Anti-Anginal Drugs Flashcards

(88 cards)

1
Q

what results in myocardial ischemia?

A

imbalance between oxygen supply and demand

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2
Q

what are 2 things that can cause decrease of oxygen/blood supply?

A
  1. plaques obstruct perfusion
  2. coronary artery spasm
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3
Q

what can coronary artery spasm cause?

A

prinzmetal / vasospastic / rest angina

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4
Q

what can cause an increase in oxygen/blood demand?

A

exertion/stress

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5
Q

what is stable/typical angina also called?

A

coronary artery disease

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6
Q

how is typical angina usually managed?

A

lifestyle changes and medications

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7
Q

what is unstable angina also called?

A

acute coronary syndrome (ACS)

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8
Q

what is unstable angina caused by?

A

ruptured plaque with platelet aggregation and thrombi formation

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9
Q

what does angina with increased pain severity, frequency, duration, and occurrence at a lower exercise level indicate?

A

patient is progressing from stable to unstable angina

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10
Q

what is used to prevent ischemic heart disease?

A

statins

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11
Q

what two variables determine oxygen supply?

A
  1. arterial oxygen content
  2. coronary blood flow
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12
Q

what four variables determine oxygen demand?

A
  1. increased HR
  2. increased contractility
  3. increased preload
  4. increased afterload
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13
Q

amount of blood in the ventricle during diastole

A

preload

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14
Q

resistance the heart has to pump against to push blood into systemic circulation

A

afterload

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15
Q

what will an increase in one or all of HR, contractility, preload, and/or afterload cause?

A

increased demand

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16
Q

what is the cardinal symptom of angina?

A

squeezing pain in center of chest that lasts more than a few minutes

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17
Q

what are the classic symptoms of angina? (7)

A
  1. pain to arms, neck, jaw, shoulder or back
  2. SOB
  3. diaphoresis
  4. dizziness, fainting
  5. anxiety
  6. nausea
  7. fatigue
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18
Q

what is the primary function of nitric oxide?

A

dilates blood vessels

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19
Q

what does nitrate combine with to be reduced to nitric oxide?

A

sulfhydryl (SH)

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20
Q

where is sulfhydryl found?

A

endogenously

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21
Q

what is myocardial oxygen consumption (MVO2)?

A

the amount of oxygen used by the heart

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22
Q

when active nitric oxide dilates coronary arteries and veins at low doses, what does is cause?

A

decreased preload

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23
Q

when active nitric oxide dilates large arteries and arterioles at high doses, what does it causes?

A

decreased TPR, afterload, and MVO2

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24
Q

how does cGMP affect contractility?

A

it does not let calcium into the muscle = decreases contractility

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25
what does the activation of nitrate to nitric oxide lead to?
activation of guanylyl cyclase to create cGMP
26
how can nitroglycerine be administered? (2)
1. sublingual 2. buccal
27
what is the onset of sublingual or buccal nitroglycerine?
2-4 mins
28
what is the duration of action of sublingual or buccal nitroglycerine?
1 hour
29
if a patient with chest pain is given NTG SL x1 and pain is not relieved within 5 minutes, what does this suggest?
unstable angina
30
how should NTG be administered for acute MI?
IV infusion
31
what is the duration of action for prophylactic NTG administered via ointment?
4-8 hours
32
what is the duration of action for prophylactic NTG administered via patch?
24 hours
33
how should isosorbides be administered?
PO
34
which isosorbide is the active form?
isosorbide mononitrate
35
how does tolerance to nitrate develop?
chronic exposure
36
in the tolerance to nitrate, how is there a decreased capacity of vascular smooth muscle to convert nitrates to nitric oxide?
used up sulphydryl groups in the body
37
how can tolerance to nitrate be overcome?
short periods (8-12hrs/day) of nitrate absence from the body
38
what causes the adverse effect of SL NTG of postural hypotension?
rapid drop in BP and sudden movement
39
what causes reflex tachycardia as an adverse effect of NTG?
compensation of drop in BP - heart pumps quicker
40
what causes the flushing and headaches as an adverse effect of NTG?
vasodilation of all vessels in the body
41
what administration route of NTG is most likely to cause a rash?
transdermal NTG
42
why is it important to give NTG sublingual?
avoid extensive first-pass effect by hepatic nitrate reductase
43
which type of nitrite is less effected by first pass effect and is therefore given PO?
isosorbide dinitrate
44
what does PDE V do?
inactivates cGMP
45
what does PDE V inhibitor do?
inhibits the inactivation of cGMP, which leads to increased cGMP
46
what does cGMP do?
stimulates smooth muscle relaxation = decreased BP
47
why shouldn't sildenafil (PDE V inhibitor) be given to a patient taking an organic nitrate?
can cause prolonged hypotension
48
what do beta 1 and beta 2 blockers do?
block sympathetic nervous system
49
where are beta 1 receptors present on? (2)
juxtaglomerular cells in kidney heart
50
what would a beta 1 blocker do? (3)
1. block renin release 2. decrease angiotensin II 3. decrease afterload
51
what are beta 1 blockers typically used for? (2)
1. hypertension 2. heart failure
52
where are beta 2 receptors typically located?
smooth muscle cells on heart, lungs, and liver
53
what does activation of beta 1 receptor cause? (5)
1. increased HR 2. increased contractility 3. increased CO 4. increased renin 5 increased angiotensin II
54
what does blocking of the beta 1 receptor cause? (4)
1. decreased HR 2. decreased CO 3. decreased afterload 4. decreased angiotensin II
55
what does blocking of beta 1 receptors mask?
hypoglycemia
56
what does activation of beta 2 receptors cause? (5)
1. bronchodilation 2. vasodilation 3. skeletal m tremor 4. hepatic glycogenolysis 5. gluconeogenesis (increased BG)
57
what does blocking of beta 2 receptors cause? (2)
1. bronchoconstriction 2. hypoglycemia
58
if a patient comes in to the clinic to reverse the blockade of beta 2 receptors, what are they at risk for?
acute hypertension with too much vasopressors
59
what does it mean when some beta blockers have membrane stabilizing activity?
they can inhibit action potential in cardiac cells
60
what can beta blockers with intrinsic sympathomimetic activity (ISA) do?
partially activate receptor
61
what is not a good choice for patients with angina?
beta blockers with intrinsic sympathomimetic activity (ISA)
62
which organ metabolizes and eliminates lipid soluble medications?
liver
63
which two beta blockers are generation 1 (nonselective)?
propranolol sotalol
64
what receptors do generation 1 (propranolol) beta blockers work on?
beta 1 and beta 2 receptors
65
which receptors do generation 2 beta blockers work on?
beta 1 (selective)
66
which 3 beta blockers are generation 2? (beta 1 selective)
atenolol metoprolol acebutolol
67
what are bad effects of generation 1 and 2 beta blockers? (2)
increase triglycerides decrease HDL
68
what receptors do generation 3 beta blockers work on?
alpha 1 receptors
69
what 3 alpha blockers are generation 3?
carvedilol labetalol nebivolol
70
which medication is used in hypertensive emergency?
labetalol
71
what is the main function of generation 3 alpha 1 blockers? (2)
peripheral vasodilation better decrease in BP
72
what are beta blockers not effective for? (2)
1. coronary artery spasm 2. exertion-induced angina
73
why are beta blockers combines with nitrates?
antagonize SNS activity
74
what should be avoided in beta blockers?
those with intrinsic sympathomimetic activity
75
what can abrupt withdrawal of long-term beta blockers lead to? (2)
unstable angina MI
76
what do calcium channel blockers bind to?
L-type Ca channels
77
what do CCBs cause?
peripheral and coronary vasodilation
78
what do CCBs decrease? (2)
afterload MVO2
79
what are 2 non-dihydropyridines CCBs?
verapamil ditiazem
80
what do NDHP CCBs decrease?
HR CO (myocardial contractility) conduction in SA and AV nodes
81
what do NDHP CCBs work on?
the heart
82
what are NDHP CCBs used for? (2)
angina and arrhythmias
83
what type of antianginal is contraindicated in patients with heart failure?
NDHP CCBs
84
what are 5 dihydropyridines CCBs?
Nifedipine Isradipine Nicardipine Felodipine Amlodipine
85
what do DHP CCBs cause?
peripheral vasodilation
86
what is a side effect of DHP CCBs?
reflex tachycardia
87
what are DHP CCBs used for?
hypertension
88