Annoying Slide Flashcards

(101 cards)

1
Q

Dose response curve is _____ shape

Log of dose response curve is _____ shape

A

Hyperbolic

Sigmoid

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2
Q

Thresholds based on acute responses, such as ____, are more (easy to or difficult to ?) determine, while thresholds for chemicals that cause ___ or other chronic responses are more (easy to or difficult to ?)determine.

A

death
Easy to

cancer

Difficult to

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3
Q

When a threshold is difficult to determine, toxicologists look at the _________________ to give them information about the toxicity of a chemical.

A sharp increase in the slope of the curve can suggest _____________ as the dose increases, as illustrated by line A on the next graph.
A relatively flat slope suggests that the effect of an increase in dose is ______

A

slope of the dose-response curve

increasingly higher risks of toxic responses

minimal

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4
Q

Quantal dose response curve relates dose to _______

Graded dose response curve relates dose to _______

A

Frequency of effect

Intensity of effect

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5
Q

the penicillin molecule binds to a bacterial enzyme ______ and prevents “____” in the bacterial ______ leading to death of the bacteria.

A

transpeptidase

cross links

cell wall.

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6
Q

The interaction between penicillin and the enzyme depends on the ________

Large amounts of penicillin _______ the enzyme and in the presence of small amounts, the enzyme _______

A

amounts of penicillin present.

completely blocks

resumes its normal function.

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7
Q

thyrotoxicosis can affect a drug’s pharmacodynamics

T/F

A

T

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8
Q

Drugs can impart new functions on any system, organ or cell.
T/F

A

F
Drugs (except those gene based)
Do NOT impart new functions on any system, organ or cell.
Only alter the PACE of ongoing activity.

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9
Q

STIMULATION: selective enhancement of the level of activity of specialized cells, e.g _____ on the heart, _____ on salivary glands.
DEPRESSION: selective diminution of activity of specialized cells, e.g. ______ on the CNS, _____ on the heart, _____ on gastric secretion.

A

adrenaline

pilocarpine

barbiturates

quinidine

omeprazole

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10
Q

Silent receptors

These are sites which bind specific drugs but no pharmacological response is elicited. They are better called ______ or ________ e.g. ________

A

Drug acceptors or Sites of loss

plasma proteins.

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11
Q

Autoantibodies can also mimic the effects of agonists

T/F

A

T

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12
Q

Myasthenia Gravis:
Antibodies against the ________ receptors at ________

A

cholinergic nicotinic

motor end plate.

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13
Q

Testicular feminisation:

_________ syndrome (AIS) is when a person who is genetically ____ is resistant to ___ hormones .
As a result, the person has some of the physical traits of a ______, but the genetic makeup of a ______.

A

Androgen insensitivity

male; male

woman; man

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14
Q

Familial Hypercholesterolaemia

People who have this condition are born with it. This change prevents the body from __________________________________

A

ridding itself of the type of cholesterol that can build up in the arteries and cause heart disease.

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15
Q

Effectors of Go
Substrates of Go

A

Inhibits Calcium channel
Potassium channel in heart

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16
Q

Most things that go for Gi also go for Go

T/F

A

T

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17
Q

Activation of adenyl Cyclase could result in:
(Contraction or relaxation?) (smooth muscle)
(Increased or reduced ?) contractility of heart
______
______
(activation or inhibition?) of secretion/mediator release
hormone secretion (activation or inhibition?) , among others.

A

Relaxation
Increased

glycogenolysis

Lipolysis
Inhibition
Activation

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18
Q

cAMP activity is terminated by _______, which _____ it to _____

A

phophodiestarases

hydrolyse

5-AMP

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19
Q

Activation of phospholipase C catalyzes the cleavage of membrane-bound ____________ into the second messenger _____________ and ________

A

phophatidylinositol 4,5 biphosphate (PIP2)

inositol (1, 4, 5) triphosphate (IP3)

diacylglycerol (DAG).

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20
Q

IP3/DAG pathway

Main Results:
Mediates /modulates (contraction or relaxation?)
Secretion/transmitter release
Neuronal (excitability or hyper polarization?)
________ movements
_______ synthesis
Cell _______

A

Contraction

excitability

Intracellular

Eicosanoid

Proliferation

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21
Q

Occupancy theory: response is proportional to the ______________; maximal response occurs when _____________

A

fraction of occupied receptors

all the receptors are occupied.

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22
Q

Rate theory: response is proportional to the ________________.
Here, _____ of receptor ______ determines whether a molecule is agonist, partial agonist or antagonist.

A

rate of Drug-Receptor complex dissociation

duration; dissociation

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23
Q

Stephenson’s theory: response is proportional to the ____________

Ariens’ theory: response is a function of _______

A

fraction of occupied receptor and the intrinsic activity.

affinity

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24
Q

Based on Arien’s theory, maximum response can’t be produced without 100 % receptor occupation.
T/F

A

F

It can

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25
The induced-fit theory: ______ is not necessarily complementary with the ____ conformation. Rather binding produces a ______ of both the ______ and ______ as a dynamic process
binding site; ligand plastic molding ligand and the receptor
26
______ theory nullifying the obsolete “key and lock” concept
The induced fit theory
27
In the induced fit theory , agonist induces _______ change; antagonist induced ________ change and partial agonist induces __________ change.
a conformational no conformational partial conformational
28
Theophylline is a beta2 agonist T/F
F PDE inhibitor
29
Ephedrine is a beta 2 agonist T/F
T
30
the response ( _______ ) is plotted against the logarithm of the drug concentration (________)
ordinate abscissa
31
fentanyl evokes a given response at a low concentration. ———- evokes the same response only at (lower or higher?) concentrations.
meperidine Higher
32
Zidovudine is used to treat _________
HIV
33
ispaghula is a ______
Bulk laxative
34
Pralidoxime as a _______ reactivator. Cholestyramine for __________
choline esterase sequestration of bile acids and cholesterol in the gut.
35
Dimercaprol, penicillamine, desferrioxamine as ______.
chelating agents
36
Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors e.g. ______
captopril
37
Reversible anticholinesterases e.g. ________ ,———-
neostigmine, physostigmine
38
Irreversible anticholinesterases e.g. ______________
organophosphorus compounds
39
Aspirin inhibits cyclooxygenase enzyme and therefore _______ synthesis.
prostaglandin
40
Monoamine oxidase inhibitors used to treat depression e.g. _______.
imipramine
41
Proton pump inhibitors: e.g. ______ inhibit the H+/K+ ATPase in parietal cells of stomach.
omeprazole
42
Inhibition of choline carrier by ______.
hemicholinium
43
Inhibition of noradrenaline vesicular uptake by _______. Inhibition of neuronal reuptake of noradrenaline by _______. Inhibition of neuronal reuptake of serotonin by ________. Inhibition of weak acid (e.g. uric acid) carrier by drugs (e.g. _____
reserpine desipramine fluoxetine probenecid
44
Eg of silent proteins
Plasma proteins
45
_______ antagonizes mercuric ion And it’s _____ type of antagonism.
dimercaprol Chemical
46
NaHCO3 as an ______. Dimercaprol as _________
antacid Chelating agents
47
penicillamine as __________
Chelating agent
48
desferrioxamine as _______
chelating agents.
49
quinidine (opens or blocks?) sodium channels
Blocks
50
procainamide is a sodium channel ______
Blocker
51
local anaesthetics block the sodium channels T/F
T
52
nifedipine ______ channel blocker
Calcium
53
verapamil ______ channel (opener or blocker ?)
Calcium Blocker
54
diltiazem opens the voltage gated calcium channels T/F
F Blocks it
55
amiodarone ______ channel blocker
Potassium
56
sulfonylureas. _______ channel blocker
Potassium
57
Characteristics of Receptor: * specificity - a drug only binds to _______ and causes _______ effect. * selectivity – a drug binds to _______ receptors with _______ than to other receptors. *saturability – a receptor has a ______________, and is therefore saturated at _______ concentrations.
one single type of receptor; one single one or a few types of; higher affinity limited number of binding sites; high ligand
58
scopolamine Agonist, antagonist, partial , or inverse
Antagonist
59
phenoxybenzamine Agonist, antagonist, partial , or inverse
Antagonist
60
Beta carbolines Agonist, antagonist, partial , or inverse
Inverse
61
receptors without known ligands (_________).
Orphan receptors
62
orphan receptors can occur as a result of ________
Molecular cloning
63
Alpha-1-adrenergic. ___ Alpha 2-adrenergic ___ vii. GABA B ___ viii. 5-HT1 ____ ix. 5-HT2 ____ x. H2 ——
Gq Gi, Go Gi, Go Gi, Go Gq Gs
64
Most common classification of receptors is by _______
Transduction pathway
65
Go decreases _____ channel
Calcium
66
Additive drug combinations Aspirin+ ________ as _______ or _____
Paracetamol Analgesic or antipyretic
67
Additive drug combinations Nitrous oxide +________ as _____
Halothane General anaeethetics
68
Additive drug combinations Amlodipine + _______ as _____
Atenolol Anti hypertensive
69
Additive drug combinations Ephedrine +_______ as ______
Theophylline Bronchodilator
70
Additive drug combinations Glibenclamide + _______ as _______
Metformin As hypoglycaemic
71
Imipramine Competitive or non competitive
Non competitive
72
Desipramine Competitive or non competitive
non competitive
73
Neostigmine works by ______ Physical or chemical mechanism?
None Biochemical mechanism ( receptors)
74
Flumazenil GABA agonist or antagonist??
Antagonist
75
Penicillin High or low TI
High TI
76
Digoxin Low or high TI
Low TI
77
What is margin of safety?
Ratio of LD1 to ED99
78
Adrenaline is a replacement drug T/F
F
79
Familial hypercholesteremia is a receptor related disease T/F
T
80
Drug distribution it is not in phases T/F
F It is
81
Drug distribution delivery to the muscle occurs first T/F
F
82
Drug distribution the ____ is one of the organs which the drug first reaches
Liver
83
Drug distribution the _____ phase involves a far larger mass of the body than the _____ phase
second First
84
Essential medicines are Cost effective treatment T/F
T
85
Concerning log dose response curve between 30-70% of the curve are straight lines T/F
T
86
Concerning log dose response curve Penicillin has a (high or low ?) therapeutic index digoxin has a (high or low?) therapeutic index
High Low
87
tyramine containing foods cause cheese crisis T/F
T
88
High plasma protein binding means a (high or low ?) volume of distribution
Low
89
Ionization of bases make them less ionic T/F
F
90
Drug concentrations in the brain are often similar to plasma concentrations T/F
F
91
Which of the following drug interactions should be avoided Aminoglycoside + penicillins Probenecid + penicillin Amoxicillin+ clavulanic acid Ibuprofen + paracetamol Antacids + tetracycline
Antacids + tetracycline
92
What happens when tetracyclines are taken together with antacids?
Tetracyclines form insoluble complex molecules by metal ion chelation with various antacids; tetracycline absorption may be decreased by more than 90% by this interaction.
93
Tyramine containing foods should be taken with monoamine oxidase inhibitors(MAOIs) T/F
F Should not
94
Garlic causes increased bleeding when used with anti coagulants T/F
T
95
Tetracycline is better taken with food T/F
F
96
The following are factors that affect bioavailability of a drug , except? a) Nature of drug b) Intestinal motility c) Age of the patient d) All of the above e) None of the above
Age of the patient
97
Cholestyramine does not act on receptors T/F
T
98
Antacids function by acting on receptors T/F
F
99
Phenobarbitone is an enzyme inhibitor Valproate is an enzyme inhibitor T/F
F T
100
Metformin lowers blood sugar by_____________ Glibenclamide lowers blood sugar by __________
Helping your body make better use of the insulin Increasing the amount of insulin produced by the pancreas
101
Mention one inducer of CYP2D6
Dexamethesone