Antibiotics Flashcards

(55 cards)

1
Q

What are the 4 mechanisms of action of antibiotics?

A

Distruption of cell wall, inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis, inibition of protein synthesis and anti-metabolite activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Give an example of some macrolide antibiotics?

A

Erythromycin, Clarithromycin and azithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the mode of action of macrolides?

A

Bind to 50S ribosome subunit and inhibit protein synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What bacteria are macrolides effective against?

A

gram +ve e.g. staphylococci spp. streptococci

gram -ve e.g H.influenzae, N.meningitidis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When is erythromycin used instead of Penicillin?

A

In a penicillin V allergy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the three macrolides: erythromycin, azithromycin and and clarithromycin shouldn’t be taken with food?

A

erithroymycin and azithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What drugs to macrolides inhibit the hepatic metabolism of?

A

theophylline, warfarin and statins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Give an example of some aminoglycoside antibiotics

A

gentamicin, tobramycin, amikacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the mode of action of aminglycosides?

A

Enter bacterial cells via oxygen dependant system and bind to 30S subunit to inhibit protein synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What bacteria are aminoglycosides effective against?

A

aerobes only and good against gram -ve esp. pseudomonas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Why must aminoglycoside use be monitored?

A

Causes ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity, has a narrow therapeutic range and has to be given IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Name some quinolones

A

Ciprofloxacin, ofloxacin, levofloxacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the mode of action of quinolones?

A

Inhibit DNA coiling by inhibiting DNA gyrase - bacteriocidal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the uses of quinolones?

A

only oral anti-pseudomonal abx

Active against gram -ve/+ve and anaerobes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What condition do you have to be careful when giving quinolones?

A

epilepsy, it reduces seizure threshold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Name some tetracyclines

A

Doxycycline, tetracycline, minocycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the mode of action of tetracyclines?

A

Bind to ribosome to inhibit protein synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What organisms are susceptible to tetracyclines and what are their common uses?

A

staphylococci, steptoccoi and gram -ve organisms - second line for skin/soft tissue infections
1st line for CAP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are some adverse events with tetracyclines?

A

gastric irritation, discolouration and temporary growth stunting (pregnancy and children) and phototoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the mode of action of Trimethoprim?

A

antimetabolite - inhibits bacterial conversion of folate to active form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Why is trimethoprim effective in UTI?

A

as it is excreted unchanged so there will be high concentrations in the urinary tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the mode of action of metronidazole?

A

DNA damage in bacterial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the uses of metronidiazole?

A

anaerobic infections e.g BV, abscesses, aspiration pneumonia and giardia

24
Q

What are some adverse effects of metronidiazole?

A

Rashes, metallic taste and extreme reaction when taken with alcohol

25
Name some glycopeptides
Vancomycin, teicoplanin
26
What is the mode of action of glycopeptides?
Inhibits cell wall synthesis - bacteriocidal
27
What are the uses of glycopeptides?
active against gram +ve organisms that are resistant to Beta lactam including MRSA oral vancomycin for C.diff colitis
28
What are some concerns with using glycopeptides?
Red-man syndrome with vancomycin, nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity
29
What is the mode of action of rifampicin?
Inhibits DNA dependant RNA polymerase in bacterial cells
30
What is rifampicin effective against?
mycobacteria - TB and also staphylocci - always used with second abx though
31
How is rifampicin mainly excreted and what can happen?
Mainly in bile, urine and tears which may turn orange
32
What is the mode of action of Penicillins?
Interfere with cross-linking of bacterial cell wall in rapidly dividing cells
33
What are some examples of penicillins?
Penicillin V, Benzylpenicilin, flucloxacillin, amoxicillin
34
What organisms are not susceptible to penicillins and why?
Mycoplasma as they do not have a cell wall
35
What are some beta lactamase inhibitors that are conjugated with penicillins to make them effective in bacterial resistance?
clavulanic acid and tazobactam
36
What is the mode of action of cephalosporins?
Same as penicillin - interfere with cell wall cross linking in rapidly dividing cells
37
What are 1st generation cephalosporins used for?
skin and soft tissue infections
38
what are 2nd and 3rd generation cephalosporins used for?
gram -ve infections
39
Give some examples of cephalosporins?
cefalexin (1st gen), cefuroxime (2nd) and cefotaxime (3rd gen)
40
Phototoxicity reactions are common - patient needs to avoid direct sunlight and use high SPF suncreams if on this Abx
Doxycycline
41
A carbapenem administered IV once a day
Ertapenem
42
A penicillin not orally active. IV preparation used for treatment of meningitis and cellulitis
Benzylpenicillin
43
An antimetabolite used as first line treatment for UTI
trimethoprim
44
Use in patients with penicillin allergy as its spectrum of activity is similar. Withold statin during treatment with this drug
Clarithromycin
45
Brand name piperacillin and tazibactam. Used as first line teratment for HAP
tazocin
46
Active orally and IV against MRSA. Weekly FBC monitoring is essential during treatment
Linezolid
47
A carbapenem with extended spectrum of activity against pseudomonas infection
Meropenem
48
Use this antibiotic with caution in epilepsy as it can reduce seizure threshold
Ciprofloxacin
49
An oral 1st generation cephalosporn used for treatment of UTI
cefalexin
50
A penicillin predominantly active against staphylococcus. First line treatment for cellulitis
flucloxacillin
51
A glycopeptide that causes red-man syndrome if administerd too quickly
Vancomycin
52
Active against anaerobic bacteria. Patients should avoid alcohol
Metronidiazole
53
An aminoglycoside that inhibits protein synthesis. Serum drug level monitoring is required to detect accumulation
Gentamicin
54
This class of antibiotic should not be used in children under 12 years old as it deposits in bone and teeth
Tetracyclines
55
A beta lactamase inhibitor, used in combination with amoxicillin in co-amoxiclav to extend its spectrum of activity
Clavulanic acid