Anatomy and Physiology Flashcards
(175 cards)
1
Q
visceral
A
organ
2
Q
parietal
A
wall
3
Q
sagittal plane
A
vertical
4
Q
transverse plane
A
horizontal
5
Q
frontal plane
A
coronal
6
Q
dorsal cavities
A
cranial and spinal
7
Q
ventral cavities
A
thoracic and abdomino-pelvic
8
Q
Cell “batteries” that store energy and supply the cell with ATP
A
mitochondria
9
Q
carry out digestive functions in the cell
A
lysosomes
10
Q
delivers proteins to the cell
A
golgi apparatus
11
Q
transport system and site of protein synthesis
A
endoplasmic reticulum
12
Q
sites of protein synthesis
A
ribosomes
13
Q
disarm free radicals
A
peroxisomes
14
Q
function during cell division
A
centrioles
15
Q
hairlike extensions responsible for movement of fluid around the cell
A
cilia
16
Q
whiplike extension responsible for motility of the cells (sperm)
A
flagella
17
Q
internal framework that determines cell shape
A
cytoskeleton
18
Q
phagocytosis
A
cell eating
19
Q
pinocytosis
A
cell drinking
20
Q
cell division
A
mitosis
21
Q
what are the 5 stages of mitosis
A
interphase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
22
Q
phase in which the cell grows and carries on its usual metabolic activities
A
interphase
23
Q
the phase in which the division of the cytoplasm (cytokenesis) is complete
A
telophase
24
Q
What are the tissue layers, in order when entering the abdominal cavity?
A
skin, subcuticular, subcutaneous tissue and adipose/superficial fascia, deep fascia, muscle, extraperitoneal fat, peritoneum
25
The part or organelle of the cell considered to be the powerhouse is the:
mitochondria
26
The thymus gland is located in which cavity?
thoracic
27
The hormones produced by the adrenal cortex to protect one during a stressful situation are:
corticoids
28
The outermost later of the eye that is commonly called the white of the eye is:
sclera
29
The parotid gland secretes:
saliva
30
The large opening located in the occipital bone is called the:
foramen magnum
31
The liquid part of the blood is:
plasma
32
One of the most important glands in the body, often referred to as the "master gland" is the:
pituitary
33
Water is absorbed mostly in the :
colon
34
The male reproductive organ(s) that manufactures the male sex cells are:
testes
35
The nerves that control the release of epinephrine during "fight or flight" are the :
sympathetic nerves
36
An example of reticular tissue is :
blood
37
the muscle that flexes the head is the :
sternocleidomastoid
38
How many pairs of extrinsic eye muscles are there?
6
39
The function of the liver includes all of the following except : storae of glucose, storage of bile, destruction of RBC's, production of urea?
Storage of bile
40
The normal range for lymphocytes is between :
5,000 and 10,000
41
The valve to the right ventricle is:
tricuspid
42
A superficial vein of the leg is the :
saphenous
43
Fertilization occurs in the :
oviduct
44
Olfactory nerve, Smell
Cranial Nerve I
45
Optic nerve, vision
Cranial Nerve II
46
Oculomotor, eye control
Cranial Nerve III
47
Trochlear, eye control
Cranial Nerve IV
48
Abdocens, eye control
Cranial Nerve VI
49
Trigeminal nerve, sensations of the face, movement of the mouth
Cranial Nerve V
50
Facial Nerve, facial muscles
Cranial Nerve VII
51
Acoustic Nerve, vestibular, hearing
Cranial Nerve VIII
52
Glossopharyngeal, palate, uvual
Cranial Nerve IX
53
Vagus, palate, uvula
Cranial Nerve X
54
Spinal accessory nerve, muscles of the shoulder and neck
Cranial Nerve XI
55
Hypoglossal Nerve, Tongue
Cranial Nerve VII
56
What part of the bone is where longitudinal bone growth takes place?
Epiphyseal disc
57
How many lobes does the lung have?
5
58
What does the parietal pluera line?
Inner surface of ribs, the superior surface of the diaphragm, and the pericardium of the heart.
59
What muscles are used for inspiration?
Diaphragm and the external intercostal musclees
60
Where do the bronchus and other structure enter the lungs?
Hilum
61
Which valve allows blood to move from the left atrium to the left ventrical?
mitral valve
62
The rhuthmic contraction of the heart is controlled by :
Sinoatrial node (SA node)
63
When the electric impulse leaves the Bundle of His where does it travel next?
Purkinje fibers
64
What structures are affected by thoracic outlet system?
Brachial plexus nerve complex and subclavian vessels
65
What cranial bone houses the middle ear?
Temporal
66
What is located in the nasal cavity?
Turbinates
67
What is the functioning tissue of the lungs?
Alveolar sacs
68
How many lobes is the right lung divided into?
3
69
What structure in the kidney stores urine?
Renal pelvis
70
Which part of the brain is the largest?
Cerebrum
71
What structure produces cerebral spinal fluid?
All four ventricles
72
What part of the vertebrae does the spinal cord pass through?
Vertebral foramen
73
What structure do these bones make up : frontal, sphenoid, ethmoid, superior maxillaary, zygomatic, lacrimal, and palate bones?
Orbit of the eye
74
Which muscle moves the eyeball toward the midline and upward?
Superior rectus
75
What is the action of the inferior rectus muscle?
Moves the eyeball downward and to the midline
76
What is the name of the type of bone that is around the marrow cavity and is dense tissue?
Cortical
77
Where does the active bone growth take place?
Epiphyseal plate
78
What minerals are stored in the bone?
Potassium, magnesium, calcium, sodium, and phosphorus
79
What is the correct order of osteogenesis?
Inflammation, cellular proliferation, callus formation, ossification, remodeling
80
What parts of the body does compartment syndrome take place?
Tibia and forearm
81
Where would the lateral malleolus be found?
Distal end of the fibula
82
What is the definition of a transcervical fraccture?
A fracture in the neck of the femur
83
What is the definition of a stellate fracture?
A break that radiates out from a break at a central point
84
What is the definition of a transverse fracture?
a horizontal fracture of the bone
85
What term refers to a structure that is close tot he origin of the limb?
Proximal
86
What vessels branch of the aortic arch?
Brachiocephalic artery, left common carotid artery, left subclavian artery
87
The correct order of the arterial system from superior to inferior is :
Left ventricle of the heart, ascending aorta, aortic arch, thoracic aorta, abdominal aorta , common iliac arteries, femoral arteries, popliteal artery
88
What major vein does the head, shoulder, and upper extremities drain into?
Superior vena cava
89
What organs are located in the "lesser pelvis" ?
ovaries, fallopian tubes, uterus, vagina, cervix
90
List the female external genitalia?
mons pubis, labia majora, labia minora, clitoris, bartholin's glands, forchette, perineum
91
Which of the following is not a part of the fallopian tube : fundus, fimbria. infundibulum, adnexa, ampulla, fallopian tube?
Fundus
92
In what structure do sperm mature?
Epididymis
93
Definition of abduction?
to move away from the midline or turn outward
94
Definition of adduction?
to move toward the midline or turn inward
95
What term refers to the appendages or accssory structures of an organ?
adnexa
96
What is another name for compact bone?
cortical
97
Chyme is a semifluid located in which organ?
Stomach
98
What is located in the medullary marrow cavity and bone ends?
Cancellous bone
99
What structure separates the the larynx from the trachea?
Epiglottis
100
What is the outer layer of the heart tissue called?
Epicardium
101
What is the name of the lining covering the inside of the heart chambers?
Endocardium
102
Ipsilateral means:
same side
103
What is the contraction phase of the cardiac cycle called?
Systole
104
What is a xenograft?
a graft taken from a species that is different than the recipient
105
What are the ureter openings and the urethra opening in the bladder called?
vesical trigone
106
Uncoordinated, fast contractions of the heart ventricles :
ventricular fibrulation
107
What anatomical structure is affected by Colles' fracture?
distal radius
108
Where does the gas and nutrient exchange take place in the blood?
Capillaries
109
When blood returns to the heart from the extremities, what part of the heart does it enter?
Right atrium
110
Which layer of the skin has no blood vessels or nerves?
Epidermis
111
Which layer of the skin anchors it?
Subcutaneous layer
112
What produces cerumen?
Ceruminous gland
113
The lungs are covered in a serous membranous sac called the :
visceral pleura
114
The function of the trachea is to :
conduct air to and from the lungs
115
The of the palm of the hand are referred to as :
metacarpals
116
Which of the following is a principal muscle of the pelvic floor : sartorius, levator ani, internal oblique, rectus abdominus?
levator ani
117
A connective tissue band that holds bones together it called :
ligament
118
The two bones that form the side walls and the roof of the cranium are the :
parietal bones
119
The sternocleidomastoid muscle is located :
along the side of the neck
120
The bone that is shaped like a butterfly and forms the anterior portion of the base of the cranium is the :
sphenoid
121
The bone located in the neck between the mandible and the larynx, which supports the tongue and provides attachment for some of its muscles, is the:
hyoid bone
122
The adult vertebral column has how many bones?
26 bones
123
How many cervical vertebrae are there?
7
124
The bone in the axial skeleton that does not articulate with any other bone is the :
hyoid
125
The upper, flaring portion of the hipbone is the :
ilium
126
The larger, weight bearing bone of the lower leg is the :
tibia
127
The membranes that line closed cavities within the body are called :
serous membranes
128
A transparent structure that permits the eye to focus rays to form an image on the retina is the :
lens
129
The nerve that carried visual impulses to the brain is the :
optic nerve
130
The number of pairs of spinal nerves is :
31
131
The cranial nerve that contains special sense fibers for hearing as well as for balance is :
VIII
132
A differential count provides an estimate of :
the percentage of each type of white cell
133
Mixing of incompatible bloods may result in :
agglutination
134
The vein that drains the veins of the chest wall and empties in to the superior vena cava is the :
azygos
135
The atrioventricular (AV) node causes :
ventricular contraction
136
Why would an aspirated foreign body be more likely to enter the right bronchus rather than the left bronchus ?
The right bronchus is more vertical, shorter, and wider than the left
137
The descending aorta terminates at the level of the fourth lumbar vertebra, dividing into :
Two common iliac arteries
138
The heart valve that closes at the time the right ventricle begins pumping, preventing blood from returning to the right atrium, is the :
tricuspid
139
The inner lining of the heart, composed of smooth, delicate membrane is called :
endocardium
140
What region is the spleen located in?
Left hypochondriac region
141
All of the following are parts of the lymphatic system EXCEPT : thyroid, tonsils, spleen, thymus ?
thyroid
142
The terminal portion of the large intestine is the :
anal canal
143
Which structure is also known as the "fatty apron"?
greater omentum
144
The head of the pancreas is located :
in the curve of the duodenum
145
The sphincter at the junction of the small and large intestines is the :
ileocecal sphincter
146
The portion of the small intestine that receives secretions from the pancreas and liver is the :
duodenum
147
The large central portion of the stomach is called the :
body
148
Mumps occur in what gland?
Parotid
149
The liver has how many lobes?
two
150
The glomerulus is a :
cluster of capillaries
151
Blood is supplied to the kidney by means of the renal artery, which arises from the :
abdominal aorta
152
The indentation in the kidney through which all structures must pass as the enter or leave the kidney is the :
renal capsule
153
The portion of the male urethra that passes through the pelvic floor is called the :
membranous portion
154
The ligament that attaches the ovaries to the pelvic wall is the :
suspensory
155
The supporting structure of the male reproductive system is the :
spermatic cord
156
Which two structures are ligated and divided during cholecystectomy?
cystic artery and cystic duct
157
When performing a D&C which of the following are used to grasp the cervix : Sims, Auvard, Schroeder, Bozeman?
Schroeder
158
Which of the following items may be used in positioning a patient for Total Hip Arthroplasty : fracture table, bean bag, Wilson frame, Andrews frame?
bean bag
159
Which of the following is most likely to be used to stabilize a cervical fracture : kirschner wire, hoffman device, steinmann pins, mayfield clamp?
mayfield clamp
160
If the VII cranial nerve is severed, which of the following is the result : loss of hearing, loss of vision, facial paralysis, impairment of eye muscles?
facial paralysis
161
What is the proper position in which to place a patient for a right nephrectomy?
left lateral kidney
162
The parathyroid gland regulates :
calcium
163
Scoliosis is MOST commonly found in which of the following curves of the vertebral column?
thoracic
164
What type of incision is typically used for an open cholecystectomy?
subcostal
165
Which of the following must be done before sterilizing an instrument with a lumen : allowing the instrument to dry completely, ensuring the stylet is still within the lumen, injecting a small amount of distilled water into the lumen, wrapping separately in a peel pack pouch and placed in the tray
injecting a small amount of distilled water into the lumen
166
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Which of the following is NOT a symptom of shock?
A. tachycardia
B. hypertension
C. cold, clammy skin
D. increased respirations
```
b, hypertension
167
Hair removed during preparation for cranial surgery should be
A. discarded by the circulator.
B. sent to pathology.
C. used for potential reimplantation.
D. saved because it is personal property.
d, saved because it is personal property
168
```
What color is a nitrous oxide tank?
A. blue
B. gray
C. green
D. orange
```
a, blue
169
```
Following an abdominal surgery, the surgeon has just closed the peritoneum. Which of the following layers will be sutured next?
A. fascia
B. muscle
C. subcutaneous
D. subcuticular
```
a, fascia
170
Which of the following statements regarding surgical scrubbing is NOT true?
A. Two accepted methods of surgical scrubbing are the timed method and the counted brush-stroke method.
B. A vigorous 5-minute scrub with a reliable agent may be as effective as a 10-minute scrub done with less mechanical action.
C. Prolonging a scrub beyond the standard scrub length is effective in decreasing microbe counts.
D. When gloves are removed at the end of a surgical procedure, the hands are contaminated and should be immediately washed.
C. Prolonging a scrub beyond the standard scrub length is effective in decreasing microbe counts.
171
```
During a laminectomy, disk material is removed with
A. an osteotome.
B. a Kerrison rongeur.
C. a pituitary rongeur.
D. a periosteal elevator.
```
C. a pituitary rongeur.
172
```
Which of the following is a type of herniation that occurs with protrusion of the peritoneal sac and its contents (omentum or abdominal viscera)?
A. epigastric
B. umbilical
C. hypogastric
D. femoral
```
B. umbilical
173
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During a C-section, a surgical technologist passes the surgeon a pair of Metzenbaum scissors and Russian forceps. Which of the following anatomical parts is dissected off the uterus and gently retracted prior to uterine incision?
A. ovaries
B. bladder
C. peritoneum
D. broad ligament
```
B. bladder
174
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A patient undergoing a procedure while under general anesthesia begins to experience muscle rigidity, followed by tachycardia, metabolic and respiratory acidosis, and cardiac dysrhythmias. Which of the following is the patient experiencing?
A. septic shock
B. malignant hyperthermia
C. cardiopulmonary arrest
D. pulmonary embolism
```
B. malignant hyperthermia
175
Which of the following methods of hospital sterilization does not corrode metal and passes through woven materials like steam?
A. ionizing radiation
B. Steris
C. glutaraldehyde
D. ethylene oxide
D. ethylene oxide
