Pharmacology I Quiz Flashcards

(49 cards)

1
Q

What type of organism are the drugs ketoconazole and griseofulvin effective against?

  • Viruses
  • Bacteria
  • Fungi
  • Flukes
A

Fungi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How is pilocarpine administered?

  • eye drops
  • suppository
  • oral suspension
  • inhalation
A

eye drops

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which category of controlled drugs is most tightly controlled?

  • V
  • IV
  • I
  • II
A

I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which of the following is an anticholinergic?

  • Ketamine HCl
  • Acepromazine
  • Xylazine
  • Glycopyrrolate
A

Glycopyrrolate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The H2 receptors are found in the

  • Carotid arches
  • Saliva
  • Gastric mucosa
  • Aortic arch
A

Gastric mucosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which class of antibiotics is most associated with joint cartilage damage in young, growing animals?

Aminoglycosides
Sulfonamides
Fluoroquinolones
Penicillins

A

Fluoroquinolones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of the following types of drugs promote excretion of urine?

Diuretics
Emetics
Antibiotics
Anticholinergics

A

Diuretics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Neomycin, streptomycin, gentamicin and dihydrostreptomycin all belong to what class of antibiotics?

  • Nitrofurans
  • Polymixins
  • Aminoglycosides
  • Tetracyclines
A

Aminoglycosides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Griseofulvin acts on

  • Both gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria
  • Dermatophytes
  • Gram-positive bacteria
  • Gram-negative bacteria
A

Dermatophytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which drug is a respiratory stimulant?

  • Doxapram
  • Propranolol
  • Dobutamine
  • Oxytocin
A

Doxapram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What does the term OD mean on a prescription?

  • Left eye
  • Right eye
  • Right ear
  • Left ear
A

Right eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which insulin form is used initially to treat a DKA cat (diabetic ketoacidosis)?

  • Intermediate acting
  • Long acting
  • Short acting
  • Ultra-long acting
A

Short acting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

ACE inhibitors are used to treat which condition?

  • Urinary incontinence
  • Hypertension
  • Seizures
  • Asthma
A

Hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which is the best drug to treat ventricular fibrillation?

  • Bretylium
  • Verapamil
  • Propranolol
  • Lidocaine
A

Lidocaine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which group of drugs causes pupillary dilation to allow for a better retinal examination?

  • Topical anesthetics
  • Miotics
  • Mydriatics
  • Osmotics
A

Mydriatics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which of the following is a hypertonic solution?

  • 0.9% saline
  • LRS
  • Distilled water
  • 50% dextrose
A

50% dextrose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which of the following is a bronchodilator?

  • Lidocaine
  • Aminophylline
  • Propranolol
  • Metoclopramide
A

Aminophylline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which topical drugs should not be used with a corneal ulcer?

  • Cyclosporin
  • Lubricants
  • Glucocorticoids
  • Flurbiprofen
A

Glucocorticoids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Antiemetics are indicated in which situation?

  • Apnea
  • Vomiting
  • Diarrhea
  • Hysteria
A

vomiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which of the following is used to treat demodex in dogs?

  • Fenbendazole
  • Advantage
  • Fipronil
  • Amitraz
21
Q

Which class of drug poses the most threat to those handling the medication?

  • Antineoplastics
  • Anthelmintics
  • Antibiotics
  • Antiprotozoals
22
Q

Acetylcystein (mucomyst) is an antidote for which toxicity?

  • Acetaminophen
  • Opioid
  • Lidocaine
  • Digoxin
A

Acetaminophen

23
Q

Enrofloxacin, marbofloxacin and orbifloxacin are all which type of drug?

  • Penicillins
  • Cephalosporins
  • Fluroquinolones
  • Aminoglycosides
24
Q

Which of the following drug is commonly used to treat giardia?

  • Metronidazole
  • Drontal
  • Pyrantel pamoate
  • Praziquantel
A

Metronidazole

25
Which emetic can be given in the subconjunctival sac? - Apomorphine - Hydrogen peroxide - Xylazine - Syrup of ipecac
Apomorphine
26
What is the meaning of 60 ml PO TID? - Two ounce by mouth every 8 hours - Two tablespoon by mouth twice daily - Four tablespoons in mouth every 6 hours - 6 teaspoons as drench every 8 hours
Two ounce by mouth every 8 hours
27
Which of the following is required on the label of medications dispensed for treating food animals but is not required on the label of medications dispensed for household pets? - Strength of the drug - Drug withdrawal time - Brand name of the drug - Clinic name and address
Drug withdrawal time
28
Butorphanol is commonly used as of the following - Bronchodilator - Antidiarrheal agent - Antiemetic - Antitussive agent
Antitussive agent
29
What type of drug is sucralfate? Antidiarrheal Antibloat Antiulcer Laxative
Antiulcer
30
Thiobarbiturates should not be administered to - Spaniels - Rottweilers - Greyhounds - Collies
31
What is given to treat an animal with eclampsia? - Calcium - Glucose - Insulin - Potassium
calcium
32
A cow is accidentally dosed with an equine dose of xylazine. What drug should immediately be delivered? - Yohimbine - Atipamezole - None. The doses are the same for cows and horses - Epinephrine
Yohimbine
33
Decreased coat luster, hair loss, decreased appetite, listlessness, cold intolerance and reproductive failure are all signs of what disease and are treated with which medications? - Diabetes mellitus/insulin - Hypothyroidism/levothyroxine - Hyperthyroidism/methimazole - Addison's disease/Percorten V
Hypothyroidism/levothyroxine
34
Which NSAID is commonly used in equines? - Aspirin - Etodolac - Ibuprofen - Phenylbutazone
Phenylbutazone
35
Which form of insulin has the longest duration of action in a cat? - Glargine - Protamine Zinc - Crystalline - NPH
Glargine
36
How is furosemide classified? - Vasodilators - Diuretics - Antiarrhythmics - Positive inotropes
Diuretics
37
What medications cause the pupils to constrict? - Miotics - Diuretics - Emetics - Mydriatics
Miotics
38
Sulfonamides are commonly used to treat bacterial infections, but are also effective to treat which of the following? - Ringworm - Coccidia - Herpesvirus - Spirochetes
Coccidia
39
All of the following organs can facilitate the elimination of drugs except - Kidneys - Liver - Lungs - Spleen
Spleen
40
What does it mean to administer medication PO? - Intravenously - Intramuscularly - Orally - Rectally
Orally
41
Phenylpropanolamine is used to treat what condition? - Urinary incontinence - Anaphylaxis - High blood pressure - Vomiting
Urinary incontinence
42
Sulfonamides are commonly used to treat bacterial infections, but are also effective to treat which of the following? - Spirochetes - Ringworm - Herpesvirus - Coccidia
Coccidia
43
Which of the following describes the action of a parasympathomimetic or cholinergic drug? - Decreases salivation - Increases salivation - Dilates the pupils - Lowers clotting time of blood
Increases salivation
44
Short-term effects of corticosteroid therapy include all of the following except - Delayed healing - Osteoporosis - Polyphagia - Polyuria
Osteoporosis
45
Drug excretion occurs primarily in which organs? - Pancreas and kidney - Kidney and liver - Stomach and intestine - Spleen and pancreas
Kidney and liver
46
The effects of which toxin can be counteracted with Vitamin K? - Metaldehyde - Brodifacoum - Theobromine - Acetominophen
Brodifacoum
47
Which of the following would be used to control epileptic seizures? - Ketamine HCl - Meperidine - Doxapram HCl - Diazepam
Diazepam
48
What is the biological half-life of a drug? - The time it takes 50% of the animals to die from the dose - The time the drug is good on the shelf - The time it takes an animal to eliminate half of the dose - When an animal only receives half of the required dose
The time it takes an animal to eliminate half of the dose
49
Which of the following is a parenteral route of administration? - Subcutaneous injection - Suppository - Nasogastric tube - Oral tablets
Subcutaneous injection