Anesthesia Homework Flashcards
(107 cards)
1
Q
A drug from which of the following categories will cause loss of motor function when administered during an epidural?
- Alpha-2 agonist
- Opioid
- Corticosteroid
- Local anesthetic
A
Local anesthetic
2
Q
Which drug should not be used IM for sedation?
- Xylazine
- Acepromazine
- Phenobarbital
- Ketamine
A
Phenobarbital
3
Q
Malignant hyperthermia associated with inhalant anesthesia is most likely to be encountered in
- Dogs
- Rabbits
- Sheep
- Pigs
A
Pigs
4
Q
Which of the following is true regarding the blood parameters of a dog that is hypoventilating under anesthesia?
- O2 and CO2 are both elevated
- O2 is elevated
- CO2 is lowered
- CO2 is elevated
A
CO2 is elevated
5
Q
Which of the following is a narcotic antagonist?
- Yohimbine
- Naloxone
- Propofol
- Oxymorphone
A
Naloxone
6
Q
The circulatory system can be monitored during general anesthesia by checking which of the following?
- All of the above
- Color of mucus membranes
- CRT
- Heart rate
A
All of the above
7
Q
The drug that has the longest duration of effect after one injection is
- Morphine
- Butorphanol
- Buprenorphine
- Oxymorphone
A
Buprenorphine
8
Q
Naloxone is the reversal agent for which drug?
- Ketamine
- Acepromazine
- Oxymorphone
- Sodium thiamylal
A
Oxymorphone
9
Q
What size reservoir bag should be used for a 25 pound dog?
- 2 liters
- 1 liter
- 4 liters
- 0.5 liter
A
1 liter
10
Q
Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs used to control mild postoperative pain include:
- Acetylpromazine and ibuprofen
- Carprofen and ketoprofen
- Diazepam and acetaminophen
- Aspirin and xylazine
A
Carprofen and ketoprofen
11
Q
Which of the following would NOT be a potential indicator of intraoperative pain?
- Increased heart rate
- Increased respiratory rate
- Increased patient movement
- Decreased blood pressure
A
Decreased blood pressure
12
Q
What is a common problem with extubation of the brachycephalic breeds during the anesthetic recovery period?
- An obstructed airway leads to dyspnea
- These breeds respire with positive pressure ventilation
- The technician is often bitten by these breeds
- These breeds take longer to regain the swallowing reflex
A
An obstructed airway leads to dyspnea
13
Q
Using ketamine as an anesthetic agent diminishes the value of what measure in assessing anesthetic depth?
- Pedal reflex
- Jaw muscle tone
- Eye position
- Pinna reflex
A
Eye position
14
Q
Glycopyrrolate is an anticholinergic with all of the following advantages over atropine except
- Crosses the placental barrier
- Less likely to cause cardiac arrhythmias
- Longer duration of action
- Smaller dose volume
A
Crosses the placental barrier
15
Q
Local anesthetics
- Block catecholamine release
- Cause increased release of inhibitory neurotransmitters
- Interfere with transmission of the impulse along the nerve fiber
- Disrupt nerve impulse transmission at the NMJ
A
Interfere with transmission of the impulse along the nerve fiber
16
Q
What is the minimum acceptable heart rate for an anesthetized large breed dog?
- 80 bpm
- 100 bpm
- 60 bpm
- 120 bpm
A
60 bpm
17
Q
Intravenous sodium bicarbonate is used to
- Treat cardiac arrhythmias
- Stimulate respiration
- Produce positive inotropic effects
- Combat acidosis
A
Combat acidosis
18
Q
What may develop in an animal that received no atropine preanesthetic?
- Bradycardia
- Severe emesis
- Collapsed trachea
- Sinusitis
A
Bradycardia
20
Q
Compared to a rebreathing system, a non-rebreathing system:
- uses more oxygen for the same size patient
- requires more soda lime
- does not require a scavenging system
- requires a larger rebreathing bag for the same size patient
A
uses more oxygen for the same size patient
20
Q
What adverse effect may be caused by the use of morphine as a preanesthetic?
- Bronchodilation
- Decrease the amount of anesthetic used
- Excitation and vomiting
- Increased sensitivity to pain
A
Excitation and vomiting
21
Q
Which animal is most likely to experience laryngospasm during intubation?
- horse
- cat
- cow
- dog
A
cat
22
Q
Which animal is most likely to experience laryngospasm during intubation?
- horse
- cat
- cow
- dog
A
cat
23
Q
Which of the drugs listed must be confined to a locked cabinet?
- Atropine
- Acepromazine
- Oxymorphone
- Xylazine
A
Oxymorphone
24
Q
What is the main reason for periodically emptying the rebreathing bag on a closed circuit anesthetic machine?
- Prevent CO2 buildup and acidosis
- Monitor leaks in the system
- Keep the bag pliable to facilitate exhalation
- Allow inhalation of fresh anesthetic
A
Prevent CO2 buildup and acidosis
25
A capillary refill time that is over 2 seconds indicates
- Congestive heart failure
- Decreased ventilation
- Decreased peripheral blood perfusion
- Hypertension
Decreased peripheral blood perfusion
26
Which drug is an antagonist of xylazine?
- Yohimbine
- Pentazocine
- Detomidine
- Butorphanol
Yohimbine
27
What is a common problem with extubation of the brachycephalic breeds during the anesthetic recovery period?
- These breeds take longer to regain the swallowing reflex
- The technician is often bitten by these breeds
- These breeds respire with positive pressure ventilation
- An obstructed airway leads to dyspnea
An obstructed airway leads to dyspnea
28
What drug is an antagonist of medetomidine (Domitor)?
- Yohimbine
- Dopram
- Atipamezole
- Naloxone
Atipamezole
29
Which of the following anesthetic agents may cause panting?
- Diazepam
- Barbiturates
- Ketamine
- Narcotics
Narcotics
30
Which phase of equine anesthesia poses the highest risk to the horse and is the phase over which the anesthetist has the least control?
- premedication
- induction
- maintenance
- recovery
recovery
31
What is the function of the "pop-off" valve on the anesthesia machine?
- restricts gas flow to only one direction
- allows the release of excess pressure
- allows for free air to enter the breathing circuit
- controls the amount of air to the rebreathing bag
allows the release of excess pressure
32
What is a major complication with general anesthesia in a goat?
- nerve paralysis
- bloat
- laryngospasm
- hyperthermia
bloat
33
The drug that has the longest duration of effect after one injection is
- Butorphanol
- Oxymorphone
- Morphine
- Buprenorphine
buprenorphine
34
Which of the scheduled drugs has the highest abuse potential?
- II
- IV
- I
- III
I
35
What term describes the volume of gas inhaled and exhaled in one breath?
- Expiratory volume
- Reservoir volume
- Inspiratory volume
- Tidal volume
Tidal volume
36
What is the position of the trachea relative to the esophagus?
- Trachea is ventral to the esophagus
- Trachea is to the right of the esophagus
- Trachea is dorsal to the esophagus
- Trachea is to the left of the esophagus
Trachea is ventral to the esophagus
37
What drugs will not slow the heart rate?
- Gas anesthetics
- Alpha-2 agonists
- Phenothiazine tranquilizers
- Anticholinergics
Anticholinergics
38
Which of the following anesthetic agents is contraindicated in sight hounds?
- Dissociative anesthetics
- Benzodiazepines
- Thiobarbiturates
- Gas anesthetics
Thiobarbiturates
39
The best method for determining the proper inflation of an endotracheal tube cuff is
- Use 1 ml of air for each millimeter of internal diameter of the tube.
- Inject air until the bulb on the cuff tubing is too hard to collapse.
- Use a 12-ml syringe and inject 12 ml of air into the cuff.
- Inject air while applying pressure from the reservoir bag until no air escapes around the tube.
Inject air while applying pressure from the reservoir bag until no air escapes around the tube.
40
At normal doses, what effect does atropine have on the heart rate?
- Prevents a decrease
- Increases
- Decreases
- No effect
Prevents a decrease
41
Why is epinephrine often added to lidocaine for local analgesia?
- Epinephrine is a pharmacologic antagonist to lidocaine
- Epinephrine has a sedative effect
- Epinephrine neutralizes the pH of lidocaine, making it less painful
- Epinephrine prolongs the effects of lidocaine
Epinephrine prolongs the effects of lidocaine
42
What is the classification of ketamine HCl?
- Barbiturate
- Neuroleptanalgesic
- Tranquilizer
- Dissociative anesthetic
Dissociative anesthetic
43
Which preanesthetics are contraindicated in epileptics?
- Anticholinergics
- Phenothiazines
- Alpha 2 agonists
- Opioids
Phenothiazines
44
Which of the following drugs is commonly administered via a transdermal patch?
- Fentanyl
- Diazepam
- Ketoprofen
- Butorphanol
fentanyl
45
Which of the following best describes a properly inserted endotracheal tube?
- the adapter is just caudal to the incisors
- the cuff is just caudal to the glottis
- the tip is midway between the larynx and the thoracic inlet
- the tip is just caudal to the third rib
the tip is midway between the larynx and the thoracic inlet
46
Preanesthetic drugs typically include which of the following?
- narcotics and tranquilizers
- narcotics and analeptics
- anticholinergics and analeptics
- tranquilizers and inhalant gases
narcotics and tranquilizers
47
___ analgesia is the administration of an analgesic before the pain develops.
- Somatic
- Referred
- Preemptive
- Visceral
Preemptive
48
Which of the following is the most likely complication of endotracheal tube cuff over-inflation during lengthy anesthesia?
- air leakage from the cuff
- cuff wear and tear
- cuff rotation within the trachea
- tissue necrosis
tissue necrosis
49
Patients that have water withheld for long periods before surgery and general anesthesia may be prone to
- Vomiting during induction
- Dehydration and hypotension
- Respiratory depression
- Nothing more that other patients
Dehydration and hypotension
50
Which of the following would not cause pale mucous membranes?
- Hypotension
- Hyperthermia
- Stress causing catecholamine release leading to vasoconstriction
- Anemia
Hyperthermia
51
What is the major drawback in using ketamine alone as the sole anesthetic in an ovariohysterectomy in the feline?
- Increased salivation
- Little abdominal analgesia
- Cardiac depression
- Loss of muscle tone
Little abdominal analgesia
52
Which of the following is NOT an effect of anticholinergic drugs?
- Prevent bradycardia
- Prevent vomiting
- Constrict airways
- Decrease tear flow
Constrict airways
53
What happens to the ventilation rate and depth as the anesthesia level deepens?
- no change
- disappears
- increases
- decreases
decreases
54
While monitoring a horse receiving oxygen at the rate of 8 L/min, isoflurane 2.5%, and fluids at the rate of 10 ml/kg/hr, you note that the blood pressure suddenly falls to 60 mm Hg, and the peripheral pulse becomes weak. Your first response should be to
- Administer a vasoactive agent
- Lower the isoflurane concentration and increase fluid delivery rate
- Not be concerned
- Turn down the oxygen flow
Lower the isoflurane concentration and increase fluid delivery rate
55
Puppies or kittens delivered by cesarean section that have reduced respiratory function can be given this drug underneath their tongue to stimulate respiration.
- Doxapram
- Lidocaine
- Atropine
- Epinephrine
Doxapram
56
What is the likely effect on an anesthetized patient if the soda lime is exhausted?
- the patient will wake up
- hypercarbia
- white mucous membranes
- elevated SpO2
hypercarbia
57
A capillary refill time that is over 2 seconds indicates
- Hypertension
- Decreased ventilation
- Congestive heart failure
- Decreased peripheral blood perfusion
Decreased peripheral blood perfusion
58
Which term describes a drug that stimulates a receptor?
- antithesis
- antagonist
- agonist
- antitussive
agonist
59
What is the pressure in the thoracic cavity during normal inhalation?
- Negative pressure
- Balanced pressure
- Mediastinal pressure
- Positive pressure
Negative pressure
60
What is the effect of doxapram on the anesthetized patient?
- Increase cardiac output
- Increase respiration rate
- Increase heart rate
- Increase blood pressure
Increase respiration rate
61
Which of the following is the best method to rapidly fill a reservoir bag with pure oxygen when not connected to a patient?
- close the "pop-off valve
- turn up the flowmeter
- turn off the anesthetic gases
- use the flush valve
use the flush valve
62
Which species has the greatest risk for regurgitation and aspiration when placed under general anesthesia?
- cattle
- rabbits
- cats
- horses
cattle
63
Vital signs are checked and recorded every 5 minutes for cats and dogs under anesthesia. How often are they checked and recorded for a horse under anesthesia?
- every 5 minutes
- at the start and finish of anesthesia
- whenever an alarm goes off
- every 20 minutes
every 5 minutes
64
Why are intravenous barbiturates generally contraindicated in C-sections of a bitch?
- Severe respiratory depression of the fetuses results
- Agalactia of the mother leads to the loss of a high percentage of the pups
- The drug is excreted primarily in the milk of the lactating female
- Nausea in the mother is a frequent complication
Severe respiratory depression of the fetuses' results
65
Which of the following drugs would have the strongest analgesic effect in a dog?
- Acepromazine
- Propofol
- Buprenorphine
- Sevoflurane
Buprenorphine
66
What size endotracheal tube would be the best first choice for an 8 pound cat?
- 8 mm
- 4 mm
- 6 mm
- 2 mm
4 mm
67
What may develop in an animal that received no atropine preanesthetic?
- Sinusitis
- Severe emesis
- Collapsed trachea
- Bradycardia
Bradycardia
68
What is balanced anesthesia?
- Anesthesia that is monitored by a team of anesthesiologists throughout the procedure
- Anesthesia that is well maintained throughout the entire surgical procedure
- The use of combinations of drugs to selectively act as anesthetics, analgesics, and muscle relaxants
- The proper positioning of the patient on the induction and surgery table
The use of combinations of drugs to selectively act as anesthetics, analgesics, and muscle relaxants
69
Which drug is a dissociative anesthetic?
- Xylazine
- Acepromazine
- Ketamine
- Thiopental sodium
Ketamine
70
Which of the following is not seen when ketamine is administered IV rather than IM?
- longer duration of effects
- lower dose rate used
- less pain on injection
- quicker onset of effects
longer duration of effects
71
Which of the following is NOT an effect associated with atropine administration?
- Tachycardia
- Excessive salivation
- Decreased gastrointestinal motility
- Mydriasis
Excessive salivation
72
A patient in ASA class I physical status is
- In absolutely no danger while under anesthesia
- An adult animal with no signs of evident disease on physical examination
- A normal patient with no organic disease
- A moribund patient
A normal patient with no organic disease
73
Which of the following is not a reason for using preanesthetic drugs?
- less induction drugs are needed
- provide analgesia
- decrease blood pressure
- reduce patient anxiety
decrease blood pressure
74
Obesity delays elimination of what drug because of its high lipid solubility?
- Guaifenesin
- Xylazine
- Propofol
- Thiopental
Thiopental
75
Guaifenesin is commonly used for anesthesia in what species?
- horse
- guinea pig
- goat
- dog
horse
76
What is the pressure in the thoracic cavity during normal inhalation?
- Mediastinal pressure
- Balanced pressure
- Positive pressure
- Negative pressure
Negative pressure
77
Propofol is a/an
- Nonbarbiturate, intravenous anesthetic with hypotensive potential
- Ketamine-like dissociative
- Ultrashort-acting barbiturate
- Xylazine antagonist
Nonbarbiturate, intravenous anesthetic with hypotensive potential
78
Which of the following drugs is an anticholinergic?
- Adrenaline
- Epinephrine
- Glycopyrrolate
- Cortisone
Glycopyrrolate
79
Which drug should be avoided in the stallion because it may cause permanent prolapse of the penis?
- glycopyrrolate
- xylazine
- butorphanol
- acepromazine
acepromazine
80
Which patient has the greatest risk of hypothermia under general anesthesia?
- 6 month old quarter horse mare
- yearling Suffolk sheep
- 2 year old female Chihuahua
- 6 week old male Siamese cat
6 week old male Siamese cat
81
What drug is an antagonist of dexmeditomidine?
- naloxone
- atropine
- xylazine
- atipamezole
atipamezole
82
When monitoring a cat under anesthesia, which of the following should you bring to the attention of the veterinarian?
- SpO2 = 96 %
- MAP = 40 mm Hg
- ETCO2 = 38 mm Hg
- HR = 120 bpm
MAP = 40 mm Hg
83
If atropine was not given to an animal under anesthesia, what would dilated pupils indicate?
- Too light a plane of anesthesia
- Excitement stage
- Too deep a plane of anesthesia
- Adequate plane of anesthesia
Too deep a plane of anesthesia
84
Which of the following is not a controlled substance?
- midazolam
- fentanyl
- acepromazine
- ketamine
acepromazine
84
You are attempting to administer IV premedication to a horse by first placing the needle in the jugular vein. Blood begins pulsating and ejecting forcefully from the needle. What is the most likely explanation?
- the needle is too short
- normal jugular venospasm
- the horse has hypertension
- the needle is in the carotid artery
the needle is in the carotid artery
85
___ should not be used as part of the anesthetic plan if the patient has an intestinal obstruction.
- Nitrous oxide
- Isoflurane
- Atropine
- Acepromazine
Nitrous oxide
86
Which drug is a respiratory stimulant?
- Propanolol
- Oxytocin
- Doxapram
- Dobutamine
Doxapram
87
What is a pulse deficit?
- The pulse is slow
- The heart is beating without pumping blood
- The heart is beating too slowly
- The pulse is weak
The heart is beating without pumping blood
88
The volume of the rebreathing bag on an anesthetic machine should be at least
- The same as the patient's tidal volume
- Nine times the patient's tidal volume
- Six times the patient's tidal volume
- Three times the patient's tidal volume
Three times the patient's tidal volume
89
Dobutamine is used in emergency anesthetic and clinical situations to
- Correct cardiac arrhythmias
- Decrease the heart rate
- Increase respiratory rate
- Increase cardiac output
Increase cardiac output
90
Which of the following is LEAST likely to cause hypotension after administration?
- Thiopental
- Ketamine
- Propofol
- Acepromazine
Ketamine
91
Which drug is the most potent sedative?
- Detomidine
- Acepromazine
- Xylazine
- Diazepam
detomidine
92
What is the term for using a combination of drugs to provide better pain management?
- Inductive analgesia
- Multimodal analgesia
- Dissociative analgesia
- Preemptive analgesia
Multimodal analgesia
93
Which preanesthetic may cause emesis in cats?
- Atropine
- Dexmedetomidine
- Acepromazine
- Ketamine
Dexmedetomidine
93
Which of the following statements is false regarding sighing of an animal?
- In simplest terms, it is artificial breathing for the animal
- The pop-off valve should be closed
- Pressure should never exceed 20 cm H2O
- Sighing should be done every 20 - 30 minutes
Sighing should be done every 20 - 30 minutes
94
What should the anesthetist do to prevent atelectasis during anesthesia?
- Administer IV fluids
- Sigh the patient periodically
- Monitor the heart rate
- Check the body temperature
Sigh the patient periodically
94
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
- When giving medications by the IT route, the dosage rate should be doubled from the IV dose.
- Furosemide may be used to treat pulmonary edema.
- Doxapram is a respiratory stimulant.
- Dopamine is an analeptic stimulant.
Dopamine is an analeptic stimulant
95
What is the function of the manometer?
- Reduce high pressures of gases at the cylinder
- Measure blood pressure
- Measure gas flow rate
- Monitor pressure in a circle system
Monitor pressure in a circle system
95
Which of the following statements is false regarding sighing of an animal?
- In simplest terms, it is artificial breathing for the animal
- The pop-off valve should be closed
- Pressure should never exceed 20 cm H2O
- Sighing should be done every 20 - 30 minutes
Sighing should be done every 20 - 30 minutes
95
What should the anesthetist do to prevent atelectasis during anesthesia?
- Administer IV fluids
- Sigh the patient periodically
- Monitor the heart rate
- Check the body temperature
Sigh the patient periodically
96
Alpha-2 agonists have what effect upon the heart?
- cardiac stimulant
- tachycardia
- bradycardia
- inotropic
bradycardia
97
Acepromazine is classified as a(an)
- Phenothiazine
- Anticholinergic
- Thiazine dirivative
- Benzodiazepine
Phenothiazine
98
The local anesthetic agent that has the longest duration of action is
- Bupivacaine
- Lidocaine
- Mepivacaine
- Tetracaine
Bupivacaine
99
What is the effect of hypothermia on the anesthetized patient?
- Slow recovery
- Increased urine output
- Increased metabolism
- Rapid respiration
Slow recovery
100
What is the optimal anesthetic level for a routine ovariohysterectomy?
- stage 2, plane 3
- stage 2, plane 2
- stage 3, plane 1
- stage 3, plane 2
stage 3, plane 2
101
The combination of xylazine and butorphanol is used to
- Cause central nervous system (CNS) excitement
- Increase the dose of xylazine
- Increase the dose of butorphanol
- Provide greater analgesia and muscle relaxation than either drug can alone
Provide greater analgesia and muscle relaxation than either drug can alone
102
All of the following are appropriate uses of anticholinergic drugs except
- As treatment for bradycardia
- As an aid in the treatment of corneal ulcers
- As an antidote for organophosphate poisoning
- As an agent to increase intestinal peristalsis
As an agent to increase intestinal peristalsis
