are some signs of abnormalities with the ears?

A
  • Excessive aural discharge
  • Pruritus (Itchy)
  • Alopecia
  • Dry, scaly skin
  • Odours
456
Q

What can cause ear problems?

A
  • Hormonal problems
  • Poor nutrition
  • Parasites
  • Infections
  • Allergic reactions
457
Q

What is the term for surface infections?

A

Dematitis

458
Q

What are the terms to describe superficial infections?

A
  • Impetigo (Puppies)
  • Pyoderma
  • Folliculitis (Hair follicles)
459
Q

What are the terms used to describe deep skin infections?

A
  • Pyoderma
  • Pododermatitis (Feet)
  • Furunculosis (Hair follicles)
460
Q

Blepharospasm

A

Constant blinking

461
Q

Lacrimation

A

Tear production

462
Q

Miotic

A

Constricted pupils

463
Q

Aniscoria

A

Uneven pupil size

464
Q

What factors may cause eye problems?

A
  • Infections
  • Foreign body
  • Injury/ulceration
  • Head injury
  • Inherited conditions
465
Q

What should be assessed when looking at patients eyes?

A
  • Discharge?
  • Eyes fully open?
  • Vision?
  • Pupillary light reflex
  • Pupil sizes, do they match?
466
Q

What should be assessed when looking at patients nose?

A
  • Discharge?
  • Sneezing?
  • Irritation?
467
Q

What may cause nose problems?

A
  • Infections
  • Trauma
  • Neoplasia
  • Foreign body
468
Q

What discharge is present during pro oestrus?

A

Blood present

469
Q

What colour discharge is present during oestrus?

A

Straw coloured discharge

470
Q

What is the colour of discharge during imminent parturition?

A

Dark green discharge

471
Q

What is metritis and what colour is the discharge?

A
  • Inflammation of the uterus
  • Black-dark brown discharge
472
Q

What colour discharge occurs during abortion?

A

Foul black discharge

473
Q

What is pyometra and what colour is the discharge?

A
  • Infection of the uterus
  • Purulent discharge
474
Q

What might cause coughing?

A
  • Infection
  • Lung disease
  • Heart disease
  • Asthma
  • Allergy
  • Tracheal collapse
475
Q

Why might an animal be restless?

A
  • Pain
  • Boredom
  • Need to U+/D+
  • Nausea
476
Q

What can be done when an animal is restless?

A
  • Assess pain
  • Provide comfort and company
  • medicate
  • Give opportunities to U+/D+
477
Q

What symptoms can indicate pain?

A
  • Restlessness
  • Vocalisation
  • Aggression
  • Withdrawn
  • Abnormal posture
  • Chewing affected area
  • Pyrexia
  • Increased HR/RR
  • Lameness
  • Stiff gait
  • Species dependent
478
Q

How can stress be reduced when introducing new animals?

A
  • Plenty of resources
  • Scent mixing first, swap bedding/toys
  • Allow time, don’t rush
  • Pheromones, calming sprays
  • Hides, different levels, cat flaps for time out
  • Positive reinforcement for good behaviour
479
Q

When should introducing new pets be avoided?

A
  • One is pregnant or nursing; more protective
  • One is recovering from illness or surgery
  • Pain my make them less tolerant
  • Avoid busy times of year
480
Q

What can happen to rabbits if they lose their companion?

A

Stress causes anorexia

481
Q

What are the energy producing nutrients?

A
  • Fats
  • Carbohydrates
  • Proteins
482
Q

What is the most important nutrient?

A

Water

483
Q

What are micronutrients?

A
  • Vitamins and minerals
  • Only needed in small amounts
484
Q

What are the non energy producing nutrients?

A
  • Water
  • Vitamins
  • Minerals
485
Q

What percentage of an animals body weight is water?

A

60%

486
Q

What percentage of water deficiency becomes fatal?

A

15 - 20%

487
Q

What are the 3 types of carbohydrates?

A
  • Monosaccharides
  • Disaccharides
  • Polysaccharides
488
Q

What are monosaccharides?

A
  • Simple sugars
  • Glucose
  • Fructose
489
Q

What are disaccharides?

A
  • 2 simple sugars joined together
  • Require enzymes to digest
  • Sucrose
  • Lactose
490
Q

What are polysaccharides?

A
  • Many simple sugars joined together
  • Complex carbohydrates
  • Soluble; Starch, glycogen
  • Insoluble; Fibre
  • Soluble require enzymes to digest
  • Insoluble require bacterial fermentation
491
Q

Carbohydrate facts

A
  • Sugars good for short bursts of energy
  • Cats require less than dogs
  • Excess in cats leads to GI upset
  • Fibre essential for correct gut transit times, increased faecal bulk and colon health
  • Increased fibre produces satiety
  • Increased fibre helps control glucose fluctuations in diabetic patients
  • High fibre is used in some chronic GI issues such as colitis
492
Q

What are proteins made of?

A

Chains of amino acids

493
Q

What is the difference between essential and non-essential amino acids?

A
  • Non-essential can be made by the body
  • Essential are required in the diet
494
Q

How many essential amino acids do dogs need?

A

10

495
Q

How many essential amino acids do cats need?

A

11 - also need taurine

496
Q

What can taurine deficiency lead to in cats?

A

Eye and heart problems

497
Q

What is meant by the term biological value?

A
  • Quality of protein
  • Higher BV = more essential amino acids to be utilised by the body and less urea production
498
Q

What is protein waste converted into?

A
  • Ammonia is converted to urea in the liver
  • Excreted by the kidneys
499
Q

Protein facts

A
  • Renal patients require reduced but high biological value proteins
  • Vital for tissue growth and repair
  • Insufficiency leads to breakdown of muscle
  • Makes hormones and enzymes
  • Helps with transporting oxygen
  • Protects against infections
500
Q

What is gross energy (GE)?

A

Maximum amount of energy that could come from food

501
Q

What is digestible energy (DE)?

A
  • Energy available once food has been absorbed
  • Calculated as gross energy (GE) minus faeces
502
Q

What is metabolisable energy (ME)?

A
  • Energy that can be used by cells
  • Calculated as DE minus urinary losses
503
Q

How are carbohydrates stored in the body?

A

As glycogen

504
Q

How are carbohydrates broken down into monosaccharides in the body?

A
  • Mechanical breakdown through chewing
  • Enzymes in stomach and small intestines
  • Microbial breakdown by fermentation in the colon
505
Q

What are sources of simple sugars?

A

Fruits, honey

506
Q

What are sources of lactose?

A

Milk, dairy products

507
Q

What are sources of starches?

A
  • Corn
  • Wheat
  • Rice
  • Barley
  • Oats
  • Potatoes
508
Q

What are the sources of slowly fermentable fibre, cellulose?

A

Wheat bran

509
Q

What are the sources of moderately fermentable fibre?

A
  • Rice bran
  • Pea fibre
  • Wheat bran
510
Q

What are the sources of rapidly fermentable fibre?

A
  • Apples
  • Citrus pulp
  • Guar gum
511
Q

Where do cats get most of their dietary energy from?

A

Protein

512
Q

How are amino acids linked together?

A

With peptide bonds

513
Q

What is a dipeptide?

A

2 amino acids joined together

514
Q

What is a tripeptide?

A

3 amino acids joined together

515
Q

What is a polypeptide?

A

4 or more amino acids joined together

516
Q

What are the 10 essential amino acids for dogs?

A
  • Arginine
  • Histidine
  • Isoleucine
  • Leucine
  • Lysine
  • Methionine
  • Phenylanine
  • Threonine
  • Trytophan
  • Valine
517
Q

How does biological value of proteins affect the kidneys?

A

Less strain on the kidneys as less urea passing through

518
Q

How much energy does fat provide in relation to other energy nutrients carbohydrates and proteins?

A

2.25 times the energy

519
Q

Which vitamins are fat soluble?

A
  • A
  • D
  • E
  • K
520
Q

What is the difference between the structure of saturated, monounsaturated and polyunsaturated fats?

A
  • Saturated have no double bonds
  • Monounsaturated only have 1 double bond
  • Polyunsaturated have more than 1 double bond
  • Polyunsaturated fats are known as Omegas
521
Q

What type of fat is best for health?

A

Polyunsaturated

522
Q

What are polyunsaturated fats made of?

A

Essential fatty acids
- Linoleic acid
- Alpha linolec acid
- Arachidonic acid

523
Q

How do dogs get Arachidonic acid?

A

Form it from linoleic acid

524
Q

How do dogs get Arachidonic acid?

A
  • Can’t synthesise
  • Essential to diet
  • Only found in meat
525
Q

Why are fatty acids important?

A
  • Essential part of cell membranes
  • Involved in prostaglandin synthesis
526
Q

How is fat digested?

A
  • Digested by bile from the liver
  • Lipase breaks down further to glycerol and FA
  • When small enough, enter blood stream
  • Will provide energy or be stored for future
  • Liver can convert it to an energy source
527
Q

What is linoleic acid?

A
  • An essential fatty acid
  • Omega 6
  • Found in vegetable oils and meat
528
Q

What is alpha-linoleic acid?

A
  • An essential fatty acid
  • Omega 3
  • Found in fish oils
529
Q

Fat facts

A
  • Good for dogs requiring high prolonged energy
  • Provides insulation
  • Enhances palatability of food
  • Aids absorption of fat soluble vitamins
  • Synthesises hormones
  • Has metabolic and structural functions
    (Cell membranes)
530
Q

What are the water soluble vitamins?

A
  • Vitamin C
  • Vitamin B complex
531
Q

What is the difference between fat and water soluble vitamins?

A

Water soluble
- Can’t be stored, daily intake required
Fat soluble
- Stored in body, excess can lead to toxicity

532
Q

What is another name for vitamin A?

A

Ascorbic acid

533
Q

What is vitamin C needed for?

A
  • Intracellular functions
  • Protein synthesis
  • Antioxidant
  • Most animals can synthesis own from glucose
  • Guinea pigs need this in diet from greens
  • Guinea pigs get scurvy when deficient
534
Q

What vitamins make up the B complex?

A
  • Thiamine (B1)
  • Riboflavin (B2)
  • Pantothenic acid
  • Niacin
  • Pyridoxine (B6)
  • Cobalamin (B12)
  • Biotin
  • Folic acid
  • Choline
535
Q

What is B1 vitamin?

A

Thiamine

536
Q

What is B2 vitamin?

A

Riboflavin

537
Q

What is B6 vitamin?

A

Pyridoxine

538
Q

What are B vitamins needed for?

A
  • Components of enzymes
  • Constituent of cell walls
  • Synthesis of DNA with folic acid
539
Q

What is B12?

A

Cobalamin

540
Q

Why can a diet high in raw fish cause B vitamin deficiency?

A
  • Contains thiaminase, breaks down thiamine
  • Leads to deficiency
  • Seen in garter snakes
  • Cook fish, supplement or vary diet to avoid
  • Thiamine also destroyed at high temperatures and in some food processing
  • Deficiency can lead to anorexia, neurological disorders, weakness and