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Licensure Exam Comprehensive Review > Pharmacology I > Flashcards

Pharmacology I Flashcards

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1
Q

Butorphanol is commonly used as of the following?

  • Antitussive agent
  • Antidiarrheal agent
  • Antiemetic
  • Bronchodilator
A

Antitussive agent

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2
Q

Which agency regulates the sale and use of controlled substances?

  • APHIS
  • FDA
  • USDA
  • DEA
A

DEA

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3
Q

Which non-narcotic agent causes emesis in cats?

  • Morphine
  • Xylazine
  • Chlorpromazine
  • Diazepam
A

Xylazine

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4
Q

Which of the following correctly lists the routes of administration from fastest to slowest absorption?

IV > SQ > PO > IM

IM > IV > SQ >PO

PO > IV > IM > SQ

IV > IM > SQ > PO

A

IV > IM > SQ > PO

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5
Q

Which of the following is a parenteral route of administration?

  • Suppository
  • Oral tablets
  • Subcutaneous injection
  • Nasogastric tube
A

Subcutaneous injection

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6
Q

Which food-producing animal drug has the shortest withdrawal time?

  • One with a half-life of 12 hours
  • One with a half-life of 60 minutes
  • One with a half-life of 3 days
  • One with a half-life of 30 minutes
A

One with a half-life of 30 minutes

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7
Q

Heartworm preventative that is also effective against sarcoptic mange and ear mites is

  • Diethylcarbamazine (Filaribits)
  • Milbemycin (Interceptor)
  • Ivermectin (Heartgard)
  • Selamectin (Revolution)
A

Selamectin (Revolution)

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8
Q

A cat with hyperthyroid disease may be treated with all but which of the following?

  • Methimazole
  • Thyroidectomy
  • I-131 therapy
  • Fenbendazole
A

Fenbendazole

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9
Q

What term refers to medication administered into a joint?

  • Intra-arterial
  • Intra-articular
  • Epidural
  • Intrathecal
A

Intra-articular

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10
Q

Which of the following is antimicrobial, antiprotozoal and anti-inflammatory?

  • Pyrantel
  • Trimethoprim
  • Clorsulon
  • Metronidazole
A

Metronidazole

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11
Q

Enrofloxacin, marbofloxacin and orbifloxacin are all which type of drug?

  • Cephalosporins
  • Aminoglycosides
  • Fluroquinolones
  • Penicillin
A

Fluroquinolones

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12
Q

Which drug is manufactured in both 1:1,000 and 1:10,000 concentrations?

  • Epinephrine
  • Dopamine
  • Diphenhydramine
  • Lidocaine
A

Epinephrine

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13
Q

Which agency regulates the sale and use of controlled substances?

  • FDA
  • APHIS
  • DEA
  • USDA
A

DEA

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14
Q

All of the following organs can facilitate the elimination of drugs except

  • Kidneys
  • Spleen
  • Lungs
  • Liver
A

Spleen

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15
Q

A medication that requires gloves when handling and can cause aplastic anemia in humans and should never be used in animals intended for food is which of the following

  • Tetracycline
  • Erythromycin
  • Gentamycin
  • Chloramphenicol
A

Chloramphenicol

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16
Q

Which drug is effective against both nematodes and arthropods?

  • Fenbendazole
  • Ivermectin
  • Pyrantel
  • Clorsulon
A

Ivermectin

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17
Q

Which cardiovascular drug needs to be monitored through blood level testing?

  • Lidocaine
  • Digoxin
  • Lasix
  • Dopamine
A

Digoxin

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18
Q

Which topical drugs should not be used with a corneal ulcer?

  • Flurbiprofen
  • Lubricants
  • Cyclosporin
  • Glucocorticoids
A

Cyclosporin

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19
Q

What type of drug is sucralfate (Carafate)?

  • Antibloat
  • Antidiarrheal
  • Laxative
  • Antiulcer
A

Antiulcer

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20
Q

Which drug is most likely to be prescribed to prevent motion sickness?

  • Apomorphine
  • Dimenhydrinate
  • Atropine
  • Syrup of ipecac
A

Dimenhydrinate

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21
Q

A cow is accidentally dosed with an equine dose of xylazine. What drug should immediately be delivered?

  • Atipamezole
  • Yohimbine
  • None. The doses are the same for cows and horses.
  • Epinephrine
A

Yohimbine

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22
Q

Which is the best drug to treat ventricular fibrillation?

  • Lidocaine
  • Bretylium
  • Verapamil
  • Propranolol
A

Lidocaine

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23
Q

What medications cause the pupils to constrict?

  • Miotics
  • Mydriatics
  • Diuretics
  • Emetics
A

Miotics

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24
Q

Drug excretion occurs primarily in which organs?

  • Kidney and liver
  • Spleen and pancreas
  • Stomach and intestine
  • Pancreas and kidney
A

Kidney and liver

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25
What is the biological half-life of a drug? - When an animal only receives half of the required dose - The time it takes 50% of the animals to die from the dose - The time the drug is good on the shelf - The time it takes an animal to eliminate half of the dose
The time it takes an animal to eliminate half of the dose
26
Which group of anesthetics causes muscle rigidity and mild analgesia? - Propofol - Inhalents - Barbiturates - Dissociatives
Dissociatives
27
Which emetic can be given in the subconjunctival sac? - Hydrogen peroxide - Syrup of ipecac - Apomorphine - Xylazine
Apomorphine
28
An antitussive is used to treat what condition? - Bradycardia - Coughing - Separation anxiety - Diarrhea
Coughing
29
What does it mean to administer medication PO? - Intravenously - Intramuscularly - Rectally - Orally
Orally
30
What is critical to do with a patient recovering from nitrous oxide-enhanced anesthesia? - Observe patient carefully for signs of seizures - Oxygenate for 5 - 10 minutes - Give an injection of the appropriate reversal agent - Allow patient to recuperate in a dark, quiet area
Oxygenate for 5 - 10 minutes
31
Which group of drugs prevents the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II? - Arteriole dilators - ACE inhibitors - Venodilators - Combined vasodilators
ACE inhibitors
32
Which of the following would be used to control epileptic seizures? - Meperidine - Ketamine HCl - Doxapram HCl - Diazepam
Diazepam
33
Acetylcystein (mucomyst) is an antidote for which toxicity? - Lidocaine - Opioid - Acetaminophen - Digoxin
Acetaminophen
34
Serious potential side effects of estrogens include which of the following? - Bone marrow suppression and pyometra - Cardiac arrhythmias and pulmonary edema - Renal failure and gastric ulcers - Hemorrhage and thromboembolism
Bone marrow suppression and pyometra
35
Warfarin toxicity is treated with which of the following? - Vitamin K1 (mephyton) - Streptokinase - Protamine sulfate - Coumarin
Vitamin K1 (mephyton)
36
Which of the following types of drugs promote excretion of urine? - Emetics - Anticholinergics - Antibiotics - Diuretics
Diuretics
37
How is furosemide classified? - Antiarrhythmics - Positive inotropes - Vasodilators - Diuretics
Diuretics
38
Which class of drug poses the most threat to those handling the medication? - Anthelmintics - Antiprotozoals - Antibiotics - Antineoplastics
Antineoplastics
39
Fenbendazole is a common de-wormer given to horses. Fenbendazole has no efficacy against which parasite? - roundworms - large strongyles - bots - pinworms
Bots
40
Thiobarbiturates should not be administered to - Rottweilers - Collies - Greyhounds - Spaniels
Greyhounds
41
Why do animals become resistant to phenobarbitals? - The half-life is too short - They excrete the drug through the kidneys - Liver enzymes are induced, causing the animal to develop tolerance - They cannot Bio-transform the drug
Liver enzymes are induced, causing the animal to develop tolerance
42
Which anti-inflammatory can readily penetrate skin and must be handled cautiously? - Aspirin - Rimadyl - Dexamethasone - DMSO
DMSO
43
ACE inhibitors are used to treat which condition? - Hypertension - Urinary incontinence - Seizures - Asthma
Hypertension
44
Which category of controlled drugs is most tightly controlled? - II - IV - V - I
I
45
Which of the following would be used to treat muscle spasms? - Methocarbamol - Apomorphine - Mannitol - Amphotericin
Methocarbamol
46
Which of the following is a hypertonic solution? - LRS - Distilled water - 50% dextrose - 0.9% saline
50% dextrose
47
What is the antidote for acetaminophen toxicity in cats? - Amphotericin - Methocarbimol - Vitamin K - N-acetylcysteine
N-acetylcysteine
48
Neomycin, streptomycin, gentamycin and dihydrostreptomycin belong to what class of antibiotics? - Aminoglycosides - Polymixins - Tetracyclines - Nitrofurans
Aminoglycosides
49
What does the term OD mean on a prescription? - Left ear - Right eye - Left eye - Right ear
Right eye
50
Which of the following is commonly used to treat cestode infestation? - Sulfamezathine - Piperazine - Praziquantel - Ivermectin
Praziquantel
51
Which antimicrobial is banned from use in food animals due to the risk to human health? - Oxytetracycline - Dicloxacillin - Trimethoprim sulfa - Chloramphenicol
Chloramphenicol
52
Antiemetics are indicated in which situation? - Hysteria - Apnea - Vomiting - Diarrhea
Vomiting
53
Which class of antibiotics is most associated with joint cartilage damage in young, growing animals? - Sulfonamides - Fluoroquinolones - Penicillins - Aminoglycosides
Fluoroquinolones
54
Glucocorticoids are used to treat all of the following except - Musculoskeletal conditions - Immune-mediated disorders - Infections - Allergies
Infections
55
Aminoglycosides cause toxicity to what organ(s)? - Pancreas - Spleen - Liver and kidney - Kidney and ear
Kidney and ear
56
What is given to treat an animal with eclampsia? - Insulin - Potassium - Glucose - Calcium
Calcium
57
What is the role of a bacteriostatic drug? - Stop fungal growth - Kill viruses - Kill bacteria - Stop bacterial growth
Stop bacterial growth
58
What type of organism are the drugs ketoconazole and griseofulvin effective against? - Bacteria - Flukes - Viruses - Fungi
Fungi
59
What term refers to the alteration of a drug from the original manufactured form, such as dilution, grinding, or mixing with other drugs? - Diversion - Biotransformation - Compounding - Administration
Compounding
60
Which antibiotics are not ideal for young animals? - Penicillins and cephalosporins - Fluoroquinolones and tetracyclines - Penicillins and aminoglycosides - Beta-lactamase inhibitors and fluoroquinolones
Fluoroquinolones and tetracyclines
61
Which insulin form is used initially to treat a DKA cat (diabetic ketoacidosis)? - Short acting - Ultra-long acting - Intermediate acting - Long acting
Short acting
62
The effects of which toxin can be counteracted with Vitamin K? - Metaldehyde - Brodifacoum - Acetominophen - Theobromine
Brodifacoum
63
Phenybutazone is an NSAID commonly used to treat chronic lameness in horses. What is the most significant adverse effect of this therapy? - gastric ulcers - pulmonary thrombosis - liver necrosis - renal insufficiency
gastric ulcers
64
A sedated dog with a normal heart rate of 60-120 beats/min now has a heart rate of 40-50 beats per minute. Which of the following is most likely to cause this? - Diazepam - Dexmedetomidine - Ketamine - Acepromazine
Dexmedetomidine
65
Griseofulvin acts on - Both gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria - Gram-negative bacteria - Gram-positive bacteria - Dermatophytes
Dermatophytes
66
A vaccine made from bacteria is called a/an - Prokaryotin - Bacterin - Modified - Attenuated
Bacterin
67
Acetylpromazine maleate causes - Reduced salivation - Tachycardia - Hypotension - Respiratory depression
Hypotension
68
You are working on an equine breeding farm and need sedation to examine a stallions teeth. Which drug is not going to be used for this purpose? - Acepromazine (promace) - Detomidine (dormosedan) - Xylazine (Rompun) - Diazepam (valium)
Acepromazine (promace)
69
Which of the following is an anticholinergic? - Glycopyrrolate - Acepromazine - Ketamine HCl - Xylazine
Glycopyrrolate
70
Prostaglandins may do which of the following except - Induce abortions - Synchronize estrus - Induce estrus - Induce parturition
Induce abortions
71
The drug label states that the drug is considered a coccidiostat. Which of the following would the drug most likely be used for? - Flukes (liver or lung fluke) - Ascarids (toxocara, toxascaris) - Protozoa (eimeria, giardia) - Tapeworms (taenia)

Licensure Exam Comprehensive Review (13 decks)

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